in primary immune thrombocytopenia purpura (itp), the client has which type of disorder that primarily destroys which blood component?

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Answer 1

The autoimmune disorder known as immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is marked by the destruction of platelets by the immune system.

A reduction in the quantity of platelets in the blood is a characteristic of the blood condition known as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Blood cells called platelets aid in the cessation of bleeding. Easy bruising, bleeding gums, and internal bleeding are all symptoms of platelet deficiency. An immune response directed against one's platelets results in this sickness. Another name for it is autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura.

In thrombocytopenia, the blood's platelet count is reduced.A bruise-like purple discoloration of the skin is referred to as purpura.

ITP is a blood condition that can affect both children and adults.

Acute thrombocytopenic purpura: Ages 2 to 6 years old children are often affected by this. The signs and symptoms might come after a viral infection like chickenpox. The symptoms of acute ITP typically emerge rapidly and diminish in less than 6 months, frequently in a matter of weeks. Treatment is frequently unnecessary. Usually, the condition doesn't come back. The most prevalent type of the condition is acute ITP.

Chronic thrombocytopenic purpura: The symptoms of the illness might appear at any age and endure for at least six months, a number of years, or a lifetime. Although it affects teens, this kind is more common in adults. It affects women more frequently than men. Recurrence of chronic ITP is common.

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a nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has undergone electroconvulsive therapy (ect). the nurse should include which intervention?

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The nurse should include intervention of Reorienting the client to time and place

What is electroconvulsive therapy ?

Under general anesthesia, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure in which the brain is electrically stimulated to intentionally cause a brief seizure. The symptoms of some mental health conditions appear to be quickly reversed by ECT, which appears to alter brain chemistry.

The most typical negative effects of ECT include confusion and brief memory loss. As the patient awakens from the procedure, the nurse should constantly reorient him to time and place. For the first hour after ECT, the nurse should check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. To lower the risk of aspiration, the nurse should place the client on his side after the procedure. The patient should stay in bed until fully awake and alert.

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the nurse provides education to a client who will begin ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ect) for the treatment of bipolar disorder. which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

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A client who will start ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of bipolar illness receives education from the nurse. There is a need for more instruction based on the client's comment, "I will receive a muscle relaxant to prevent me from damage during ECT."

A mood disorder called bipolar disorder can result in severe mood swings. You might occasionally experience intense "up," elation, irritability, or vigor. It's known as a manic episode. Sometimes you might feel "down," depressed, uncaring, or hopeless. We refer to this as a depression episode. You might experience both manic and depressed symptoms simultaneously. We refer to this as a mixed episode. Bipolar disorder alters behavior, energy levels, and activity levels in addition to mood swings. Manic depression and manic-depressive disorder were two previous names for bipolar illness.

We can therefore conclude that the client's statement that "I shall receive a muscle relaxant to prevent me from damage during ECT." points to the necessity for extra instruction.

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Complete Question

The nurse provides education to a client who will begin ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of the bipolar disorder. which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

A. "It is common to treat the disorder with ECT before trying medications."

B. "I can have my disorder cured if I receive a series of ECT treatments."

C. "I will have seizures lasting 1 1/2 to 2 minutes during ECT."

D. "I will receive a muscle relaxant to protect me from injury during ECT."

the physician orders cleocin phosphate injection 1 g iv q.12h. how many milliliters of cleocin phosphate injection will the nurse administer to the patient?

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The nurse will inject the patient with 7 ml of cleocin phosphate.

What purposes does cleocin phosphate serve?

This medication can be used to treat a wide range of different bacterial infections. By preventing bacterial growth, it works. Only bacterial infections are treated with this antibiotic. Serious infections caused by anaerobic bacteria are advised to be treated with products containing cleocin phosphate.

Cleocin phosphate order dose = 1 gram

Ordered dose in mg = 1000 mg

Available dose = 9000 mg / 60 ml

Correct dose = ordered dose /available dose x Quantity

Correct dose = 1000 / 9000 x 60

Correct dose = 6.66 ml.

