The nurse should include cardiac history assessment in the client's care plan.
What is cardiac history assessment?
It is the process of checking cardiovascular performances.
When taking a cardiovascular history it's essential that you identify risk factors for cardiovascular disease as you work through the patient's history.
Thus, knowing that the client has two risk factors that cannot be modified, the nurse should include cardiac history assessment in the client's care plan.
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Which action is most likely to continue an accidental chain?
a:changing the situation
b:changing the unsafe habit
c:changing the unsafe action
d:changing the result
what i think it would be is changing the result
Answer: d.changing the result
Scenario:
You decide to eat the entire package of a particular food. In order to calculate the number of calories that you have eaten, what two pieces of information do you need to multiply?
Answer:
Calories per serving and Servings per container
A nurse is working in the emergency department. which situation would lead the nurse to suspect possible abuse of a client?
The situations that would most likely lead the nurse to suspect possible abu.se of a client where a nurse is working in the emergency department are:
A 7-year-old with a urin.ary tract infection is being examined for the fifth time.a four-month-old with a femur frac.turea child with brain contrecoup damage.What is physical abuse?Abuse refers to a condition where a person who is unable to fend for themselves is mole.sted thus leading to physical or internal inju.ries.
In any of the above scenarios, the nurse should alert relevant authorities.
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Which laboratory value would indicate to the nurse that malnutrition is in an advanced stage?
The laboratory value that would indicate to the nurse that malnutrition is in an advanced stage is the presence of high potassium in the blood.
What is advanced stage of malnutrition?An advanced stage of malnutrition is the stage of malnutrition where by the extreme deficiency of calories and essential proteins leads to failure of sodium-potassium pumps.
The failure of the sodium-potassium pumps will lead to leakage of potassium out from the cell to the exterior causing increased potassium levels of the blood.
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If served with a subpenoa duces tecum what must hte health information manager do
The health information manager must present and deliver all the original copies of health records for examination in court.
What is the meaning of the term "Subpoena duces tecum"?A subpoena duces tecum is a court order requiring the records administrator to personally present and deliver originals or copies of health records, lab results, x-rays, and other documents for an examination in court.
So if a health information manager who serves as an administrator in a health department was served with a subpoena duces tecum, he/she is obliged to present and must deliver all the original copies of the health records for examination in court.
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A doctor confirms that a patient is overweight after performing multiple tests and calculating the patient's body
mass index (BMI).
Which strategy will the doctor most likely recommend to help the patient reduce his weight in a healthy way?
Follow a workout plan if there is extra time in the day.
Eat one serving of fruit each week.
Follow a diet that increases food consumption.
O Join a weight-loss support group.
Which are common issues for someone who has sickle cell anemia? Select two options.
V reduced oxygen levels
O blurred vision
O heart disease
blocked blood vessels
O cancer
Answer:
Blurred vision and heart disease blocked blood vessel
Explanation:
Sickle cells can block tiny blood vessels that supply the eyes. Over time, this can lead to blurred vision (and sometimes blindness).
One reason it’s critical for caregivers to improve their teams’ effectiveness is:
Effective teams reduce the risk of errors by providing a healthy environment for individual caregivers.
What is teams’ effectiveness?Team effectiveness is the capacity a team has to accomplish the goals or objectives given by an authorized personnel or the organization.
It is important to improve teams' effectiveness because it provides healthy environment for everyone in the team.
Thus, One reason it’s critical for caregivers to improve their teams’ effectiveness is: effective teams reduce the risk of errors by providing a healthy environment for individual caregivers.
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which nursing practice is associated with the self-regulation skill?
The nursing practice that is associated with the ability to self-regulate is not to get emotionally involved with a patient, or with the patient's death.
What is self-regulation skill?Thus, self-regulation is defined as the ability to monitor and modulate
emotioncognition and behaviorto achieve a goal and/or adapt to cognitive and social demands for specific situations.
With this information, we can conclude that the nursing practice that is associated with the ability to self-regulate is not to get emotionally involved with a patient, or with the patient's death.
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Once submitted, who can cancel an enrollment application before the effective date?.
