Linda is concerned about a family history of high blood pressure. Which item listed on the food label is she likely to check? a. Vitamin C b. Iron
c. Sodium d. Zinc

Answers

Answer 1

Sodium is the listed item on the food label which she is likely to check for high blood pressure.

What do food labels contain?

It is simpler to compare the nutritional value of related goods because the label breaks out the number of calories, carbohydrates, fat, fibre, protein, and vitamins in each serving of the food. Make cautious to compare various brands of the exact same meals because the nutritional information might vary greatly.

What use does a food label serve?

Consumers may make educated purchase decisions by using the information on food labels, which is crucial. Food labels have developed over time, moving from simple product identification to labels that could be complicated. Both precise nutrient claims and information on the content of certain nutrients can be found on the labels.

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Related Questions

thomas is a marathon runner. he eats a well-balanced diet and drinks plenty of fluids, but he should take supplements to account for all the calories he loses while running. please select the best answer from the choices provided. T/F

Answers

As a result, nutritional supplements are advised in cases of deficiency as well as during certain life periods, such as infancy or pregnancy.

How would you define nutrition?

(noo-TRIH-shun) the body's consumption and utilisation of food or other nutrients. It takes three steps to properly eat. Food or beverage is first consumed. Second, the beverage or food is converted into nutrients by the body.

Is it nourishing or nourishing?

Although the terms nutritious and nutritive have the same meaning, they have different applications. Both words actually mean "nourishing" or "providing healthy nourishment," but as you'll see in the examples above, nutritional is generally used in a more particular or scientific way while nutritious is more commonly used in a more general sense.

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Answer:

true

Explanation:

just took it

Find, to the nearest tenth of an hour, how long it takes for half of the drug dose to be left in the body.

Answers

Half of the medication dose is retained in the body for 3.1 hours, or the closest tenth of an hour.

What is referred to as medicine?

What Do Drugs Do? Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid in the disease diagnosis. Modern medicine has made it possible for doctors to both save and cure many ailments. Nowadays, there are numerous sources for drugs.

Contrast between medication and medicine.

Medicine can also be referred to as medication. Both have the same meaning. The sole medicine for COVID-19 that the government has approved is an antiviral. A tablet is a compact, spherical piece of medication.

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True or False: the confidential ipledge program pregnancy registry collects information on pregnancies that happen during isotretinoin treatment or within 1 month after the last dosE

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

because the confidential ipledge program pregnancy registry collects information on pregnancies that happen during isotretinoin treatment or within 1 month after the last dose

Sleepwalking occurs in stage _____ sleep, whereas nightmares occur in stage _____ sleep. a. N1; N2 c. N2; N1 b. R; N3 d. N3; R

Answers

Stage N3 sleep (R&K stages 3/4) is  REM sleeping occur is when nightmares happen.

The correct statement is D.

How often does sleepwalking happen?

Most frequently, deep, non-REM sleep, also known as N3 sleep, or early in the night is when sleepwalking (somnambulism) takes place. Compared to older persons, sleepwalking is far more common in young adults and children. Age-related decline in N3 sleep is the reason of this. Sleepwalking frequently occurs in families.

What does place when someone sleepwalks?

Simple or sophisticated acts that a person performs while largely still asleep can be among the sleepwalking symptoms. An individual may well have unfocused, glassy eyes and a blank expression while experiencing an episode. They typically respond very little and speak incoherently.

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Under what conditions is it appropriate to recontact the individual who provided the biological specimen?

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Conditions is appropriate to recontract the individual provided the biological specimen Original signed consent documents include provisions for reconstructing subjects.

One of the fundamental moral and legal prerequisites for research involving human participants is informed permission. Numerous laws and standards, including the Nuremberg Code, Helsinki Declaration, Belmont Report, Common Rule, and others mandate that study participants (or the subjects' legal representative) make a voluntarily, informed decision to participate in research. 1-5 The moral precept of respect for autonomy, which asserts the biological specimen that the sensible people have the freedom to make choices and conduct actions that represent their beliefs and preferences, is the foundation of informed consent. 6 While the majority of regulations and standards also call for adequately recorded informed permission, informed consent entails much more than simply signing a piece of paper: The researcher and the research subject communicate constantly during the process.