So correct answer is approximate 7 ml.

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after completing several days of penicillin therapy, a client presents with new reports of inflamed oral mucous membranes and tongue and gum swelling. what is a priority action in regards to this new finding?

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After completing several days of penicillin therapy, a client reports inflamed oral mucous membranes as well as tongue and gum swelling. The nurse's priority action to this new finding is to: regularly inspect the mouth and gums.

Why does the tongue swell after taking penicillin?

Penicillin is a group of antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections. It works by killing the bacteria and preventing their growth. But, not everyone can take penicillin as a medication. In some cases, people with penicillin allergy may experience anaphylaxis, which is difficulty breathing, seizures, low blood pressure, diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and swelling of the throat, tongue, and gum.

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since 1900, the ideal body in the us question 11 options: has stayed the same. has become curvier. has become heavier. has become thinner and more muscular.

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Since 1900, the ideal body in the US has become thinner and more muscular.

Why do you use the term "ideal body"?

The physical appearance deemed most appealing or suitable for a person's age, gender, and race within a culture and its media.

The result of a BMI calculation is a single number that falls into one of the following categories: If a person's BMI is under 18.5, they are regarded as being underweight. BMI levels between 18.5 and 24.9 are considered ideal. BMIs of 25 to 29.9 or higher are considered to be overweight. A BMI over 30 indicates obesity.

Keep, Don't Gain. Health consequences may result from your weight, waist size, and the amount of weight you've put on since your mid-20s. These elements may significantly impact your risk of contracting the following illnesses and conditions: Heart attack and stroke are two examples of cardiovascular disease.

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the nurse overhears a client, who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy, tell a family member that everything will eventually be okay and the cancer will be in remission. which question will the nurse ask to begin a conversation about hope with the client?

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A discussion about hope with the client is "What gives you strength to deal with this health situation."

What is chemotherapy?

One or more anti-cancer medications are used as part of a regular chemotherapy programme in chemotherapy, a type of cancer treatment. Chemotherapy can be administered with the goal of curing a condition, extending life, reducing symptoms, or all three. In order to destroy your body's rapidly proliferating cells, chemotherapy is a medical treatment. Chemotherapy is the method of cancer treatment that is most frequently used because cancer cells grow and reproduce much more quickly than the majority of other body cells. Chemotherapy medications come in a wide variety of forms.

What stage of cancer is chemotherapy and is taking chemotherapy painful?

Systemic pharmacological therapies, such as chemotherapy or targeted therapy, are frequently used for stage 4 malignancies. There is frequently a chance for a clinical trial that offers cutting-edge medicines to assist in the treatment of stage 4 cancer. The current treatment options for the five most common cancers are listed below.

Chemotherapy side effects can be excruciating and include mouth sores, headaches, muscle and stomach pain, as well as burning, numbness, and tingling or shooting pains in your hands and feet.

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the nurse is teaching a client about atherosclerosis. the client asks the nurse what the substance causing atherosclerosis is made of. how does the nurse best respond?

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The nurse tells that the plaque contains fat, cholesterol, cellular debris, calcium, and fibrin. As it builds up, artery walls thicken and stiffen.

What is atherosclerosis?

The condition known as atherosclerosis is quite common and occurs when a gummy substance known as plaque accumulates inside of an individual's arteries.

Deposits of fatty compounds, cholesterol, and other cellular waste products, calcium, and fibrin are the components that make up plaque. When it accumulates in the arteries, it causes the walls of the arteries to become thicker and more rigid.

You may experience abrupt numbness or weakness in your arms or legs, difficulty speaking or slurred speech, temporary loss of vision in one eye, or drooping muscles in your face if you have atherosclerosis in the arteries leading to your brain.

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What minerals do athletes lose in their sweat in potentially substantial amounts?.

