1. anus - J. large intestinal outflow
2. appendix (vermiform) - C. The blind pouch connected to the cecum,
3. Cecum- F. the first big intestine segment
4. colon- H. the big intestine's main section
5. Duodenum- E. the small intestine's initial section
6. esophagus- D. links the stomach and mouth.
7. gallbladder- storage sac in the bile
8. ileum-K. the segment of the small intestine that connects to the large intestine
9. jejunum -M. second small intestine segment
10. liver- A. bile-producing auxiliary digestive organ
11. pancreas- auxiliary digestive organ that makes insulin
12. Rectum- G. the big intestine's last segment
13. salivary gland- I. one of the three pairs whose mouth-borne digestive fluids are secreted.
The human body's digestive system consists of a collection of organs that operate in concert to transform food into energy. The gastrointestinal tract, along with auxiliary organs including the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder, make up the digestive system anatomically. The mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, and large intestine, which houses the rectum and anus, are among the hollow organs that make up the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract).
The right answers are 1—J, 2—C, 3—F, 4—H, 5—E, 6—D, 7—N, 8—K, 9—M, 10—A, 11—B, 12—G, 13—I, and 14—L.
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what does adenine bind to in a molecule of dna?; complementary dna sequence; dna strand; dna base pairing rules
According to the DNA base pairing rule, adenine binds to the thymine molecule of another DNA strand, which suggests that all the options are correct in their own sense.
Complementary DNA sequence is the nucleic acid sequence of bases which forms pairs with other DNA strand on the basis of base pairing rule. DNA strands are polymers or chains of deoxy nucleoside monophosphates which are linked together by phosphodiester bonds. DNA base pairing rule is given by Chargaff's rule according to which the four sugar bases namely adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G) and thymine (T) combine together on the two DNA strands. As per this rule, adenine (A) always pairs with thymine on the other strand and vice versa and similarly, Cytosine (C) always pairs with guanine (G) on the other strand and vice versa.
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An analogy is a comparison between two things which are similar in some respects, but otherwise different. Use the examples below in order to create a one-sentence analogy that shows the similarity between each cell part and any object that has a similar function in a different system: cell wall, cell membrane (plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, nucleoid region, nuclear envelope, nucleolus, chromatin, ribosomes, rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, vacuoles, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, chloroplasts, lysosomes, cilia, and flagella.
The analogy of the cellular structures is as follows:
cell wall is like the skin in humanscell membrane is like the skin in humansplasma membrane is like the skincytoplasm is like the circulatory systemnucleus is like the brainnucleoid region is like the nucleus in eukaryotesnuclear envelope is like the skinnucleolus is like the thalamuschromatin is like the neuronsribosomes are like the digestive systemrough endoplasmic reticulum is like the circulatory systemsmooth endoplasmic reticulum is like the circulatory systemmicrotubules are like the skeletal systemmicrofilaments are like the skeletal systemvacuoles are like the stomachmitochondria are like the digestive systemGolgi apparatus is like the pancreas and liverchloroplasts are like the mitochondrialysosomes are like the digestive systemcilia are like the limbsflagella is like the limbsWhat is an analogy?According to Webster's English dictionary, “An analogy is a comparison between two things which are similar in some respects, but otherwise different. An explaining of something by comparing it point by point with something else.”
The analogy between the cell parts is used to compare cellular structures or organelles and other structures in living organisms.
The cell parts that are compared include:
cell wall,cell membraneplasma membranecytoplasm,nucleus,nucleoid region,nuclear envelope,nucleolus,chromatin,ribosomes,rough endoplasmic reticulum,smooth endoplasmic reticulum,microtubules,microfilaments,vacuoles,mitochondria,Golgi apparatus,chloroplasts,lysosomes,cilia, andflagella.Learn more about the analogy of cellular structures at: https://brainly.com/question/17345108
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move the terms into the correct empty boxes to complete this concept map that describes the various types of genotypic microbial analyses.
