If we chose psychology the various subfields are clinical psychology, counseling psychology and school psychology. The various psychology fields as the professionals are therapists and psychologist.
What is the study in psychology ?It is the study of psychological thoughts and emotions along with the various behavioral patterns that are coming under the psychology.
Psychologists are made to understand various behaviors patterns, emotions , thoughts, reactions along with the human culture and the environment study in which a human is living in.
The various studies of sentiments and understanding the emotions along with the evaluations of various situations and the type of issues one is dealing with need to be studied with the help of a psychologists.
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5 dangers that may occur during exercise
Answer:
Muscle pull and strain
Shoulder injury
knee injuries
Being depressed
Feeling tired.
Explain two behaviors effect of alcohol?
Answer:
Alcohol can be linked to aggression and some people report becoming angry, aggressive, anxious or depressed when they drink.
Explanation:
.
Which of the following are all potentially hazardous foods food handlers?
Raw and cooked meat, as well as foods containing meat like casseroles, curries, and lasagne. Dairy products like milk, custard, and desserts made with dairy are also acceptable. processed or chopped produce.
The final course of dinner is dessert. The course consists of sweet snacks like candies and maybe a drink like a liqueur or a desserts wine. A dessert course to end a meal is not customary in various regions of the world, including much of China, much of West Africa, and portions of Greece.
Dessert can refer to a wide variety of sweets, including biscuits, cakes, cookies, custards, gelatins, ice creams, pastries, pies, puddings, macaroons, sweet soups, tarts, and fruit salad. Fruit is frequently used in dessert menus due to its inherent sweetness. Some cultures turn often savory dishes into desserts by adding sugar.
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8. for each of the following disorders, explain the developmental cause and effects on the body: cleft lip
A gap or split will form if the process of growing and connecting is halted at any point, leading to a cleft of the lip or perhaps the palate. Cognitive impairments are common and frequently severe in syndromic clefting.
A cleft lip happens when the tissue that develops the lip doesn't fully fuse before birth. This causes the top lip to become open. The lip's aperture may be a little slit or a large orifice that penetrates the lip and leads into the nose.
It is brought about by a confluence of genetic predispositions and environmental exposures, dietary habits, and drugs used by the mother during pregnancy, among other things.
Children with a cleft lip, whether present or absent, or a cleft palate alone, frequently struggle to eat and talk correctly, and they are susceptible to ear infections. They may also experience difficulties with their hearing and with their teeth.
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Why is the development of mammary glands important?
Mammary glands help to support the young ones by providing nourishing milk solution.
The mammary gland is an exocrine organ that secretes milk to sustain the young in humans and other mammals. Mammals get their name from the Latin word mamma, which meaning "breast." The mammary glands are found in the breast of primates (including humans and chimpanzees), the udder of ruminants (such as cows, goats, sheep, and deer), and the dugs of other animals (for example, dogs and cats).
The mammary glans provide advantage to mammals to nourish their young ones and helped in making mammals most successful groups in the world in term of colonization of natural resources. Lactorrhea, the infrequent production of milk by the glands, can happen in any mammal, but lactation, the production of sufficient milk for nursing, often only happens in phenotypic females who have recently given birth. It is controlled by sex steroids' hormonal input. In a few mammalian species, male lactation can occur.
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What causes a burning sensation when urinating?; What causes frequent urination in female?; What are the symptoms of female UTI?; What are the symptoms of upper urinary tract infection?
Bacteria enter the human body through the tube that transports urine, called the urethra.
What causes female frequent urination?Urinary tract and bladder conditions It may seem obvious, but issues with your urinary tract and bladder are some of the most common conditions to cause frequent urination. Urinary tract infections (UTI), in particular, are the most common cause of frequent urination.Someone who has a suppressed immune system or a chronic health condition is more susceptible to repeated infections, including urinary tract infections, or UTIs.When we pee, we get a burning sensation. An intense desire to pee, even if less comes out once we do.Urine that is cloudy, bloody black, or has an unusual odor. Tiredness or shakiness.The best thing that we can do to get rid of a bladder infection is to immediately talk to the doctor and obtain an antibiotic. Antibiotics eliminate the microorganisms that cause bladder infections, which is the most effective (and faster) way to stop a UTI. Urinary tract infections are often caused by bacteria in the urinary system.Bacteria enter the human body through the tube that transports urine, called the urethra. Women's urethras are shorter than men's. This increases the chances that bacteria may penetrate the bladder and kidneys, thus leading to infection.A burning sensation when you urinate is one of the signs of a UTI in women. They may also feel a strong desire to pee, even if little comes out once they do. Also, the pee that is cloudy, bloody, black, or has an unusual odor. Urinary tract infections, often referred to as "water infections" or cystitis, affect the urinary system, which includes the bladder, urethra, and kidneys. Antibiotics can be used as a treatment to get rid of UTIs; however, they are not always necessary.