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Which mineral is lost in sweat in the largest amount? “During exercise, sodium, chloride, and then potassium are lost in the greatest quantities, making them top electrolytes of concern,”

12. which finding requires immediate intervention when planning care for an adolescent with cystic fibrosis (cf)?

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To treat and prevent lung infections with antibiotics. anti-inflammatory drugs to reduce lung edema in the airways. Hypertonic saline and other mucus-thinning medications can help you cough up the mucus, which can enhance lung function.

Generally speaking, a normal diet with added energy and unrestricted fat intake is advised; a high-energy and high-fat diet, along with supplemental vitamins (especially fat-soluble vitamins), minerals, and nutrients, is advised to make up for malabsorption and the increased energy demand of chronic inflammation. medicines for the treatment and prevention of chest infections. medications that thin and facilitate coughing up lung mucus. drugs to open up the airways and lower inflammation. unique methods and tools to assist in clearing mucus from the lungs

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if a patient with diabetes ate the entire bag of potato chips and had an insulin-to-carbohydrate (icr) ratio of 1:10, how many units of rapid-acting insulin would that patient require?

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If a patient with diabetes ate the entire bag of potato chips and had an insulin-to-carbohydrate (icr) ratio of 1:10,  then 6 units of rapid-acting insulin would that patient require.

Can Diabetics Consume Potato Chips?

Potatoes are more than just a source of starch, containing 37 grams of carbohydrates, 4 grams of fiber, 4.5 grams of protein, and 14 milligrams of sodium. Yes, they are high in carbohydrates, but if you watch your intake, you may still use them in a diabetes meal plan. They have a respectable level of fiber and protein as well as almost no fat (and no saturated fat).

How many carbohydrates do potatoes have?

A high-carb food is potatoes. However, the number of carbohydrates can change depending on the cooking technique.

The amount of carbohydrates in 1/2 cup (75–80 grams) of potatoes prepared variously is shown below (11Reliable Source):

11.8 grams uncooked15.7 grams after boiling13.1 grams when baked18.2 grams after a microwave10.6 grams of frozen steak-cut fries cooked in the ovenfried in oil: 36.5 grams

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which is a food that might be incorporated into the plan of care for a client diagnosed in the manic phase of bipolar disorder?

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If a client is unable to sit still long enough to eat, snacks and high-energy foods that can be consumed while moving should be made available.

What causes bipolar disorder?

It is generally accepted that bipolar disorder is caused by brain disorders. Neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine, are the substances in charge of regulating how the brain works.

What occurs to the body when someone has bipolar disorder?

Along with feeling down and hopeless, you can experience a sudden symptoms such as fatigue and need extra sleep. Changes in appetite can also happen if a person experiences depression. Depression can produce irritation and restlessness, much like mania does. A made by mixing of mania and depression is also conceivable.

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which action can the nurse delegate to the uap to reduce fatigue for a patient recovering from a stroke at mealtimes

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An action the nurse can delegate to the UAP to reduce fatigue for a patient recovering from a stroke at mealtimes is cutting up the meat in the meal for the patient.

UAP, short for Unlicensed Assistive Personnel, are unlicensed people who are in training to assist people with physical disabilities, mental impairments, or other health care needs.

In the case above, the patient is recovering from a stroke. They may experience difficulty when eating meals. Repeated motion of the jaw can make them feel fatigued, so the nurse can delegate to the UAP to cut up the meat in their meal. Cut up meal means easier chewing and swallowing, reducing fatigue, while not taking out the patient's independence.

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which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating?

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The assessment a nurse should give to a client that choked while eating should be Auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds, option B.

What is Auscultate lung sounds?

The lung are heard best when using a stethoscope and this process is called auscultation. The normal sound of a lung can be heard along the chest areas, even above the collar bone and a below the ribcage.

When the lungs are assessed immediately by the nurse, they get to determine adventitious sounds since the client is at risk of aspiration pneumonia which is secondary to a choking incident.

The full question is:

Which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating?

A-The caregiver's knowledge about feeding a person who is dysphagic.

B-Auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds.

