The quantity of heparin which would be given in milliliters if 4000 units/ hour is infused in the patient is 80ml.
Since the medication order states that 25,000 units of heparin is stored in the form of 500 milliliters liquid in a container, and the quantity infused in single time is 4000 units/hour, then according to the unitary method, we can make following equations.
Quantity of heparin in 25,000 units = 500 milliliters
Quantity of heparin in 1 unit = 500 / 25000 = 1/50
Quantity of heparin in 4000 units = (1/50)× 4000 = 80 milliliters
Since the value of time is neither mentioned in value nor any relation is set, therefore taking it as a constant figure, we can state that it if 4000 units is infused in 1 hour, then 80ml will also be infused in 1 hour.
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a client has an abdominal cholecystectomy for treatment of a gangrenous gallbladder. considering the location of the surgical site, the nurse would assess the client for which postoperative complication?
A cholecystectomy is a surgical procedure that involves removing your gallbladder, a pear-shaped organ that is placed right below your stomach on the upper right side of your belly. Bile, a digestive fluid made by your liver, is collected and stored in your gallbladder.
Pain follows cholecystectomy that has been undetected may be brought on by a gallbladder remnant holding stones. Any remnant gallbladder remnants can be removed permanently with a completion cholecystectomy, which can be done laparoscopic surgery.
An abdominal cholecystectomy involves a large incision which also hurts when the patient swallows forcefully. Self-splinting causes shallow breathing, which insufficiently aerates and extends the lungs, especially the lower nowadays it, resulting in tuberculosis.
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a mother of a 7-year-old child complains to the nurse that her child wets the bed at night. upon interaction with the child, the nurse learns that the child is afraid of the dark. which would the nurse recommend to the mother? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
“Children who are old enough to let their imagination run wild, but not yet old enough to distinguish their imagination from reality,”.
What to say to a child who is afraid of the dark?Listen, and be careful not to intensify or dramatise the situation. Assuage the child's worry by giving her a sense of security, advises Dobbins. Add a name to the dread. Help your youngster comprehend what fear is by explaining what it is and that it is normal.
Around the age of 2, your child's imagination starts to grow, and this is frequently the time when we notice the onset of concerns related to shadows, the dark, or imagined objects. Although every child is unique, it's uncommon to see children under 2 battle with nightmares or experience nightmares that keep them awake.
This sort of phobia is more prone to develop in kids and adults who have experienced a traumatic or upsetting experience in the dark, especially if the event was repeated.
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2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from
The online pharmacy store offers Privacy and convenience. Option C
What is an online pharmacy store?We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.
This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.
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the nurse is preparing an educational program for her peers regarding vaccinations. what information should the nurse include? select all that apply.
The CDC provides the recommended schedule for vaccines. Parents must be given the proper Vaccine Information Statements prior to administration of the vaccine.
Why vaccines are important?Vaccines help your body create protective antibodies—proteins that help it fight off infections. By getting vaccinated, you can protect yourself and also avoid spreading preventable diseases to other people in your community.
What diseases don t have a vaccine?But there is still — despite 30 years of effort — no AIDS vaccine. There is no universal flu vaccine. There are no vaccines with long-lasting protection against malaria or tuberculosis. None for parasites like Chagas, elephantiasis, hookworm or liver flukes.
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which maternal age group has increased risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and fetal death?
Teenage mothers have increased risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and fetal death.
Which maternal age group has increased risk ?Both ends of the reproductive age spectrum are thought to be at risk for unfavourable pregnancy outcomes. Teenage moms are more likely to experience preterm birth, low birth weight, a low Apgar score, and postnatal death. There is still substantial debate over whether this link is caused by biological immaturity or is instead the result of socioeconomic disadvantages, behavioural problems, or a lack of access to high-quality prenatal care. However, delaying pregnancy increases the risk of obstetric and maternal problems. In 1950, a first publication addressed the issue of "elderly primigravida." Due to a wide range of social and cultural factors, the maternal age at childbirth has changed significantly over the past few decades.To learn more about pregnancy, refer:
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an alert and oriented auto mechanic had his right thigh pinned between the bumpers of two cars. assessment findings include deformity and swelling to the right hip area and mid-thigh, along with ecchymosis and swelling to the right knee. the patient complains of excruciating pain to the right leg. which set of instructions given to other emts on the scene would be appropriate?