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the belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits which of the following etiological theories?

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The belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits in supernatural, somatogenic, and psychogenic etiological theories, i.e. option D.  All of the above.

Many psychologists, like Boyer, had advanced the theory claiming supernatural beliefs originated only via society and therefore that religious concepts are prevalent as they defy the brain's perception of reality, which in turn renders them simpler to recall.

Somatogenic theories pinpoint physiological dysfunctions brought on by disease, genetics, brain injury, or other mental imbalances. Psychogenic theories emphasise unpleasant or traumatic events, unhelpful learnt connections and cognitive distortions, or erroneous perceptions.

The question is incomoplete, find the complete question here

The belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits which of the following etiological theories?

A. supernatural

B. somatogenic

C. psychogenic

D. All of the above

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Dr. Kilbey is studying the impact of exosystems on human development. Which of these would she be most interested in examining? a. family and peer groups b.medical centers and religious institutions c. the development of the skeletal structure in children d. cultural values and economic processes

Answers

Dr. Kilbey is researching the impact of exosystems on human development, and the group she is most interested in studying is A. family and peer groups.

What is the definition of research?

This refers to the scientific method's systematic investigation of a phenomenon in order to learn more about it.

As a result, we can see that Dr. Kilbey is researching the impact of exosystems on human development, and the group she is most interested in studying is A. family and peer groups.

This is because it would demonstrate how ecosystems aid in the development of family members and peers.

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in high-intensity exercise, such as sprinting, the predominant fuel for exercise is . group of answer choices O fat O protein O carbohydrates O vitamins

Answers

The correct option is C; carbohydrates , Carbohydrates can be found in a variety of meals, including bread, beans, milk, popcorn, potatoes, cookies, spaghetti, soft drinks, maize, and cherry pie.

They also come in a range of shapes and sizes. Sugars, fibers, and starches are the most common and abundant types. When you ingest carbohydrates, your body converts them into simple sugars that are taken into your bloodstream. When your blood sugar level rises, your pancreas releases a hormone called insulin. Insulin is required to transport sugar from the blood into cells, where it can be used as a source of energy.

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Objective information that can be detected by a person other that the affected person is which of the following? Sign Patients from different ______ may not be familiar with the medical examination and what to expect.

Answers

Objective information that can be detected by a person other than the affected person is signs.

A sign is a physical indication of a disease or condition that can be observed by others, such as a rash, a fever, or a limp. This information can be objectively observed, measured and recorded by a healthcare professional, whereas symptoms are feelings, sensations or experiences that are reported by the affected person.

Patients from different cultures may not be familiar with the medical examination and what to expect. This refers to how patients from different cultural backgrounds may have different beliefs, practices and customs that can affect their experience during the medical examination. This can also affect how they understand and interpret the medical information, and how they communicate their symptoms to the healthcare professional.

Phytochemicals may be "guardians of our health," but the safety of consuming concentrated extracts is unknown. "The protective benefits of a phytochemical-rich diet are best obtained from frequent consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grain products"—by whole plant foods. The food industry has different ideas, though. Soon, there may be phytochemical-fortified bacon, martinis, and ice cream, says an article in the journal Food Technology. If they can find just the right mix of plant compounds, it "is not inconceivable that foods that once contributed to illness and disease may be reconstructed…to offer significant health benefits."

Answers

False: Phytochemicals may protect human health, with concentrated extracts offering benefits over entire foods in terms of protection.

Phytochemicals are particular chemical compounds that are derived from plants and may have therapeutic benefits for various illnesses and ailments. In conclusion, it is False to say that phytochemicals may be our body's watchdogs because their concentrated extracts offer greater health benefits than whole foods. entire question. The safety of ingesting concentrated extracts that offer protective effects superior to whole foods may make phytochemicals the guardians of human health. False or True. False: Phytochemicals may protect human health, with concentrated extracts offering benefits over entire foods in terms of protection. Specific nutrients known as phytochemicals are present in meals with a plant origin and are not classified as vitamins or minerals, making them a novel type of nutrient.