C-Assess the client's LOC with the mini-mental status exam.

D- Determine the client's ability to swallow liquids

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a physician has asked the nurse to use microdrip tubing to administer a prescribed dosage of iv solution to a client. what is the standard drop factor of microdrip tubing?

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The standard drop factor of microdrip tubing = 60 drops/mL.

What is microdrip tubing?

Microdrip tubing is defined as a type of tubing that is being used by medical practitioners to deliver a specific amount of fluid or medication into the blood of an individual especially the infants.

It is very different from a macrodrip tubing as this is used to deliver a large amount of fluid preferably in adults.

Micro drip tubing typically delivers 60 gtt/mL which means it would deliver 1 milliliter in 60 drops.

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the nurse is caring for a client that practices islam in the hospital. when dietary brings the client a food tray for supper, which food on the tray should the nurse remove that is against the dietary laws for a practicing muslim?

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the nurse should remove pork chop that is against the dietary laws for a practicing Muslim.

Dietary law refers to the rules and customs that govern what can and cannot be eaten under certain conditions. These prescriptions and proscriptions are sometimes religious, sometimes secular, and sometimes both.

This article examines the various laws and customs concerning food materials and the art of eating in human societies from the beginning to the present. It will demonstrate that food behavior, whether religious, secular, or both, is institutionalized and not distinct from social relations organizations.

The only dietary restrictions specified for Christians in the New Testament are to "abstain from food sacrificed to idols, from blood, and from meat of strangled animals" which early Church Fathers like Clement of Alexandria and Origen preached for believers to follow.

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a nurse plans interventions to promote wellness in older adults. which intervention is most appropriate to meet this goal?

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A nurse plans interventions to promote wellness in older adult then the intervention that is most appropriate to meet this goal is : Facilitating early mobilization to prevent muscle wasting and function loss in an older client.

What are the interventions to promote wellness in older adults?

Goals of the functional consequences theory include improving declines in functioning and also addressing quality-of-life concerns. It is important to discussing treatment options and have family members make an older adult's decisions.

Three types of interventions that can be promoted in older adults are as cognitive training, physical exercises and multicomponent interventions. All reviewed studies provide evidence of the effectiveness of interventions in improvement of older people's ability to perform the activities of daily living.

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De Roode mentions a risk in using synthetic medicine when treating certain pathogens. What is that risk?

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Answer:

The risk is that pathogens constantly evolve and man-made medicine is becoming ineffective.

GabrielSumagui wrote the f-word in Thai.

in administering a sustained-release capsule to a client, the family member requests that it should be crushed into applesauce. what is the best response?

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RESPONSE THE FAMILY MEMBER

The best response is say No (Refuse) it. But, don't be rude and be polite. We know, the family member interest in you, there's no need to be impolite.

Simply be direct and a little bit kind.  For example, say: "Thank you for your inquiry, that sounds wonderful. However, I cannot." Or, "I am overjoyed to meet you. I can't let you in right now because I'm in the middle of something."

There are a number of useful replies nurses can employ to clarify meaning or obtain further information from patients. This is especially crucial given that patient communication is frequently ambiguous.

In order for the nurse to fully comprehend the patient's requirements or concerns, active listening and effective communication may be required when the patient's words are more subtle.

In this case, capsule cannot be crushed in to applesauce or other seemingly harmless substances, such as fruit juice, pudding, or thickeners, to facilitate swallowing. However, crushing and mixing medications can alter their efficacy and put patients at risk.

As integral members of the patient care team, nurse must ensure that clinicians comprehend the implications of crushing and mixing and adopt policies to reduce the risk of variable dosing and patient harm.

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The most effective way to end pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation is.

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The most effective way to end pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation is external electrical defibrillation.

What is external electrical defibrillation?

External electrical defibrillation, also known as Automated external defibrillation (AED).

Technology for analyzing heart rhythms is found in AEDs. As a result, determining whether or not a rhythm is shockable does not require a trained health provider. AEDs have improved outcomes for unexpected out-of-hospital cardiac arrests by making these devices accessible to the general public.