The client as well as the department can cancel an enrollment application before the effective date.
What is Initial Enrollment Period?Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) is the time period in which a person is qualified for medicare which is the first of the month after the month in which the person submit his or her enrollment form.
Their is the penalty for a person who enrolled late as such person will be charged an amount which will be added to the person drug medicare coverage.
Such a person shall continue to pay the penalty charges as long as the person still makes use of the drug medicare coverage.
Their is also a special enrollment time period for people who misplaced or lose their insurance coverage as it allowed them to modify their drug medicare coverage.
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The bar chart identifies the percentage of adults who are familiar with a range of eating disorders.
A graph titled Percent of Disorders That Adults Are Familiar With shows eating disorders on the horizontal axis and numbers on the vertical axis. 43% are familiar with anorexia nervosa, 40% with bulimia, 32% with binge eating disorder, 43% with all three disorders, and 12% with none of the disorders.
What percentage of adults are familiar with all three eating disorders?
10 percent
32 percent
41 percent
43 percent
43 percent of adults are familiar with all three eating disorders. thus option D is correct.
What do you mean by bulimia nervosa?Bulimia Nervosa Disorder is a condition that causes people to vomit their food. People with anorexia nervosa utilize medicines to lose weight, have poor eating habits, and place an excessive emphasis on food.
Binge eating disorder, bulimia nervosa, and anorexia nervosa are the three eating disorders that receive the greatest attention in the United States.
A person has a binge eating disorder if they consume a lot of food in a short period of time. They eat covertly so no one can see them and gain weight forever, yet they feel regret and guilt afterward.
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the spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to contact with infected blood.
What are infectious diseases?Infectious diseases are diseases which can be transmitted from one person to another.
Some examples of infectious diseases are HIV and hepatitis
HIV and Hepatitis are viral diseases and the causa viruses are usually present in the blood of infected individuals.
Therefore, the spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to contact with infected blood.
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How do you incorporate physical fitness into your daily life? What are some of the benefits – mental or physical – that you have noticed from this
There can be various simple ways to incorporate fitness, these can be walking, workout, taking stairs instead of elevators, etc. Physical activity can improve your brain health, help you manage your weight, lower your risk of disease, strengthen your bones and muscles, and improve your ability to do everyday tasks.
What is physical fitness?Physical fitness entails the performance of the heart and lungs, as well as the body's muscles.
There can be various simple ways to incorporate fitness, these can be walking, workout, taking stairs instead of elevators, etc.
Physical activity can improve your brain health, help you manage your weight, lower your risk of disease, strengthen your bones and muscles, and improve your ability to do everyday tasks.
Thus, just by making small changes in the everyday routine, one can incorporate physical fitness into your daily life.
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a client is experiencing a decreasing glomerular filtration. what laboratory values should the nurse expect to follow the change? select all that apply.
Glomerular filtration has to do with the process of making urine.
What is glomerular filtration?The term glomerular filtration has to do with the process by which the kidneys produce urine. It is the first step in the process of making urine.
If a client is experiencing decreasing glomerular filtration, the laboratory values should the nurse expect to follow the change are;
Increase in serum creatinine
Increase in blood urea nitrogen
Decrease in creatinine clearance
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The purpose of osha’s standard regarding hazcom – the right to understand is to:.
This section's goal is to make sure that all chemicals manufactured or imported have their hazards categorized and that employers and employees are informed of the hazards.
What is the purpose of occupational safety and health?This occupational safety and health standard is intended to address the issue of categorizing the potential hazards of chemicals, communicating information regarding hazards to employees, and recommending appropriate protective measures, as well as to preempt any legislative or regulatory actions taken by a state, or a political subdivision of a state, that would deal with this issue.
This section's standards are meant to be compatible with those set forth in the UN's Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals.
Comprehensive hazard communication programs that include safety data sheets, personnel training, container labeling, and other kinds of warning are to be used to disseminate information.
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Answer: Align with international acceptance of GHS, Increase employee safety, and to Reduce variability in information/format of SDS
Explanation:
detection of what substance in urine drug testing is pathognomonic of heroin exposure?