The two basic kinds of genomic microbial identification techniques are (1) pattern- or fingerprint-based techniques and (2) sequence-based techniques.
Genomic analysis: what is it?Through genotyping, researchers can investigate genetic variations like single nucleotide variations, copy number variations, and significant structural alterations in DNA.
What kinds of genotypes are there?The several genotypes that could exist are AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, and OO. How do the six genotypes relate to blood types .To ascertain whether the A and/or B features are present in a blood sample, a blood test is employed.
What is the genotyping test's underlying theory?Genotyping is the technique of identifying variations in an individual's genetic make-up (genotype) by comparing and analyzing their DNA sequence using biological assays.
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primary target of the autonomic nervous system for altering the resistance to blood flow to an organ or tissue.
Arterioles are the primary target of the autonomic nervous system for altering the resistance to blood flow to an organ or tissue.
The peripheral nervous system's autonomic nervous system controls physiological functions that are carried out automatically, such as digestion, blood pressure, respiration, and sexual desire. There are three physically separate divisions in it: enteric, parasympathetic, and sympathetic.
Both afferent and efferent fibres are found in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, which, respectively, supply the central nervous system with sensory input and motor output. A postganglionic neuron with a cell body in the periphery that innervates target tissues and a preganglionic neuron with a cell body in the CNS make up the majority of the SNS and PNS motor pathways.
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A student designed an experiment to investigate a claim that athletes would have lower heart rates than nonathletes during exercise. After the students classified themselves as an athlete or a nonathlete, their resting pulses were determined. Then all the students performed the same exercise for four minutes and their heart rates were determined by recording the pulse rate in beats per minute. The students continued to measure their pulse rates for an additional four minutes. The average heart rate per minute for each group was determined. The data were recorded, as shown on the table below.
After activity, the heart rates of the athletic students reverted to resting pulse in four minutes.
Physical activity is connected with haemodynamic alterations and modifies the loading circumstances of the heart. In dynamic exercise the emphasis is on movement with no or limited production of force. The key haemodynamic aspects are increases in heart rate and stroke volume, the two components of cardiac output. Although the overall effect is a mild to moderate increase in blood pressure, systemic vascular resistance declines. Volume exerts the heaviest burden on the heart. In static workout force is created with no or limited movement. The haemodynamic repercussions involve a small elevation of cardiac output, produced by the increase of heart rate, and a more dramatic rise of blood pressure, resulting in a pressure load on the heart.
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which of these pathogens cannot be transmitted congenitally or from mother to baby during childbirth?
Leptospira introgans pathogens cannot be transmitted from mother to child during birth or delivery.
Congenitally transmitted organisms are pathogens such as bacteria, viruses and parasites that are passed from the mother to the fetus and cause a variety of infections. Bloodborne pathogens are microorganisms that enter the body through contact with human blood. Once these microbes enter the body, they can cause diseases. Congenital infection occurs when the mother infects the fetus before giving birth. Congenital infection occurs through vertical transmission, which means that the virus is passed from one generation to the next.
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Pollen grains are produced by
a.male reproductive structures.
b. flowers.
c. female reproductive structures.
d. ovules.
Which of the following is the only tissue that produces new plant cells?
a. phloem
b. ground tissue
c. xylem
d. meristematic tissue
A period of dormancy can allow seeds to germinate
a. under poor conditions.
b. without water.
c. under ideal conditions.
d. in extreme
temperatures.
What might a thin tree ring indicate?
a. decreased production of phloem
b. xylem production in winter
c. a year of drought
d. increased production of xylem
Cytokinins differ from auxins in that cytokinins
a. cause seeds to remain dormant.
b. inhibit lateral bud growth.
c. cause leaves to fall.
d. inhibit elongation of cells
Answer:
1. A
Explanation:
they are produced by male part known as anthers
when does fertilization occur; fertilization process; how long does it take the egg to travel from the ovary to the uterus; creates a human cell with 23 chromosomes; chances of sperm meeting egg; fertilized egg is called; sperm and egg meet symptoms; what is conception
The fertilization can occur within 24 hours of ovulation. The fertilized egg must travel to the uterus and attach to the uterus for about 6 to 12 days, a process known as implantation. The successful fusion of an egg and a sperm is known as conception. This process can start immediately after a sexual encounter or it can take days.