Hence, The most effective way to end pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation is external electrical defibrillation.

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What psychological disorder is characterized by nightmares and flashbacks, elevated arousal, anxiety, and emotional disturbances?.

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Post traumatic stress disorder also known as PTSD is a psychological disorder characterized by given symptoms.

What is PTSD?

After experiencing a startling, terrifying, or deadly event, some persons may acquire post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Fear is a normal emotion both during and after a terrible event. Fear causes the body to go through a number of split-second modifications that aid in defending against or avoiding danger.

Common signs of PTSD include:

vivid memories (feeling like the trauma is happening right now)obtrusive ideas or visuals.nightmares.extreme distress when reminded of the incident in real or symbolic ways.bodily reactions include shaking, sweating, nausea, or discomfort.

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the nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. when creating the plan of care for this client, what interventions should the nurse include to avoid this development? select all that apply.

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The nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. when creating the plan of care for this client, interventions such as "discuss current events or the client's occupation, hobbies, or interests", "orient the client to the surroundings and environment every 1 to 2 hours" and "Have the client assist in self-care as much as possible" should be included by the nurse the development. Making options B, C, and D the right answers.

How does a spinal cord injury shape cognitive ability?

Cognitive impairment can create problems that affect clients' judgment, ability to remember things and events, and solving problems.

The spinal cord might not directly affect cognition , but due to its role in the nervous system, an injury to it can cause impairment.

A client's cognitive impairment after a spinal injury might include impaired memory, losing interest in things, and forgetting recent events.

In summary, the client should be educated on his/her surroundings, updated on current events, and educated to always care for himself/herself are the best ways to avoid cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury.

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The complete part of the question is:

The nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. When creating the plan of care for this client, what interventions should the nurse include to avoid this development? Select all that apply.

A. If the client begins to have hallucinations, agree with the client to prevent agitation.

B. Discuss current events or the client's occupation, hobbies, or interests.

C. Orient the client to the surroundings and environment every 1 to 2 hours.

D. Have the client assist in self-care as much as possible.

E. Keep the client's room quiet with the shades or curtains drawn.

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the nurse is conducting a lecture on the difference between hypovolemia and dehydration. when completing a verbal comparison, which point needs clarified?

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In dehydration, only extracellular is depleted, need to be clarified.

What is dehydration ?

Dehydration can be defined as a condition that arises  when the body do not have enough fluids, a Severe dehydration can cause serious problems.

severe dehydration can show symptoms like  extreme thirst,  very dry mouth, faster breathing rate, faster heart rate, low blood  pressure, no urination, fever, drowsy.

The clients diagnosed with dehydration, the fluid compartments including the intracellular and extracellular fluid  are reduced, hypovolemia relates to low blood volume.

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the general capacity to adapt and respond favorably to physical effort best describes: a. hypertrophy b. absence of disease c. physical fitness d. atrophy

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The general capacity to adapt and respond favorably to physical effort best describes physical fitness.

Physical fitness is the capacity to adjust & perform well under physical stress. Wellness is the pursuit of an enhanced quality of life, personal growth, and potential through healthy lifestyle choices and attitudes.

The ability of your body's systems to work together efficiently is what allows you to keep excellent health and engage in regular activities. Effectiveness means doing daily chores with the least amount of effort possible.

Fitness for the mind and body go hand in hand. A person's risk of developing a mental illness is considerably reduced by physical fitness.

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a client needs an intravenous fluid that will pull fluids into the vascular space. what type of fluid does the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed?

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The nurse would assume that initially, a prescription for normal saline solution would be given when getting ready to administer this therapy. Extreme, ongoing nausea and vomiting are symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum.

What are the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum and how it has been handeled?

The symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum include extreme nausea, vomiting, loss of weight, and electrolyte imbalance. Dietary modifications, rest, and antacids are used to treat mild cases.