"Let's provide spine motion restriction precautions now, get the patient in the ambulance, and then provide more care to the leg en route."
Define swelling?Swelling may result from the accumulation of bodily fluid, tissue growth, or aberrant tissue movement or positioning.Swelling affects the majority of people occasionally. If it's hot outside and you've been standing or sitting still for a while, your feet and ankles may swell.Stretched and shiny-looking skin covers the swelling area.If your legs, ankles, or feet swell, it will be difficult to walk. Coughing or breathing issues could be present.Your swelling body part makes you feel bloated or constricting.Usually, swelling after an accident gets worse throughout the first two to four days.The body will then try to mend itself for up to three months after that.To learn more about swelling refer to:
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the nurse applies fetal and uterine monitors to the abdomen of a client in active labor. when the client has contractions, the nurse notes a 15 beats/min deceleration of the fetal heart rate below the baseline lasting 15 seconds. which is the next nursing action?
The next nursing action would be to contact the physician and inform them of the deceleration in the fetal heart rate. The physician may then order additional monitoring or interventions to ensure the wellbeing of the fetus.
What is a fetal and uterine monitor used for?A fetal and uterine monitor is a device used to track and measure the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions during labor. It is primarily used to monitor the health and wellbeing of both the mother and the baby during labor and delivery.
The fetal monitor is typically attached to the mother's stomach and measures the fetal heart rate through an ultrasound. The uterine monitor is typically placed inside the mother's vagina and measures the intensity and timing of uterine contractions.
Both monitors provide important information to the medical team, including the baby's heart rate, the strength of uterine contractions, and the duration of labor. By providing this information, the medical team can adjust their approach to labor and delivery to ensure the best outcome for the mother and baby.
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the nurse provides education related to the relationship between aerobic exercise and weight loss to a client who is obese. the nurse evaluates that teaching is effective when the client states which effect of exercise?
Increases my lean body mass the nurse provides education related to the relationship between aerobic exercise and weight loss.
The most vital component of an powerful weight-management application have to be the prevention of undesirable weight advantage from excess body fat. The military is in a unique position to address prevention from the primary day of an person's army profession. due to the fact the military population is chosen from a pool of individuals who meet specific criteria for body mass index (BMI) and percentage body fat, the primary purpose must be to foster an surroundings that promotes protection of a wholesome body weight and body composition throughout an person's navy profession. there's widespread evidence that dropping extra body fat is tough for most individuals and the risk of regaining lost weight is high. From the primary day of initial access education, an knowledge of the essential causes of excess weight benefit have to be communicated to each character, along side a strategy for retaining a wholesome body weight as a manner of lifestyles.
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what is the name of the disease that is characterized by the deposition of fatty material in the blood vessels? multiple choice question. cardiovascular disease hypertension glucose malabsorption disease chronic cancer
Answer:cardiovascular disease
Explanation:
cardiovascular disease- Coronary heart disease (CHD) is usually caused by a build-up of fatty deposits (atheroma) on the walls of the arteries around the heart (coronary arteries).
What are the 4 metabolic risk factors that can lead to cardiovascular disease?We concentrated on five metabolic risk factors for heart disease: high blood pressure, high cholesterol, dyslipidemia, diabetes, and obesity. During a heart attack, the blood supply to the heart muscle is suddenly cut off. Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to efficiently pump blood throughout the body. Heart attack, heart failure, valve disease, stroke, heart rhythm problems, and peripheral artery and vein disease are the six cardiovascular diseases (CVDs) with the most commonly reported symptoms, according to a "state of the science" study (PAD and PVD). Cardiac disease is a broad phrase that covers a variety of heart issues. Cardiovascular disease, which refers to both heart and blood vessel disease, is another name for it.To learn more about cardiovascular disease refer to:
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which health care professional would be consulted when planning exercise for a patient who had heart transplant surgery?