The egg sleeps for an additional 30 hours until it reaches the ampullar-isthmic junction, a particular area of the tube. In this section of the tube, the sperm and egg unite to form the fertilised egg. The fertilised egg then starts to quickly fall toward the uterus. The resting time in the tube appears to be required for the fertilized egg to fully mature and for the uterus to get ready to receive the egg.
Hence, fertilization is biological term for denoting conception.
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If mitosis makes somatic (body) cells, what does meiosis make?
A. Sex cells
B. Heart cells
C. Nerve cells
D. Body cells
Meiosis creates sex cells, just as mitosis creates somatic (body) cells.
In living things, there are two different types of cell division: meiosis and mitosis. Meiosis produces four genetically distinct cells, whereas mitosis produces two genetically identical cells from a parent cell.
Somatic cells, such as liver cells, skin cells, etc., are body cells that do not participate in reproduction. Mitosis is the process through which somatic cells divide. Meiosis is the process by which sex cells, or gametes, are created because they are involved in reproduction. Meiosis contributes to sexual reproduction's genetic diversity.
As a result, choice A is the right response.
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Which of the following is needed for the process of cellular respiration so that homeostasis can be maintained within the cell?
Because it supplies the energy required for the interchange of molecules across cell membranes, as well as for protein synthesis and reproduction, cellular respiration is crucial for preserving cellular homeostasis.
What is required in your cells for cellular respiration to take place?Anaerobic (without oxygen) and aerobic (with oxygen) cellular respiration are both possible (without oxygen). During aerobic cellular respiration, glucose and oxygen combine to create ATP, which the cell can utilise. As byproducts, carbon dioxide and water are produced.
In order to breathe, which of the following is required?In the course of respiration, oxygen is used, and as byproducts, carbon dioxide, water, and energy are released.
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what roles do the digestive, circulatory, and respiratory systems play when you eat an energy bar?
Answer:ability to break down food
Explanation:
easy
identify two genetic mechanisms whereby proto-oncogenes can become overexpressed. select the two mechanisms. identify two genetic mechanisms whereby proto-oncogenes can become overexpressed.select the two mechanisms. mutations within gene-regulatory regions a gain-of-function alteration mutations that result in an abnormal protein product alterations in chromatin structure modification of proto-oncogenes products
Missense mutations, gene amplification, chromosomal translocation, and viral integration can all turn a proto-oncogene into an oncogene.
The encoded protein is anticipated to either increase in quantity or have its function changed to become more active as a result of the genetic modifications. Proto-oncogenes are a class of genes that, when mutated, lead to the development of cancer in normally developing cells. Proto-oncogene mutations are often dominant in nature, and the mutated form of an oncogene is referred to be an oncogene. Proto-oncogenes frequently produce proteins that promote cell proliferation, prevent cell differentiation, and prevent cell death. The preservation of tissues and organs as well as normal human development depend on each of these processes. However, oncogenes frequently show increased synthesis of these proteins.
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using the following codon chart, identify the polypeptide that would be produced as a result of transcribing and translating the following dna template sequence. dna: ...3' a c c a a g t c t 5'... arg - phe - trp arg - leu - gly thr - lys - ser trp - phe - arg gly - leu - arg
thr - lys - ser codons will be the polypeptide that would be produced as a result of transcribing and translating the following dna template sequence. dna: ...3' a c c a a g t c t 5'
A codon table can be used to convert a genetic code into an amino acid sequence. The standard genetic code is generally represented as an RNA codon table since messenger RNA (mRNA) controls protein synthesis when proteins are generated in a cell by ribosomes. The genomic DNA sequence dictates the mRNA sequence. Translation table refers to the conventional genetic code in this sense. A DNA codon table can also show how it looks.