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When a door-to-door salesperson asks you to try a free sample of a prepackaged meal, you agree. When he returns the following week and asks you to purchase a subscription to receive these meals weekly, you make the purchase. The salesperson appears to have made effective use of
When deciding when it is safe to generalize from a sample, keep three principles in mind Representative samples are better than biased samples. Less variable observations are more reliable than more variable ones. More cases are better than fewer cases.
We can understand the perception of pain only if we understand the role of pain in human survival and adaptation. D Researchers have long observed that our thoughts, emotions, and expectations can influence our perception of pain. Option D is the correct answer because the functionalist school of thought focuses on understanding the function or role of human behavior or mental processes. Watson was one of the leading proponents of shifting psychology's focus from mind to behavior, and this approach to observing and controlling behavior became known as behaviorism. An important object of study of behaviorists was learned behavior and its interaction with the innate qualities of the organism.
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treatment of a child who survived a submersion injury is focused on optimizing oxygenation and cardiac output and controlling
It's important to keep in mind that adolescents typically do not want to be observed during a procedure when treating a child who has survived a submersion injury.
Treatment is centered on improving oxygenation and cardiac output and controlling submersion injury. The mixed venous blood oxygen content must decrease and oxygen extraction must rise if the cardiac output decreases while oxygen intake stays constant when submersion injury. As a result, less oxygen will be present in the blood that passes through the "physiological shunt" and into the left heart.
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In brain imaging studies, people with antisocial personality disorder showed relatively little activity in the amygdala, which normally ____.
a. triggers the fight-or-flight response
b. participates in recognition of fear and other negative emotions in others
c. consolidates information from short-term to long-term memory
d. inhibits poor judgment and impulsivity
Option B, People with antisocial personality disorder had extremely minimal amygdala activity in brain imaging tests, which is often involved in recognizing fear and other unpleasant emotions in others.
You could have a personality disorder if your thought, action, and behavior patterns are rigid and detrimental. Understanding and connecting with other people might be difficult for someone with a personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder, a particularly challenging type of personality disorder, is characterized by impulsive, careless, and usually criminal conduct. An antisocial personality disorder sufferer frequently engages in manipulation, dishonesty, carelessness, and disregard for the feelings of others.
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in infancy, children of both sexes tend to depend on and identify with the person who takes care of them. True or false?
True, Most kids will continue to identify as the gender in infancy that corresponds with their given sex at birth. Through peers, family, and friends, preteens and teenagers continue to develop their gender identities.
Usually, gender identity grows in stages: Children start to notice the physical distinctions between males and girls around the age of two. Before turning three: The majority of infancy have no trouble identifying themselves as either boys or girls. By the time they are four years old, most children are well aware of their gender identity. Genetic make-up and hormone levels during pregnancy and lactation are biological factors that may influence gender identification. Social influences include gender stereotypes that are ingrained in a child's mind by their family, peers, the media, and other prominent infancy Childs.
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which of the following is an example of cultural relativism while dr. gambler knows that his patient
Cultural relativism promotes awareness of customs that are foreign to other cultures in an effort to combat ethnocentrism. For example, friends of the same gender frequently hold hands while out in public in India.
What is cultural relativism?
The idea of seeing a culture's ideas, values, and practices from the perspective of that culture itself is known as cultural relativism.
It claims that there are no universal truths and that each culture must be understood in its own particular words since they cannot be transformed into universally understood terms.
The principle is occasionally applied to prevent cultural bias in research and to prevent evaluating another culture according to the norms of one's own. Cultural relativism has thus been seen as an effort to steer clear of ethnocentrism.
Cultural relativism is the capacity to comprehend another culture on that culture's terms and, as a result, refrain from judging others based on the norms of one's own culture.