When planning exercise for a patient who has had heart transplant surgery, it is important to consult with a cardiologist.
A cardiologist is a healthcare professional who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of cardiovascular diseases, including heart transplantation.
The cardiologist will be able to assess the patient's overall health and cardiovascular function, and determine the appropriate level of exercise that is safe for the patient to participate in. They will also be able to monitor the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to their exercise plan as the patient's condition improves.
Additionally, the patient may also be referred to a physical therapist, who will create a personalized exercise plan for the patient and provide guidance on proper technique and form.
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which interventions would the nurse implement for a child older than 2 years of age with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl? select all that apply
Give the child a teaspoon of honey. Prepare to administer glucagon subcutaneously if unconsciousness occurs.
What is a 2-year-typical old's blood sugar level?Blood glucose levels should be between 70 and 140 milligrammes per deciliter (mg/dL).Infancy, toddlerhood, or adolescence are all possible ages for your child to develop type 1 diabetes. It often emerges after the age of 5. Others, though, don't experience it until their late 30s. For the sake of your child's health, be aware of the signs of type 1 diabetes.If your kid has two consecutive fasting blood sugar readings of 126 milligrammes per deciliter (mg/dl) or above, diabetes will be diagnosed. A fasting blood sugar level of 70 to 100 mg/dl is considered normal.To learn more about diabetes refer to:
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the physician asks for more sterile instruments that are not found on the sterile tray. what are two ways the medical assistant can obtain the needed instruments?
Major surgical procedures include, but are not limited to, heart operations, gut cavity operations, reconstructive surgery, deep tissue treatments, transplant procedures, as well as any operations on the abdomen, chest, or head.
What are surgery procedures?The act of healing or surgery is an endeavor to assist patients who are treated for medical illnesses or diseases by surgeons in hospitals. Surgery is performed with the goal of preserving or saving the patient's life as well as preventing complications and incapacity. However, there is a chance of life-threatening complications with doctor-performed procedures, necessitating postoperative patient care.The nurse is in charge of treating the patient once healing is complete for medical operations such as arrests that are performed alone by a doctor. Collaboration between surgeons and surgical nurses is typically a difficult process.when a nurse aids a patient during a quick operation. Every single sterile instrument needs to be put in a sterile tray. If the sterilised tool gets misplaced in the tray when you're helping the client with a minor operation, you'll need to contact another medical assistant for aid and grab the sterilised tool using forceps or halt the sterilisation process to get the tool.Patients should be instructed on the value of keeping their wounds clean. This lessens inflammation and hastens the healing of wounds. Patients should also be instructed on what not to use because some goods they may use could be harmful to their health.The complete question is,
A medical assistant has scrubbed and is assisting with minor surgery. The physician asks for more sterile instruments that are not found on the sterile tray.
- What are two ways the medical assistant can obtain the needed instruments?
- Why is it important to provide patient education on wound care following minor surgery?
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information gathering is important to make informed decisions prior to medication administration. who has the responsibility to gather and understanding key drug information prior to medication administration? select all that apply.
The people who have the responsibility to collect and understand key drug information before drug administration are:
Physician Assistant (PA)Primary Care Provider (PCP)Registered Nurse (RN)Treatment is important in the effort to cure disease and restore health. Safe drug administration is a primary concern when administering medication to patients.
One of the important roles of nurses in health services is to pay attention to the principles of the seven right medicines when giving drugs to patients. The seven rights consist of, the right patient, the right drug, the right dosage, the right route of administration, the right time, the right documentation, and the right information.
The main causes of drug administration errors are influenced by 3 main factors: failure of the human factor, failure of the system, and the failure of environmental factors.
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ms. dole, 25, an executive assistant, is in urgent care with left ankle pain and swelling following a fall 10 days ago. she says she simply lost her footing going downstairs from her apartment, and has not felt dizzy or blacked out. the clinic notes show that she had a right wrist injury following another fall at home a few months ago. otherwise, she is healthy; takes only an oral contraceptive and her x-rays show no fracture. the waiting room is packed with patients waiting. which option is recommended as your next action?