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What Is Genetic Diversity and Why Does it Matter?
Diversity refers to having a variety of different things, and Genetic refers to features that are related to traits transferred from parent to offspring. Genetic diversity describes the variety of unique hereditary features found in a species.
There would be a large number of individuals with a diverse range of attributes in a species with great genetic diversity. A population must have genetic diversity in order to adapt to ever-changing conditions. The wild population's capacity to adjust to changes will be lowered if a strain with high selection pressure and little diversity—like fish populations raised for aquaculture—is introduced into the population. It is crucial for species to have genetic diversity since it increases their chances of surviving. However, when populations become smaller and more isolated, genetic diversity can be lost, which reduces a species' capacity for adaptation and survival. It follows that populations with more genetic diversity are thought to have greater adaptive potential due to larger levels of standing genetic variation, making them more resilient to changing environmental conditions and hence more suitable for conservation efforts. It follows that populations with more genetic diversity are thought to have greater adaptive potential due to larger levels of standing genetic variation, making them more resilient to changing environmental conditions and hence more suitable for conservation efforts.
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a protein is a large polypeptide. polypeptides are polymers of amino acids joined together through a special type of bond: the peptide bond. understanding the chemistry and properties of the peptide bond is fundamental to understanding protein structure (and function). first, identify the n- and c-termini of the peptide. then, identify those bonds that comprise the peptide bond for each labeled bond. finally, determine the number of amino acids in the peptide depicted. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all. Targets may be empty.
Chains of amino acids in messenger RNA / mRNA terminated with N-terminal and C-terminal. The free carboxyl group is called C-terminal, while the free amino group is called N-terminal.
Carboxyl group amino acids are not part of a peptide bond. The carboxyl group is part of a carboxylic acid, carboxylate, or rarely a carboxylic acid derivative such as an ester. C-terminal in a protein is the protein signal needed to retain signs.
Amino acids residue in N-terminal is not part of a peptide bond and usually, although that is not in every polypeptide or protein, it’s an amine or ammonium cation. N-terminal is for targeting signals.
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Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of increasing the concentration of substrate (ethyl alcohol), while keeping the concentration of the inhibitor (methyl alcohol) constant? Competitive inhibition will decrease because the proportion of the active sites occupied by substrate will increase.
Because more substrate-occupied active sites are present, competitive inhibition will be reduced,predicts the effect of increasing the concentration of substrate (ethyl alcohol), while keeping the concentration of the inhibitor (methyl alcohol) constant.
Enzymes are biochemical catalysts that support biochemical reactions in living cells.Their core 3D protein structures, known as their active sites, are used to bind with substrates during reactions.Enzyme processes are typically impacted by inhibitors (such as methyl alcohol), which compete with the true substrate (ethyl alcohol) for the active site.An illustration of competitive inhibition might be this. Since there is more ethyl alcohol accessible, there are more active sites occupied, which reduces the possibility that the inhibitor methyl alcohol will bind to the active site and prevent the creation of harmful formaldehyde and more non-toxic compounds from forming at the active sites.
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. all of the following are characteristics of genomic instability in cancer cells except . view available hint(s)for part a . all of the following are characteristics of genomic instability in cancer cells except . chromosomal translocations controlled cell division chromosomal deletions dna amplification
All of the following are characteristics of genomic instability in cancer cells except controlled cell division, which suggests that option B is the right answer.
Cancer cells are those cells which show abnormal growth of certain tissues and cells which multiply and form tumor. Genomic instability can initiate cancer, augment progression, and influence the overall prognosis of the affected patient. Rapid cell division alone is not evidence of genomic instability. Genomic instability is the tendency of the cells to go under mutations, due to which the gene sequence of the DNA molecule tends to change. It causes growth of abnormal cells. Genome stability is essential to accurately transmit all genetic information to progeny.