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1. when the number of calories a person consumes is equal to the number of calories he or she burns in a day, that person's body is in blank.target 1 of 8 2. someone who is in blank eats more calories in a day than he or she burns.target 2 of 8 3. blank occurs when the number of calories a person burns in a day is greater than the amount he or she consumes.target 3 of 8 4. used to help assess overall health, blank is the ratio of a person's body weight to the square of his or her height.target 4 of 8 5. the blank is the amount of energy the body uses in order to perform its basic physiological functions.target 5 of 8 6. the blank refers to the number of calories burned in order to digest food and absorb, transport, metabolize, and store the nutrients the body needs.target 6 of 8 7. a person's blank refers to his or her total body mass minus fat mass.target 7 of 8 8. the blank refers to all energy expended on body movement above basal levels.
When the number of Calories a person consumes is equal to the number of Calories he or she burns in a day, that person's body is in energy balance.
Explain about number of calories a person consumes? Someone who is in energy excess eats more Calories in a day than he or she burns Energy deficit occurs when the number of Calories a person burns in a day is greater than the amount he or she consumes Used to help assess overall health, is the ratio of a person's body weight to the square of his or her height Body Mass Index (BMI) The is the amount of energy the body uses in order to perform its basic physiological functions Basal Metabolic Rate The Thermic effect of food refers to the number of Calories burned in order to digest food and absorb, transport, metabolize, and store the nutrients the body needs A person's Lean Body Mass refers to his or her total body mass minus fat massThe Energy cost of physical activity refers to all energy expended on body movement above basal levels.The human body needs energy to function in the best wey. This energy comes from calories that are found in food and beverages. When we consume more energy than we burn, this is going to increase our body weight, which could be then seen in our Body mass index (BMI).Nutritionists use a formula to determine how much energy our body needs. We need to take into account the thermic effect of food, our basal metabolic rate, and we have to add the energy cost of physical activity, which will depend on its intensity.Basal Metabolic Rate will change because it depends on our body composition, age and sex.To learn more about physiological functions refer to:
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patients taking verapamil (calan) and digoxin (lanoxin) should have digoxin (lanoxin) levels monitored closely because of an increased risk of toxicity.
The above statement "patients taking verapamil and digoxin levels monitored closely because of an increased risk of toxicity" is true.
Why does verapamil cause digoxin toxicity?
Verapamil is known to decrease the renal tubular elimination of digoxin. Because of increase in the digoxin blood plasma concentrations lead to adverse drug reactions and cause digoxin toxicity.
Verapamil increases serum digoxin concentration by reducing renal and nonrenal digoxin clearance.
Digoxin causes the increase in intracellular sodium that will drive calcium inside the heart, and this causes the increase in contractility. It is used to treat congestive heart failure and heart rhythm problem called atrial fibrillation.
Both verapamil and digoxin depress myocardial conduction. If any combinations of these drugs must be used the patient should be monitored very closely and appropriate dose adjustments must be made. Verapamil has also been associated with serious respiratory depression when given with general anesthetics or as an adjunct to anesthesia.
Hence, patients taking verapamil (calan) and digoxin (lanoxin) should have digoxin levels monitored closely because of increased risk of toxicity.
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Which of the following are positive symptoms of schizophrenia choose all that apply?
Hallucinations, disorganised speech, and delusions are all signs of schizophrenia.
Delusions. These unfounded misconceptions are incorrect beliefs. You could feel threatened or harassed, get offensive gestures or remarks, be famous or have outstanding talent, fall in love with someone else, or be on the verge of a serious disaster. Most schizophrenia sufferers have delusions.
Hallucinations. These often entail observing or hearing things that are not real. The whole power and effect of a normal event, however, are present for the individual with schizophrenia. Although hallucinations can occur in any sense, hearing voices is the most typical type.
Unorganized thought (speech). Chaotic speech implies disorganised thought. Answers to questions may be partially or entirely unconnected, which might hinder effective communication. Rarely, speaking may include stringing together incomprehensible words, a practise known as word salad.
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question: during o2 rounds, the respiratory therapist notices that the bed sheet is pulled over the entrainment port of a patient's air entrainment mask. which of the following are true statements regarding this situation?
A medical device known as a venturi mask, also known as an air-entrainment mask, provides patients receiving regulated oxygen therapy with a known amount of oxygen.