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which of the following is not a macronutrient? question 1 options: vitamins carbohydrates fats proteins

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Vitamins are not macronutrients.

Macronutrients are the nutrients we need in larger amounts that give us with energy in other words, fat, protein and carbohydrate. Micronutrients are substantially vitamins and minerals, and are inversely important but consumed in veritably small quantities. We generally get our micronutrients along with macronutrients.

Any of several organic substances that are necessary in small amounts for normal health and growth in advanced forms of beast life called vitamins.

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When contacting emergency medical services, you need to be prepared to answer which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Reason for the call
-Specific location
-Condition of the victim(s)
-First aid provided
-Telephone number
-Number of victims
-Caller's name

Answers

When contacting emergency medical services, you need to be prepared to answer the following questions:

reason for the call, Specific location, Condition of the victim(s),Telephone number, number of victims, Caller's name.

It is important to provide emergency services with clear and accurate information so that they can respond quickly and effectively. Providing the reason for the call, such as chest pain or difficulty breathing, will help emergency services determine the type of resources they need to send. Giving the specific location, including the address and any landmarks, will help emergency services locate you quickly.

Providing information about the condition of the victim(s), including any symptoms or injuries, will help emergency services determine the severity of the situation and how to proceed. It is also important to provide your telephone number and the number of victims involved in the emergency, as well as your name, so that emergency services can confirm the call.

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blank is a major somatic symptom disorder that involves an actual physical disturbance, such as the inability to use a sensory organ or the complete or partial inability to move an arm or leg. multiple choice conversion disorder dissociative identity disorder illness anxiety disorder dysphoric disorder

Answers

Conversion disorder  is a major somatic symptom disorder that involves an actual physical disturbance, such as the inability to use a sensory organ or the complete or partial inability to move an arm or leg.

What is somatic symptom disorder?

Somatic symptom disorder is characterised by an excessive focus on physical symptoms, such as pain or fatigue, which results in significant emotional distress and functional difficulties. Your response to the symptoms is abnormal, regardless of whether you have another medical condition that has been diagnosed and is present with these symptoms.

Despite reporting symptoms, a person with somatic symptom disorder may not actually be experiencing them or they may simply be normal bodily aches and pains. The person's anxiety is out of proportion to the symptom, even when there is a medical cause.

People who suffer from somatic symptom disorder frequently don't realise they have a serious mental health problem at the root of their symptoms and mistakenly think they are physically ill. They frequently visit numerous healthcare professionals, undergo a number of unnecessary procedures and tests, and visit multiple hospitals due to their distress

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which of the following positive effects result from proper application of coaching counseling and mentoring

Answers

Proper application of coaching, counseling and mentoring can have several positive effects, including Improved performance and productivity, Increased job satisfaction, Improved communication and interpersonal skills, Improved decision-making, and Career development.

Improved performance and productivity: Coaching, counseling and mentoring can help individuals identify and overcome obstacles that are preventing them from achieving their goals, leading to improved performance and productivity.

Increased job satisfaction: Through coaching, counseling, and mentoring, individuals can gain a better understanding of their strengths and weaknesses and learn how to apply them in their work, leading to increased job satisfaction.

Improved communication and interpersonal skills: Coaching, counseling and mentoring can help individuals develop better communication and interpersonal skills, which are essential for success in any job.

Improved decision-making: Coaching, counseling, and mentoring can help individuals develop the critical thinking skills needed to make effective decisions.

Career development: Mentoring can help individuals develop the skills and knowledge needed to advance in their careers. It can also help individuals become more self-aware, allowing them to better understand their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors and make positive changes.

Increased self-awareness: coaching, counseling, and mentoring can help.

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The complete question is-

which of the following positive effects result from proper application of coaching counseling and mentoring?

a. Improved performance and productivity b. Increased job satisfaction c. Improved communication and interpersonal skills d. Improved decision-making e. Career development.