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You bathe a skeletal muscle cell in the SERCA 1A inhibitor, CGP-37157, then stimulate the muscle cell at a voltage level sufficient to elicit contraction under control conditions. Based upon your knowledge of the mechanisms mediating skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following would you expect to take place? A. The skeletal muscle would not contract. B. The force generated and duration of contraction would be greater than control. C. You would not see any difference between experimental and control conditions.
Based upon your knowledge of the mechanisms mediating skeletal muscle contraction,the force generated and duration of contraction would be greater than control.
What is contraction?
Actin and myosin filament interaction, which causes their relative movement to one another, causes muscle contraction as a result. Myosin's association with actin filaments provides the chemical underpinning for this interaction, enabling it to operate as a motor to promote filament sliding.
Thick myosin filaments and thin actin filaments glide past one another to cause muscle contraction. The broad consensus is that cross-bridges that protrude from myosin filaments and engage in periodic interactions with actin filaments when ATP is hydrolyzed are responsible for driving this process.
Therefore, Option B is correct.
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I also need help with this one !!
Answer: Here you go!
Explanation:
Interphase - Metabolic stage with no cell division; 3 stages G1, S, and G2
Prophase - Chromosomes condense; spindle fibers form
Metaphase - Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
Anaphase - Sister chromatids are pulled away from the center of the cell
Telophase - Chromosomes separate to polls; nuclear membrane forms; chromosomes de-condense
Modern bananas originated from a cross between a tetraploid banana species and a diploid banana species. The product of this cross was the triploid Cavendish banana strain, a sterile hybrid that is only grown asexually. Recently, the Panama fungus has been observed more frequently parasitizing the Cavendish banana, and scientists claim that this type of banana is on the brink of extinction.
Which of the following provides the best explanation of the scientists’ claim regarding the threat to the Cavendish banana?
The triploid genome of the Cavendish banana makes it susceptible to the negative impact of recessive alleles.
Having three of each chromosome interferes with normal function of the cells and increases the likelihood of contracting a disease.
The lack of genetic diversity of the Cavendish banana decreases the chance that a variation exists in the population that is immune to the fungus.
Asexual reproduction increases the mutation rate during replication, resulting in a greater chance that the offspring have a dysfunctional immune system.
The best explanation is that lack of genetic diversity of the Cavendish banana decreases the chance that a variation exists in the population that is immune to the fungus.
Loss of genetic range will increase the chance of extinction of a populace thru inbreeding depression. In addition, the range of deleterious genetic variations, which would possibly acquire in a small populace thru genetic drift, also can make the populace vulnerable.Inbreeding, genetic drift, constrained gene flow, and small populace length all make a contribution to a discount in genetic range.
Fragmented and threatened populations are commonly uncovered to those conditions, that is in all likelihood to boom their chance of extinction. Asexual replica will increase the mutation charge at some point of replication, ensuing in a extra danger that the offspring have a dysfunctional immune system.
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cousre hero bacteriostatic agents treat infections by . responses cell wall lysis cell wall lysis - incorrect inhibiting ribosomal activity inhibiting ribosomal activity - no response given preventing cell division preventing cell division - not selected, this is the correct answer none of the above\
Bacteriostatic agents treat infections by preventing cell division.
Bacteriostatic agents work by inhibiting bacterial growth, but they do not specifically kill the organisms against which they are directed. Bacteriostatic agents most commonly function via the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis pathways. It is capable of stopping bacterial growth and reproduction without killing the organism. Bacteriostatic agents halt bacterial growth by inhibiting cell division, allowing the immune system to fight off the infection.
Bactericidal are those agents that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. This actually kill bacteria, destroying the cells and eliminating the infection.
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which of the following is a characteristic of rna splicing in eukaryotes?
A) It involves recognition of sequence-specific intron/exon boundary sites by cytoplasmic proteins
B) Exon/intron boundaries are typically characterized by a 5' GU splice junction and a 3' AG splice junction.
C) It involves removal of introns from a gene sequence followed by transcription and subsequent splicing of exons.