What is the purpose of an air-entrainment mask?Concrete can be effectively shielded from thawing and freezing damage by air entrainment. It is accomplished by sparingly incorporating a surface-active ingredient into the concrete mixture.By doing this, a lot of tiny, closely spaced air bubbles are produced in the cured concrete.Air Conditioning. - Incorporate and maintain small air bubbles that are evenly dispersed throughout the paste, additive, or cement. - Increase the concrete's resilience.For resistance to freeze-thaw, air-entraining concrete is primarily used. When a freeze event occurs, the air voids act as pressure relief sites, allowing the water inside the concrete to freeze without causing significant internal stresses. Deicer-scaling resistance is another application in this area.Patients with breathing or cardiopulmonary disorders undergo examinations and interviews by respiratory therapists.To learn more about air-entrainment mask refer to:
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Match the following description to the appropriate team member. Do not change the positioning of an answer after it is placed.
Sort elements:
Scribe:
ED Nurse:
ED Tech:
RT:
Mis-Level Provider:
Charge Nurse:
Records patient visits,Keeps a record of the patient's medical history, Supports medical operations and the nurse,etc
Scribe: Records patient visits on the doctor's behalf.
Answers phone calls, pages other specialists or physicians, and arranges the patient's documentation as the unit secretary.
ED Nurse: Keeps a record of the patient's medical history, symptoms, monitors them, starts IVs, gives medications, and helps with operations.
ED Tech: Supports medical operations and the nurse.
RT: Assists in controlling a patient's airway and administers "breathing treatments"
NPs or PAs who treat patients while working under a doctor's supervision are considered "mis-level providers."
Charge Nurse: Controls the flow of ED patients.
working attentively, punctually, and to the highest quality on all duties that have been delegated to you by the team leader or manager. collaborating with teammates to meet daily, weekly, and monthly objectives.
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What did Schweitzer discover?
The humanitarian acts and lectures Schweitzer gave in Europe to generate money for his hospital in Africa contributed to his rise to fame.
What is Schweitzer famous for?The humanitarian acts and lectures Schweitzer gave in Europe to generate money for his hospital in Africa contributed to his rise to fame. He frequently emphasized that his philosophy was based on the idea of "reverence for life" and the moral and religious obligations to care for others.
For putting his inspiring theory into practice in his hospital in Africa, where he treated many patients with leprosy and the terrible African sleeping sickness, Schweitzer received widespread acclaim. Schweitzer, who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1952, utilized the $33,000 prize money to establish a leprosarium in Lambourne.
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compared with people closer to age 55, people older than 85 are as likely to experience delirium.
People over 85 are more than ten times more likely to develop delirium compared to those who are closer to age 55.
Fewer than 5% of adults aged 65 to 75 have a neurocognitive problem. However, as people become older, this percentage rises, and by the time they are 85 or older, about 50% of them have a neurocognitive problem. Delirium can afflict People of any age, Overall, delirium is not common among older residents of the neighborhood. although it is more common in the elderly because of aging and age-related anatomical changes that eventually decrease the brain's functional reserve.
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List the main term used to locate information in the Alphabetic Index of the HCPCS code book, for the following scenario: Patient was given 2mg, IM of Lorazepam. (I think that the answer is Lorazepam but I am not sure).
Answer:
In the Alphabetic Index of the HCPCS code book, the main term used to locate information for the scenario you described would be "Lorazepam." The HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) is a standardized coding system that is used to describe medical procedures, supplies, and equipment. The Alphabetic Index is a section of the HCPCS code book that provides a list of terms and their corresponding codes. In this case, "Lorazepam" would be the term used to find the code for the medication that was given to the patient.
Explanation:
HCPCS code J2060 for Injection, lorazepam, 2 mg as monitored by CMS falls under Drugs, Administered by Injection.
What is the HCPCS code?The primary term utilized to find information for the case you mentioned would be "Lorazepam" in the HCPCS code book's Alphabetic Index. involve the most current Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS).
A standardized coding system called HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) is used to represent medical operations, supplies, and equipment.
The HCPCS code book contains an alphabetical index that lists terms and the codes that relate to them. The code for the drug that was administered to the patient in this instance would be "Lorazepam."
Therefore, HCPCS code J2060 for Injection, lorazepam, 2 mg.
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What indicates eating disorder?; What are three signs that someone may have an eating disorder?; What are the signs and symptoms that you should look out for patients with eating disorders?; How do you recognize individuals with eating disorders?
An eating disorder is characterized by the person's abnormal concern with food, exercise, and body weight or form.