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Manufacturers of dietary supplements must inform the FTC about negative health reports that may have resulted from the use of their products.
b. The FDA can recall a dietary supplements when there is evidence that it is harmful.
c. Medicinal herbs must undergo testing for safety and effectiveness by the FDA before they can be marketed.
d. The EPA regulates the labeling of dietary supplements.

Answers

"The FDA can recall a dietary supplements when there is evidence that it is harmful" is the correct statement.

Supplement Facts labels are attached to products sold as dietary supplements, and they contain the active components, the amount each serving (dose), and additional substances such as fillers, binders, and flavourings. The serving size is suggested by the manufacturer, but ones health care practitioner may determine that a different amount is much more suited for oneself.

In the United States, many adults and children use one or so more vitamins or even other nutritional supplements. Minerals, herbs or even other botanicals, amino acids, enzymes, and a variety of other compounds can be included in dietary supplements in addition to vitamins. Dietary supplements are available in a number of formats, including pills, capsules, gummies, powders, beverages, and energy bars. Vitamins D and B12 are popular supplements, as are minerals like calcium and iron, herbs like echinacea and garlic, and products such glucosamine, probiotics, or fish oils.

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huntington's disease is a hereditary degenerative neurological disorder that usually strikes in middle age. it is caused by a dominant allele on chromosome

Answers

A person only requires one copy of the faulty gene to have Huntington's disease, which is an autosomal dominant illness.

A genetic disorder called Huntington's disease causes the gradual death of brain nerve cells. Huntington's illness, which frequently results in mobility, cognitive, and psychological problems, has a substantial impact on a person's functional capacities. It results from a genetic gene defect. Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that only one defective gene needs to exist in an individual for it to manifest. Dominant alleles cause Huntington's disease, a deadly and progressive form of dementia. The disease-causing element in Huntington’s disease is the dominant allele. The damage to the brain cells is caused by the illness itself. Mothers and fathers may have the illness or carry it themselves. As in the case of the sickness when both parents have a heterozygous condition.

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The school dietitian is required to include all of the MyPlate food groups in each day’s student lunches. Please select the only menu below that meets that requirement.
1. Stir-fry with rice and veggies; milk
2. chicken fingers, rice, applesauce, carrot sticks, milk
3. grilled-cheese sandwich, fruit cup, milk
4. fish fillet, ketchup, apple slices, french fries, fruit juice

Answers

The right response, according to the statement, is a grilled cheese sandwich, a fruit cup, and milk.

What is the job of a dietitian?

Customers receive advice on wholesome eating practices and nutritional concerns from dietitians and nutritionists. Experts in using food and nutrition to promote health and treat disease include dietitians and nutritionists. They organize and carry out food industry fastfood activities to promote healthy living.

A doctor or a dietitian?

It's a popular misperception that strategists and dietician are the same person. In actuality, dietary doctors, often known as dietitians, are medical professionals who specialize in the field of nutritional science. They also try to prevent diseases by modifying and adjusting diets.

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which of the following nursing diagnoses is the most appropriate for an immobilized client on complete bed rest who has a blood calcium level of 9.9 mg/dl and a urinary ph of 9.9?

Answers

A urine pH test measures the level of acid in urine. Alternative Names: pH - urine.

who has a blood calcium level of 9.9 mg/dl and a urinary ph of 9.9?

For teenagers and young adults, it is normal to have calcium levels up into the mid to high 10's (in mg/dl). For adults over about age 40, the calcium level should generally be in the 9.3 to 9.9 mg/dl range.

High calcium levels almost always indicate parathyroid disease.

At UCLA, the normal range for blood calcium level is 8.6 to 10.3 mg/dL. In order to maintain a normal calcium level, the body uses hormones to regulate blood calcium levels.

Hypercalcemia is usually a result of overactive parathyroid glands. These four tiny glands are situated in the neck, near the thyroid gland. Other causes of hypercalcemia include cancer, certain other medical disorders, some medications, and taking too much of calcium and vitamin D supplements.