D) After splicing occurs, the U1, U2, U5, U6 snRNP complex removes remaining exons for degradation.
Exon/intron boundaries are typically characterized by a 5' GU splice junction and a 3' AG splice junction is a characteristic of rna splicing in eukaryotes.
What characterizes a eukaryotes?eukaryote, any type of cell or creature with a distinct nucleus. The well-defined chromosomes (bodies containing the hereditary material), which are found in the nucleus of the eukaryotic cell, are enclosed by a nuclear membrane.Eukaryotes include bacteria, fungi, algae, plants, animals, and protozoa.Organisms called eukaryotes have nuclei in their cells. Eukaryotes include include animals, plants, fungi, and several single-celled creatures. One of the three domains of life, Eukarya, is the group of organisms that they are a part of. The other two domains are Bacteria and Archaea.Exon/intron boundaries are typically characterized by a 5' GU splice junction and a 3' AG splice junction is a characteristic of rna splicing in eukaryotes
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according to the diathesis stress model is a characteristic that makes a sexually abused child more prone to develop[ dissacoiative identiy disorder. t/f
True.According to the diathesis-stress model,hypnotizability is a characteristic that makes a sexually abused child more prone to develop dissociative identity disorder
The diathesis-stress model posits that psychological disorders result from an interaction between inherent vulnerability and environmental stressors. Such interactions between dispositional and environmental factors have been demonstrated in psychopathology research.These components may include aggression and/or impulsivity, pessimism and hopelessness, and problem-solving or cognitive rigidity.A diathesis can be defined as the hereditary or biological propensity to develop a mental health condition. It examines genetic vulnerability as well as past biological events that can influence an individual's susceptibility to mental illnesses.
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Is a zygote the only diploid cell?; Is haploid or diploid zygote?; Which cell is diploid zygote?; Is the zygote produced by fertilization a haploid or a diploid cell?
Fertilization happens when two gametes, often from different people, fuse, restoring the diploid state.
The resultant diploid cell is termed a zygote after the two gametes combine during fertilization. A zygote, like its parent organism, is diploid (2 copies of each chromosome).
A gamete is a single haploid sex cell, such as an egg or sperm. A zygote is a diploid cell formed by the sexual reproduction of two gamete cells.
Fertilization is the process by which haploid gametes join together to form a diploid cell known as a zygote. Only one sperm can fuse with one egg to ensure that each zygote has the correct number of chromosomes.
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which of the following cells remains at the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells?
To maintain the pool of dividing germ cells, type A daughter cells are left at the basal lamina.
Which of the subsequent cells is still present at the basal lamina to maintain the population of dividing germ cells?Similar to the stratum basal skin cells, type A daughter cells continue the pool of proliferating germ cells at the basal lamina.
What area of the sperm has the enzymes needed to enter the oocyte?There are 23 chromosomes in the head, also known as the nuclear area, which is encircled by a nuclear membrane. An acrosome, which protects the tip of the head and has enzymes to aid sperm penetration of the female gamete, is present.
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a research study is designed to assess the rate of lung maturation of preterm infants with down syndrome, by measuring the lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio (l/s ratio) in amniotic fluid, as a surrogate of adequate surfactant production. weekly amniocentesis are performed during the last trimester of pregnancy. the rate of miscarriage due to amniocentesis is estimated at one in 200 procedures. the irb determines that this procedure carries a greater than minimal risk to the fetus and that there is no direct benefit to the mother or to the fetus. which of the following is true
When having a regular vaginal exam, the lactate level of the amniotic fluid was measured. A tool is called a lecithin/sphingomyelin ratios in amniotic fluid test system.
It is significant for underdeveloped fetal lung development when the L/S ratio is less than 2.0. Two chemicals that are present with in mucus during pregnancy are measured by this test. Lecithin and sphingomyelin are indeed the names of the two ingredients. Being surfactants, they. The lungs produce these substances to aid in proper lung function. The amount of lamellar bodies rises at 32 weeks gestation, which results in more surfactant being produced in the fetal lungs or amniotic fluid. Lecithin & sphingomyelin are roughly equal in levels at this stage of lung development. A test for fetal amniotic fluid is the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio, also known as L-S or L/S ratio.