What qualifies you to have an eating disorder?A significant mental condition known as an eating disorder is characterized by the person's abnormal concern with food, exercise, and body weight or form.The development of an eating problem, however, is thought to be influenced by a number of genetic, physical, social, and psychological variables, according to several medical professionals. For instance, evidence shows that serotonin may alter eating behaviour..The world's most hazardous eating disorder is diabulimia.Some family functioning types, social or romantic worries, identity issues (such as for LGBTQ people), having been taunted, bullied, or mistreated, traumatic life experiences, and/or significant life transitions, such relocation or the loss of a loved one, may all be little roots that build up this bigger root.To learn more about eating disorder refer,
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explain how each of the three principles of cardiovascular
Frequency, intensity, and duration are the three variables that must be balanced during a cardiovascular workout to achieve optimal effectiveness and safety.
What are the foundational tenets of cardio fitness?Frequency, intensity, and duration are the three variables that must be balanced during a cardiovascular workout to achieve optimal effectiveness and safety. The goal intensity portion of your workout must be preceded by a warm-up time, and it must be followed by a cool-down session.Athletes commonly employ three training techniques to increase their cardiovascular fitness, slow to moderately intense distance training; moderate to high intensity interval training; and high-intensity continuous exercise.To learn more about Cardiovascular fitness refer to:
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according to the american academy of pediatrics, infants who are breastfed (compared to formula-fed) are less likely to experience all of the following, except:
They have all kinds of advantages except for Breastfed infants born prematurely grow more slowly than formula fed infants .
Breastfeeding supplies immunological components that offer illness protection. Healthy gut bacterial development is supported by breastfeeding.
All the nutrients that newborns need to grow and develop are present in breast milk by nature. Antibodies found in breast milk can help keep your infant healthy. Breastfeeding can help your infant avoid health issues like allergies, eczema, ear infections, and gastrointestinal issues.
Additionally, because breast milk digests more quickly than formula, breastfed babies do need to eat more frequently than formula-fed ones. In the first few weeks, mom can find herself in demand every two to three hours (or possibly more or less).
Human milk only contains 0.5 mg/L of iron, compared to 10 to 12 mg/L in formulas fortified with cow's milk.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. derek's diet contains high amounts of___, which is classified as a major mineral. multiple choice iodine phosphorus lithium iron
Derek’s diet contains high amounts of phosphorous, which is classified as a major mineral.
What about phosphorus?Foods that are high in protein, such as flesh, flesh, fish, nuts, sap, and dairy products, naturally contain phosphorus, which is available in the form of organic phosphorus.Compared to phosphorus in factory diets, phosphorus in beast foods is more fluently absorbed.Rudiments of white or unheroic phosphorus, when consumed, generally affect acute vomiting and diarrhea, both of which are characterized as" burning,'' `` luminescent," and smelling like garlic.Dysrhythmias, coma, hypotension, and death are possible fresh symptoms and pointers of severe poisoning.Only when the blood phosphate position is extremely low can hypophosphatemia symptoms appear?As muscle weakness sets in, torpor, coma, and death follow.The bones can deteriorate in moderate habitual hypophosphatemia, leading to bone discomfort and fractures.Weakness and appetite loss are possible.Milk and other dairy- grounded drinks are regarded as having high phosphorus content.One mug of milk has 247 milligrams of phosphorus, whereas condensed milk may have up to 774 milligrams, according to the USDA's nutrition database.According to some exploration, too important phosphorus might worsen inflammation and encourage the calcification, or hardening, of coronary highways.An advanced threat of cardiovascular complaint may be linked to advanced phosphate situations( CVD).Learn more about phosphorus here:
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What should I do if someone is choking?
When anything gets stuck in the windpipe or throat and blocks the airway, choking occurs. people need to follow steps provides by red cross organizations.
Young kids frequently choke on tiny items. Threats to life include choking. It robs the brain of oxygen. Immediately administer first aid if you or someone else is choking.
Give first aid to anyone who is unable to cough, talk, cry, or laugh loudly.
The following actions are suggested by the American Red Cross:
1)Give your back five blows. Engage the person choking by themselves from the side and behind. Kneel down behind a youngster. To support the person's body, cross your arm over their chest. To face the ground, stoop over at the waist.
2)Five abdominal thrusts are given. Give five abdominal thrusts, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, if back blows are unable to free the object that is stuck.
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A client with an altered self-concept would most likely exhibit which emotional responses? Select all that apply.
a) Fear of acceptance
b) Feelings of superiority
c) Helplessness
d) Feelings of worthlessness
e) Guilt
c) Helplessness,d) Feelings of worthlessness,e) Guilt most likely exhibit which emotional responses.