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True or False. Men feel the impact of alcohol faster than women do.

Please answer it correctly and asap please

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

According to the national institute on alcohol abuse and alcoholism, women are more likely to feel the impact of alcohol faster than a man would.

Dr. Sita is unable to determine a clear diagnosis for her patient's severe headaches. She creates a list of probable
causes such as stress, diet, and concussion. Dr. Sita's approach is known as
O problem specific solution.
O differential diagnosis.
O problem-solving process.
O evidence-based medicine.

Answers

Answer:

B. differential diagnosis.

Explanation:

What's differential diagnosis?

the process of differentiating between two or more conditions which share similar signs or symptoms.

if an author wanted to really be able to claim that watching TV CAUSES problems for children, how could they design their study to figure this out?

Answers

The author could design a study with a control group and an experimental group.

What are the side effects of watching TV in children?

1. Decreased physical activity: Too much time spent in front of a television can lead to decreased physical activity, which can contribute to health problems like obesity.

2. Attention problems: Watching too much television has been linked to attention problems in children.

3. Negative impact on learning: Excessive TV viewing can have a negative impact on a child’s ability to learn and concentrate.

4. Poor eating habits: Studies have shown that children who watch a lot of television are more likely to eat unhealthy snacks and have poor eating habits.

The control group would not watch TV, while the experimental group would watch TV for a certain amount of time each day. Both groups would then be monitored and tested for physical, social, and emotional wellbeing over a period of time. This would allow the author to determine whether watching TV has a negative effect on children's health, and if so, to what degree.

Hence, control group and an experimental group is used by the author to design the study.

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Researchers report a reduction in mortality rates by 7-19% by eliminating even one serving of _____________ from your diet every day.

Answers

Answer:

Red meat

Explanation:

i believe

Answer:

Researchers report a reduction in mortality rates by 7-19% by eliminating even one serving of red meats from your diet every day.

All of the following are possible medical complications for an individual diagnosed with metabolic syndrome, EXCEPT:Brain tumor

Answers

A person with metabolic syndrome may experience any of the following medical issues, with the exception of a brain tumor.

The metabolic syndrome increases your risk of developing heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes. Blood sugar and blood pressure problems, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol and triglyceride levels are among these conditions. With the exception of a brain tumor, a person with metabolic syndrome may encounter any of the following medical conditions. A brain tumor is a lump or development of abnormal cells in your brain. Brain tumors come in many different forms.

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social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status.

Answers

True, social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status.

The health of individuals and communities is impacted by a variety of variables. The circumstances and environment a person lives in determine whether they are healthy or not. To a large extent, factors like where we live, the quality of our environment, our genetics, our income and education level, and our relationships with friends and family all have significant effects on health, while factors like access to and use of health care services—which are more frequently thought of—often have less of an effect.

The range of personal, social, economic and environmental factors that influence health status are known as determinants of health.

Policy-making

Health outcomes for individuals and populations are impacted by local, state, and federal policies. By lowering the number of persons who use tobacco products, increasing tobacco sales taxes, for instance, can enhance population health. Unfavorable conditions can be brought on by poor policies and programs, bad governance, and unjust economic arrangements.

Social Elements

The conditions of the environment in which people are born, live, learn, play, work, and age are reflected in the social and physical determinants of health. They have an effect on a variety of health, functional, and quality-of-life outcomes and are also referred to as social determinants of health. They stand for societal and physical settings, political and economic systems, and access to healthcare services. People's health, wellbeing, and quality of life are significantly impacted by social determinants of health (SDOH).

Medical Services

Health can be impacted by both the availability of healthcare services and their standard of care. Lack of availability, excessive expense, lack of insurance coverage, and poor linguistic access are all obstacles to receiving healthcare. The inability to obtain preventive services, delays in receiving the proper care, and avoidable hospitalizations are all caused by these hurdles to accessing health services.

Individual Behavior

Individual behaviors, such as nutrition, exercise, and the use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs, also have an impact on health outcomes.