Detection of Codeine, 6-Acetyl Morphine, Oxycodine, Hydrocodone and Hydromorphinan in urine drug testing is pathognomonic of heroin exposure.
How does drug testing work?The toxicological test can be performed in several ways, from samples of
bloodurine or keratin (hair, hair or nails).Each of these analyzes has a detection window and is used at different times. In the urine test it is possible to detect drugs consumed, on average, in the last 5 days.
With this information, we can conclude that detection of Codeine, 6-Acetyl Morphine, Oxycodine, Hydrocodone and Hydromorphinan in urine drug testing is pathognomonic of heroin exposure.
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During a human dissection in her anatomy and physiology course, Elizabeth is asked to find an example of a smooth muscle. Where would she MOST likely locate this type of muscle?
The smooth muscles are likely to be found in the liver, pancreas, and intestines.
What is a smooth muscle?A smooth muscle is a muscle that helps the body to carry out its fundamental functions. The smooth muscles are located in a lot of places in the body. hey are different from the skeletal muscles.
The smooth muscles are likely to be found in the liver, pancreas, and intestines.
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be included in the opening paragraph of a thank-you letter?
What information should
a
Mention skills that were omitted during the interview
b
points perceived as weaknesses
Reinforce any
C
Mention looking forward to a response
d
Reinforce interest and fit for the position
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
C
D
The University of Washington leads initiatives to research and prevent NCDs in many countries, but spends a high number of resources in the U.S., Kenya, and South Africa. Share your ideas as to why each of these countries may be an area of focus.
Each of these countries may be an area of focus for the high number of obese and sedentary people in the USA, as well as in African countries for monitoring malnutrition.
What does the acronym NCDs mean?Noncommunicable Chronic Diseases (NCDs) are the leading causes of mortality globally. The ones that most affect the population are diseases of the
circulatory systemmalignant neoplasmsdiabetes mellitus and chronic respiratory diseases.With this information, we can conclude that each of these countries may be an area of focus for the high number of obese and sedentary people in the USA, as well as in African countries for monitoring malnutrition.
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What is the difference between air fryer and convection oven.
Answer:
air fryer do not use oil and it is good for your health whereas A convection oven is an oven that has fans to circulate air around food to create an evenly-heated environment. The increased air circulation causes a fan-assisted oven to cook food faster than a conventional non-fan oven, which relies only on natural convection to circulate the hot air.
degradation of purines in primates leads to the formation of what major excreted product?
The final product of purine degradation is uric acid which is excreted.
What is the product of the degradation?Purine nucleotide degradation is defined as a regulated series of reactions whereby human purine ribonucleotides and deoxyribonucleotides are degraded to form uric acid in humans.
Now this purine degradation could be caused by Lesch–Nyhan syndrome (LNS) but we can conclude that the final product of purine degradation is uric acid which is excreted.
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What is included in all vascular injection procedures?
All the included vascular injection procedures are as explained in the write up below.
What is vascular injection procedures?
Vascular injection procedures is a procedure designed to improve the appearance of your varicose veins. The veins are injected with a solution called a sclerosant which damages the internal lining of the vein and causes blood clotting within the vein.
The procedures are;
1. Necessary local anesthesia.
2. Introduction of needles or catheters.
3. Injection of contrast media with or without automatic power injection,.
4. Necessary pre/and post injection care specifically related to the injection procedure.
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A urethral or ureteral catheter that is left in place is a(n) ________ catheter.
A urethral or ureteral catheter that is left in place is an indwelling catheter.
What is a catheter?Catheter is a sterile instrument that is used empty the urine straight from the bladder. The process of removal of urine from the bladder using catheter is called catheterisation.
The type of catheter that is left within the body is called the indwelling catheter.
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What is the left side of the brain associated with?
According to the research, the left side of the brain associated with linguistic aspects and analytical processing of mathematics.
What is the left hemisphere of the brain?It is the brain structure in charge of the motor aspects of the body, it is in charge of coordinating speech, learning that includes reading and mathematics.
The left hemisphere is anatomically structured in lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital and insula) having half of each of them.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the left side of the brain associated with linguistic aspects and analytical processing of mathematics.