Extreme, ongoing nausea and vomiting are symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum. It may result in electrolyte imbalances, loss of weight, and dehydration. Early in pregnancy, women often experience moderate nausea and vomiting known as morning sickness.

Therefore, The nurse would assume that initially, a prescription for normal saline solution would be given when getting ready to administer this therapy. Extreme, ongoing nausea and vomiting are symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum.

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genetics-related health care is basic to the holistic practice of nursing. what should nursing practice in genetics include?

Answers

Nurses can assess risk, analyze the genetic contribution to disease risk, and discuss this same impact of risk on health care management for families and individuals.

What is the significance of genetics and genomics in nursing practice?

The application of genetic and genomic information in healthcare is becoming increasingly important. Genetics focuses on individual genes within a genome, generally trying to address conditions caused by single gene errors, which nurses encounter only infrequently.

Practicing nurses should indeed understand how genetics and genomics relate to health, prevention, screening, as well as treatment. Nurses must be able to collect family history, identify hereditary risks, and refer patients to genetic discussion and testing.

Therefore, nurses also provide genetics education, nursing care to patients and families, and genetic research.

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emilia, a recent college graduate, just started her first full-time job and enrolled in a health insurance plan. prior to this, she was covered by her parents' health insurance. she has type 1 diabetes and needs to keep up on her prescriptions and doctors' visits, and is concerned about keeping her healthcare costs under control. what should emilia do if she wants to find out the limitations of her health insurance coverage?

Answers

She has type 1 diabetes and  is concerned about keeping her healthcare costs under control of her health insurance plan, so she should  talk with someone in the billing department at her doctor's office.

Type 1 diabetes is believed to be caused by associate response reaction (the body attacks itself by mistake). This reaction destroys the cells within the exocrine gland that build internal secretion, known as beta cells. This method will maintain for months or years before any symptoms seem.

Health insurance plans assist you in protective yourself and your close to and pricey ones from any money risks or uncertainties that arise thanks to a medical emergency. a sensible insurance arrange from a reliable insurance supplier will assist you shield your hard-earned savings and assets once medical emergencies are on the increase.

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tremetol, a metabolic poison found in the white snake root plant, prevents the metabolism of lactate. when cows eat this plant, it is concentrated in the milk they produce. humans who consume the milk become ill. symptoms of this disease, which include vomiting, abdominal pain, and tremors, become worse after exercise. why do you think this is the case?

Answers

Symptoms of tremetol, which include vomiting, abdominal pain, and tremors, become worse after exercise are caused by lactate accumulation.

Milk sickness , conjointly referred to as tremetol forcing out or, in animals, as trembles, may be a quite poisoning, characterised by trembling, vomiting, and severe enteric pain, that affects people who ingest milk, alternative farm merchandise, or meat from a cow that has wolfed white sanicle plant, that contains the poison.

Lactate accumulation happens once there is not enough atomic number 8 within the muscles to interrupt down, or metabolise, the blood sugars aldohexose and polyose. Metabolism while not oxygen is termed anaerobic metabolism. There are 2 kinds of lactate: L-lactate and D-lactate.

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the nurse is performing a physical assessment of a 5 year old boy. which documented finding most strongly indicate maltreatment of the child?

Answers

Malnourishment and poor personal hygiene indicate maltreatment of the 5 year old boy while performing a physical assessment.

Poor personal hygiene habits, however, will result in some minor facet effects, like malodorousness and greasy skin. they'll additionally result in additional difficult or perhaps serious problems. as an example, if you do not wash your hands oft, you'll be able to simply transfer germs and bacterium to your mouth or eyes

Malnourishment happens when the body does not get enough nutrients. Causes embrace a poor diet, organic process conditions or another unwellness. Symptoms are fatigue, symptom and weight loss. Untreated deficiency disease will cause physical or mental incapacity. Treatment should address any underlying conditions and replace missing nutrients.