Genetics and Biology

Certain biological and genetic factors have a greater impact on some populations than others. Age, sex, inherited diseases, and genetic make-up are a few biological and genetic determinants of health.

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A person with a specific phobia experiences extreme distress in response to a particular stimulus or situation. How does a person who has a specific phobia respond to the stimuli differently than someone with agoraphobia?

Answers

People who have specific phobias will typically go out of their way to avoid the phobic stimulus; for example, someone who has agoraphobia may follow a specific path each day to stay away from the thing they are afraid of.

Individuals who experience severe dread or anxiety when exposed to particular things or circumstances are given the DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th ed.) diagnostic of specific phobia. Specific phobias, a subtype of anxiety disorder, can develop in response to a variety of triggers, including animals and medical procedures.

A deep, ongoing fear of a thing or circumstance that causes anxiety symptoms is what is known as a specific phobia. The anticipation of the stimulus's existence can also cause symptoms to manifest.

The implications on lifestyle, relationships, and employment may change depending on the type of phobia a person has. When compared to someone who has a complex phobia like agoraphobia, someone who is scared of snakes is less likely to encounter their phobic stimulus on a daily basis. As a result, their phobia won't have as big of an influence on their life.

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T/F a nutrition claim that appears in a newspaper is usually a confirmed, and therefore reliable, finding.

Answers

It is untrue that a dietary claim made in a newspaper is typically supported by reliable research.

If a nutrition claim has any of the following characteristics, it is likely false: it is being made by an advertiser who is being paid to make claims. Every meal in your family has always included rice, as it has done for generations. Three types of claims that are outlined by law and/or FDA regulations are permitted to be used on food and dietary supplement labels: health claims, nutrition content claims, and structure/function claims.

However, there are a few quick and simple ways to spot a trustworthy source:

1. The author is a Professional Dietitian (PD) or Registered Dietitian (RD) (PDt).

2. Peer review has been done on the article.

3. The text includes a list of information sources.

4. No products are being promoted in the article.

5. The claims made in the article don't seem "too good to be true."

6. There are no grammatical errors in the text.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for cisplatin to treat testicular cancer. The nurse should instruct the client to report
which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)

Answers

The client should be instructed by the nurse to report any adverse effects like Tinnitus, Paresthesia, Sore throat, and other symptoms.

What is the most typical method of treating testicular cancer?

Surgery to remove the testis is frequently the first course of treatment for testicular cancer. If the disease has already progressed outside the testis when it is discovered, chemotherapy is very rarely administered first. Following surgery, chemotherapy or radiation treatment could be suggested.

Is the spread of testicular cancer quick?

Seminomas and nonseminomas are the two main subtypes of testicular cancer. Seminomas, which make up around 60% of all testicular malignancies, develop and spread more slowly than nonseminomas, which are more frequent. The rate at which a malignancy spreads varies from patient to patient.

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What causes release of the Hypothalamus?

Answers

The Hormones causes the release of the hypothalamus

you see that the food handler you assigned to prepare the salad has a small cut on her hand. you should:

Answers

Firstly, small cut should be covered with impermeable bandage and a single use glove before returning to work.

Still, simply putting on gloves or putting on a girth isn't enough to cover your guests, If there's a small cut or an open crack on hand. rather, do both. After you bind the crack, put a glove on top of it. This is called a double hedge, and it'll help impurity. Precaution must be there in such cases. Cut can carry harmful bacteria so proper covering of cut is needed.

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for which of the following reasons should a client attach a spacer to a metered-dose inhaler

Answers

For the purpose of increasing medication delivery to the lungs. Drug absorption into the lungs is increased by a spacer.

What are the lungs used for?

Respiration, a process of gas exchange, is the major purpose of the lungs (or breathing). In the process of respiration, co2, a waste product of metabolism, exits the blood and oxygen from the incoming air enters. Reduced lung function refers to the lungs' diminished capacity to exchange gases.

The four main functions of the lungs are what?

brings the air's temperature up to your body's temperature and increases its humidity to the right level. makes oxygen available to the cells in your body. Body waste gases, such as carbon dioxide, are expelled when you breathe out. keeps irritants and harmful chemicals out of your airways.