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Which information can be determined from the chemical formula C6H12O6?; What is the correct formula for photosynthesis?; How are the products represented in the chemical equation for photosynthesis?; Which is the correct unbalanced equation for photosynthesis?
The chemical formula C6H12O6 is the chemical formula of glucose which is a monosaccharide containing an aldehyde group (-CHO) with 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms and 6 oxygen atoms. Glucose is a product produced from photosynthesis.
The chemical molecular formula for the photosynthesis process is 6CO2+6H2O→C6H12O6+6O2. The synthesis process is a reaction that occurs in plants to produce food to be used as energy for cells. The process of photosynthesis requires materials in the form of air which is represented by H2O and carbon dioxide which is represented by the formula CO2 in the chemical formula of the photosynthesis process. The products of photosynthesis are glucose which is represented by C6H12O6 and oxygen which is represented by O2 in the chemical formula.
Some people often refer to the chemical formula of photosynthesis as CO2+H2O→C6H12O6+O2, this formula is an unbalanced equation. Because the auction will produce glucose with the chemical formula C6H12O6 having 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms and 6 oxygen atoms, then should the chemical formula carbon dioxide H2O and water O2 also have a total of 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms.
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which statement accurately describes the term biodiversity?
The total number of different species is an area.
The total size of a population of a single species.
The number of trophic levels in a food web.
The statement the total number of different species in an area accurately describes the term biodiversity (option a).
What is biodiversity?Biodiversity refers to all variations both genetic and phenotypic in the individuals that form the community for a particular geographic area, which is fundamental to maintaining the homeostasis of the ecosystem and its loss may lead to irreversible changes in the environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the term biodiversity is used to denote all types of variations in the individuals that conform to a community for a particular region.
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What tissue would contain a high number of mitochondria?; Which cells in the human body would have the highest abundance of mitochondria and chloroplast?; Where are mitochondria found?; Why do some cells have more mitochondria?
Chloroplasts and mitochondria are required by plant cells because they carry out both photosynthesis and cellular respiration. During photosynthesis, the chloroplast transforms solar light energy into chemical energy, whereas the mitochondria, the cell's engine, creates ATP, the currency of energy, during respiration.
The membrane-bound cell organelles known as mitochondria (plural: mitochondrion) are responsible for producing the majority of the chemical energy required to fuel biochemical reactions within the cell. The mitochondria generate chemical energy, which is then stored as adenosine triphosphate, a small molecule.The majority of the chemical energy required to drive a cell's biochemical reactions is produced by mitochondria, which are membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular). Adenosine triphosphate, a small molecule, serves as a storage container for the chemical energy generated by the mitochondria.
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Diagram (drawing or picture) and explain in detail each platelet structure and its function. Include; Peripheral zone(Glycocalyx and Membrane), Membrane Systems (Open canicular and Dense tubular systems), Structural Zone (Microtubules, Submembranous cytoskeleton, Actin G and F forms, and Myosin), and the organelle zone (Alpha granules, Lysosome, Mitochondrion, Glycogen, and alpha granules).
Clinical hematology
Based on their organization and function, platelets can be structurally classified into the Peripheral zone, Sol-gel zone, Organelles zone, and Membrane zone or system.
What granules are released by platelets?Dense granules, -granules, and lysosomes are the three main granule types seen in platelets, however more granule forms have been discovered. The most physiologically significant and well-studied granules are dense and -granules.
What is the platelet's structure?Although platelets are anucleate, they have distinctive mitochondria, which gives them a unique structural assembly. The phospholipid bilayer that makes up the platelet plasma membrane is the site of the expression of a number of surface receptors and lipid rafts that aid in intracellular trafficking and signaling.
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