Feelings of depersonalization, helplessness, alienation, fear of rejection, anger, grief, guilt, inadequacy, worthlessness, and suspicion of others are among the emotional alterations associated with self-concept dysfunction. It's possible for emotional reactions to be dulled or overly powerful.Patients with altered self-concept display characteristics like stooped postures, excessive amounts of apology, and hesitation when speaking. The patient frequently avoids eye contact and may find it difficult to express their thoughts and feelings.
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When doctors discovered the disease to be -------, they held out little hope for the patient's recovery.
When doctors discovered the disease to be Systemic, they held out little hope for the patient's recovery.
What does systemic use mean?Systemic administration is a way of delivery of medication, nourishment or other material into the circulatory system so that the entire body is impacted.Systemic meaning affecting the entire body, rather than a particular organ or bodily component. For instance, the entire body is impacted by systemic conditions like high blood pressure or systemic illnesses like the flu. A systemic infection is one that affects the bloodstream.Systemic diseases can have gastrointestinal (GI) signs which are characterized by nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, abdominal discomfort, jaundice, and abnormal liver function tests. These digestive symptoms may indicate a number of immune, viral, and endocrine problems.To learn more about Systemic diseases refer,
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which of the following correctly describes a physiologic change that occurs in the maternal urinary system during pregnancy?
Renal blood flow increases in the maternal urinary system during pregnancy.
A frequent and dangerous consequence of pregnancy is renal impairment. Understanding normal physiology during pregnancy helps put alterations in pregnancy that cause renal dysfunction into context and may offer hints for improved therapy.
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increases dramatically due to decreases in net glomerular oncotic pressure and increases in renal size as a result of hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy. These changes result in increased blood flow to the kidneys and impaired autoregulation. Through the three pregnant trimesters and into the postpartum period, the mechanisms for maintaining an elevated GFR shift. Important reasons of pregnancy-specific renal impairment have been further researched, but more has to be learnt.
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A palatolingual groove can enhance plaque retention thereby contributing to initiation of periodontal disease. Poorly fitting orthodontic appliances have been known to initiate periodontal disease.
Select one:
A. The first statement is false; the second statement is true
B. Both statements are false
C. Both statements are true
D. The first statement is true; the second statement is false
A palatolingual groove can enhance plaque retention thereby contributing to initiation of periodontal disease. Poorly fitting orthodontic appliances have been known to initiate periodontal disease.
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false
What exactly is gum disease? Infections and inflammation of the gums and bone that surround and support the teeth are the main causes of periodontal disorders. When gingivitis occurs in its early stages, the gums may swell, get red, and even bleed.Gum disease is called periodontitis (also known as periodontal disease). Your teeth's soft tissue is harmed by an infection, and the bone that supports them is eroded. If the illness is not treated, the bone will eventually deteriorate, causing the teeth to become loose and eventually fall out.
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which of the following statements about emergency support functions (esfs) is correct ics 800
Therefore, it is true what is said that "Emergency support functions (ESF) is exclusively a federal coordinating mechanism."
A situation that risks "life or limb" is sometimes referred to as a medical emergency. It involves an acute injury or illness that puts a person's life or long-term health in immediate danger. Some of these crises, like those involving the cardiovascular system (heart), the respiratory system, and the gastrointestinal system, cannot be managed by the victim alone and may need the assistance of another, qualified person. The involvement of multiple levels of care, from first responders through emergency medical technicians, paramedics, emergency physicians, and anesthesiologists, may be necessary depending on the severity of the emergency and the quality of any treatment provided.
The patient involved, the situation, and the resources available to assist them will all play a significant role in any response to an emergency medical situation.
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A young pregnant adolescent reports bleeding and abdominal pain and is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. Which risk factors should the nurse look for in the client? Select all that apply.
Use of contraceptive pills and a history of irregular menses are not linked to ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy is more common in adolescents who smoke.
Smoking habit,Fallopian tube dysfunction,Inflammatory illness of the pelvis history.Risk factors include inflammation of the fallopian tubes and ovaries as well as a history of pelvic inflammatory illness.The term "ectopic pregnancy" refers to the condition in which a fertilized egg implants itself outside of the womb, typically in one of the fallopian tubes that connect the ovaries to the womb. If an egg becomes stuck in a fallopian tube, it will not develop into a baby and continuing the pregnancy could be dangerous to your health.
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