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The complete question is: For which of the following reasons should a client attach a spacer to a metered-dose inhaler?

A: To increase the amount of drug delivered to the lungs.

Rationale: A spacer increases the amount of drug that reaches the lungs.

Other Questions
(Systems of Linear Equations MC)Which point is a solution to the system of linear equations?y = -x + 13x - y = 3O (1,0)0 (0,1) What are the 4 quadrants on a coordinate plane?. Can anyone help me? Please add a explaination Match the correct term to the examples to apply your understanding of the three different types of epidemics. Point-source epidemic The potato salad at the company picnic was left out too long and later that night, 36 people experienced vomiting and diarrhea. Common-source epidemic The cantaloupes from a farm in Colorado sickened people with listeriosis over the course of several months. Propagated epidemic HIV has spread across the U.S. since the first diagnosis in the 1980s. in the author's discussion of how some coaches use violence in their efforts to control, motivate, or teach players, it is noted that How many tiles of length and breadth 12cm and5cm will be needed to cover a rectangular region whose length and breadth are 70 cm and 36cm briefly explain the views of malcolm x and how they differed from that of martin luther king jr. according to functionalist theorists, which of the following is one of the essential tasks that social institutions perform? group of answer choices minimizing cultural assimilation preserving social order establishing high culture ensuring social reflexivity The axiom TINA (There Is No Alternative) is an example of which Globalization myth- Globalization is new- Globalization is inevitable- Globalization has existed throughout history- Globalization is a leveler A participatory culture is also an economy in which content, goods, time, effort, and money are, to one degree or another, shared,____O invested and grown O exchanged, and spent O saved and put away O divested and erased which source of power was introduced in the late 1800s? a. coal b. electricity c. animal d. wood Showing the amount of each monthly payment that goes toward principal and interest for the first three months of the loan.A home mortgage of $140,000 with a fixed APR of 6% for 30 years. Jenna earned $125 of interest by leaving her money in the bank for 4 years at a 5% interest rate. What was the principle amount that Jenna put in the bank On January 2, year 1, Emme Co. sold equipment with a carrying amount of $480,000 in exchange for a $600,000 noninterest-bearing note due January 2, year 4. There was no established exchange price for the equipment. The prevailing rate of interest for a note of this type at January 2, year 1, was 10%. The present value of $1 at 10% for three periods is 0.75. In Emme's year 1 income statement, what amount should be reported as interest income?a. $9,000b. $45,000c. $50,000d. $60,000 A company created its own social media space called The Lounge, which included an interactive website withcontests and forums for customers to talk about their own experiences with the company's products.Which of the following does this scenario illustrate?Business brandingViral marketingProduct differentiationMarket segmentation Write a summarised report of the following Dianas speechI am delighted to have been elected into the council and I thank all of those voters who came out in the rain today to vote for me. I am very much looking forward to representing the interests of the residents of Cambridge Valley and I hope I will have the opportunity to do so for many years to come. During the last few weeks, I have talked to many of the Valley residents on the doorstep and I have a clear idea of the issues which are of most concern to them. The proposed closure of the school is understandably causing a great deal of anxiety and I shall do everything in my power to fight against that. I hope that I will be successful.Thanks again to my supporters and a big thank you to all of those who helped me during my campaign. Report starting with: In her speech, Diana said that she was delighted. Refer to Table 3-6. Denmark and Italy trade according to the principle of comparative advantage. If the international price of bread is 2.5 units of cheese for 1 unit of bread, what is the gain from trade to Italy per unit of bread traded?a.0.5 units of cheeseb.1.5 unit of cheesec.2.0 units of cheesed.2.5 units of cheese How do you know if a function is convex or non convex?. The asked discount yield on a treasury bill is 5%. The ask price of the bill is $_______ if it matures in 60 days and has a face value of $1000. The process that managers use to collect, record, and examine new information in order to make marketing decisions is referred to as . multiple choice question.