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Does the majority of digestion happen in the small intestine
Yes, the majority of digestion happens in the small intestine.
What is Digestion?
This is a process which involves the breakdown of food substances into simpler and absorbable forms.
The small intestine is the longest part of the digestive system which receives food from the stomach for other enzymes to act on them which is why majority of digestion happens there.
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what is the mechanism of action of grapiprant?
Answer:
Grapiprant has been accepted very greatly in veterinary as its mechanism of action is a targeted approach to pain management by not having any interaction with the production of prostanoids and thus, by not interacting with other prostaglandin receptor pathways
Grapiprant, also known as AT- 001 and CJ- 023, is a medicine from the piprant class.
These motes were deduced from acyl sulfonamide and are characterized to be a new series of para N-acyl amino methyl benzoic acid known to be prostaglandin receptor antagonists. This type of motes is presently in development for veterinary cases. This class of medicines as defined in 2013 by the World Health Organization. Grapiprant has been approved in March 2016 by the FDA's Center for Veterinary Medicine as anon-cyclooxygenase inhibiting NSAID for veterinary use.
mechanism of action of grapiprant-
Grapiprant is an EP4 prostaglandin receptor antagonist and therefore the exertion of this medicine is allowed to be fully related to the picky leaguer of this receptor.1 It binds to mortal and other mammals' EP4 prostaglandin receptor with high affinity without snooping with other prostaglandin pathways which are important for a variety of physiological functions. The list of laropiprant blocks the PGE2 list and hence its natural effect related to the signaling pain and inflammation waterfall.Grapiprant has been accepted veritably greatly in veterinary as its medium of action is a targeted approach to pain operation by not having any commerce with the product of prostanoids and therefore, by not interacting with other prostaglandin receptor pathways.learn more about prostaglandin receptor here:
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What is the most common way to contract a disease-causing germ
You can best prevent foodborne illness by:
Answer:
below
Explanation:
Always washing your hands so their is no cross contamination, make sure the chicken/meat is cooked fully, when working with any raw meat keep away from anything else but the meat so it doesn't get those germs on anything else, if you smell a food item and it smells bad, make sure to throw it out instead of eating it.
Best of Luck!
how can premenstrual syndrome affect women
See below (Long explanation)
Premenstrual syndrome may not be taken seriously by many women, but it continues to deteriorate their health. Right from food cravings, muscle pain to mood swings, a woman has to bear mentally and physical changes due to hormonal fluctuations. Though the primary causes are unclear, research has proved that premenstrual syndrome affects the lifestyle. It may be a monthly problem; however, it can cause unwanted complications during pregnancy, childbirth, and menopause in the long run. Read below to find out the various premenstrual syndrome treatment methods in controlling the medical condition.
What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A few weeks before to a woman's period, they may have premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms start to lessen as soon as they start bleeding. Due to the distinct hormonal swings, PMS affects each woman differently. The symptoms of premenstrual syndrome disappear after they become pregnant or reach menopause.
How does it occur?
Premenstrual syndrome is mostly a result of changes in the hormonal cycle. A woman's rapid shift in behavior is caused by chemical changes that take place in the brain. Some people think that stress and mental issues like depression may be to blame. However, the fact is that these signs and symptoms of premenstrual syndrome actually exacerbate the disorder.
What are the symptoms?
Physical and emotional problems both accompany premenstrual syndrome. Several of the signs include:
TirednessAcneSwollen or tender breastsHeadache or backacheAnxiety or depressionDifficulty sleepingUpset stomach, constipation, bloating, or diarrheaTension, irritability, or weeping fits Mood swingsLack of concentration or weak memoryJoint or muscle pain Changes in appetite or food desireswhen it is documented that the patient is both using tobacco and has a dependence on tobacco, how is this reported in icd-10-cm?
The way it is documented if a person using tobacco and dependent on it is the use of ICD-10 F17 codes.
What is tobacco dependency?This can be described as a form of addiction that is characterized with the need of tobacco and its products.
The way that such a dependency is reported on this form is through the use of the code ICD-10 F17 .
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