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a client seeks medical attention to learn why an infection has been resistant to antibiotic therapy. which laboratory test will the nurse anticipate being used first to determine if the client has a primary immunodeficiency disease (pidd)?

Answers

The DHR laboratory test has been in use for more than 20 years and has a high diagnostic sensitivity

How is primary immunodeficiency tested?

Blood tests can assess the quantities of blood cells and immune system cells as well as ascertain whether you have normal levels of the infection-fighting proteins known as immunoglobulins. Blood cell counts that fall outside of the normal range can be a sign of an immune system problem.

A blood test for immunoglobulins determines the concentrations of IgM, IgG, and IgA in your body to assist in the diagnosis of a variety of illnesses that may have an impact on your immune system.

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30. a client with systolic dysfunction has an ejection fraction of 38%. the nurse assesses for which physiologic change?

Answers

A client with systolic dysfunction has an ejection fraction of 38% then the nurse should assesses physiologic change that is : Decrease in tissue perfusion.

What happens in systolic dysfunction?

In a person with systolic heart failure, the heart is weak and the left ventricle is unable to contract to eject blood, when the heart beats. This weakness implies that less blood circulates throughout the body.

Some common causes of systolic heart failure are:

If you have high blood pressure then the heart has to work harder to pump more blood through the body.If you have coronary artery disease then the  amount of blood flowing to your heart is blocked or we can say it's less than normal.

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if the marginal revenue for the next unit of output produced is $50, but the marginal cost is $45, the profit-maximizing firm should violation of laws enacted by society is also known asa.secondary deviance.b.crime.c.informal deviance.d.unofficial deviance. How many equivalents of Mg2+ are present in a solution that contains 2.60 moles of Mg2+ ? many vehicle manufacturers recommend that a special electrical connector be installed between the battery and the battery cable when testing for . Carmen has a rope that is 18 meters long. She cuts away a piece that is 8.16 meters long. How long is the remaining piece of rope? Given that 4i is a zero, factor the following polynomial function completely. Use the Conjugate Roots Theorem, if applicable. f(x)=x^4+3x^32x^2+48x288 what theory suggests that some people adopt the goals of society but lack the means to attain them and will therefore seek alternatives, such as crime? Thomas and emily are discussing the affect of ai on future employment. Emily correctly points out that _____. What are 3 ways that a country can restrict trade?. Which scientist first proposed that the electron in the hydrogen atom can have only certain energies?. Solve: (1+i)^14. And show workings flatbed, document, and portable are types of blank that accept documents and convert them into machine-readable form. is y=1/3x+5 proportional or non proportional Select all of the following equation(s) that are quadratic in form. x4 6x2 27 = 0 3x4 = 2x 2(x + 5)4 + 2x2 + 5 = 0 6(2x + 4)2 = (2x + 4) + 2 6x4 = -x2 + 5 8x4 + 2x2 4x = 0 Please help me failure of blood cell production due to absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow: a.thalassemia b.iron deficiency anemia c.aplastic anemia d.hemolytic anemia e.pernicious anemia In the book 1984 by George Orwell If you had to choose a character in the novel that most closely resembles how you see yourself in relation to the world, who would it be. In 100-200 words, justify this choice using examples from your life. which of the following properties of the garden pea were advantageous for Mendel's studies of inheritance?-pea plants can be self-fertilized or cross-fertilized-true-breeding strains were available-pea plants have relatively few chromosomes-many varieties with different traits were available pea plants can be self-fertilized or cross-fertilizedtrue-breeding strains were availablemany varieties with different traits were available Solve each problem by writing and solving an equation. use "x" for the variable and type with no spaces. during the spring car wash, asb washed 14 fewer cars than during the summer car wash. they washed a total of 96 cars during both car washes. how many cars did they wash during the spring car wash? A 0.683 g impure sample of strontium hydroxide is dissolved in 120 ml of 0.1010 M HCl. Titration of the excess with 0.1020 M NaOH required 36.6 ml to reach the equivalence point. Calculate the percent purity of the sample.