Option b is prefered, I'm concerned that you've had two recent falls and I'm wondering if you have any ideas about why this is happening.
When should go to urgent care for swollen ankles?If you require assistance walking because of the pain and swelling and you are in serious agony, visit an urgent care centre. If you are unable to walk at all or your foot is damaged or disfigured, go to the emergency hospital. It's possible that you have a fracture, fractured bone, or severe ligament injury.It is best to use B. Here, an open invitation to discuss her life further might be beneficial. A disregards the two-fall fact; C is pertinent but too sudden, and if she has a drug abuse issue, she could lie or answer defensively; D is significant but not yet; and E asks many questions at once, which is a bad tactic.The coplete question is Ms. Dole, 25, an executive assistant, is in Urgent Care with left ankle pain and swelling following a fall 10 days ago. She says she simply lost her footing going downstairs from her apartment, and has not felt dizzy or blacked out. The clinic notes show that she had a right wrist injury following another fall at home a few months ago. Otherwise, she is healthy; takes only an oral contraceptive And her x-rays show no fracture. The waiting room is packed with patients waiting. Which option is recommended as your next action?
A. I'm going to give you an air cast, crutches, and Ibuprofen. Elevate your leg as much as possible, and come back for more evaluation if you do not improve in this coming week.
B. I'm concerned that you've had two recent falls and I'm wondering if you have any ideas about why this is happening.
C. How much alcohol do you drink?
D. I'd like to do a more complete physical exam.
E. Do you have other symptoms, problems or concerns we have not yet discussed?
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during a shift, the patient consumed 180 ml of water, 200 ml of tea, 8 oz of milk, and one 6 oz glass of ice chips. calculate the total intake for the shift (in ml).
If the patient drank the recommended fluids, their combined intake for the shift would be about 800 ml.
How much liquid should you drink each day?Suggestions in general for healthy men and women, the National Academy of Medicine recommends a sufficient daily fluid intake of 13 cups for males and 9 cups for women, with 1 cup equaling 8 ounces. Those who engage in vigorous physical activity or who live in hot regions might require higher doses.
Why are ice chips provided in hospitals but not water?Because they would melt, ice chips were permitted, but all other fluids had to be administered through IV. However, as women have voiced a wish to make labor more of a natural process throughout the years, the health care system has changed.
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a patient experiences a hernia in the pelvic floor, in the area between the anus and external genitalia. this type of hernia is called a(n) hernia.
When organs or tissue pierce the muscles of the pelvic floor and enter the abdominal cavity, a perineal hernia results.
What is a hernia in the anus?When organs or tissue pierce the muscles of the pelvic floor and enter the abdominal cavity, a perineal hernia results.After pelvic surgery, you are more likely to develop a perineal hernia.This particular pelvic floor hernia is brought on by both injuries and pregnancy.Umbilical hernias, inguinal hernias, and femoral hernias are among the common types of hernias.The lower abdomen, which lacks a posterior sheath, is where spigelian hernias tend to develop most frequently.Additionally known as "hernia of the semilunar line" or "spontaneous lateral ventral hernia," it occurs suddenly.The transversus aponeurosis has an obvious flaw called the hernia ring. Spigelian hernia diagnosis is challenging.The lower abdomen, which lacks a posterior sheath, is where spigelian hernias tend to develop most frequently.Additionally known as "hernia of the semilunar line" or "spontaneous lateral ventral hernia," it occurs suddenly.To learn more about hernia refer
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the nurse manager is teaching the nursing team about funds allocated to health departments for personal health services by local, state, and federal governments. which | statement made by a member of the team would indicate effective learning? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The funds provide care for newborns.The funds provide care for clients with tuberculosis.The funds provide care for children with birth defects.
What is the main cause of tuberculosis?Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine, and brain.Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs. The bacteria that cause tuberculosis are spread from person to person through tiny droplets released into the air via coughs and sneezes.The general symptoms of TB disease include feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The symptoms of TB disease of the lungs also include coughing, chest pain, and the coughing up of blood. Symptoms of TB disease in other parts of the body depend on the area affected.To learn more about tuberculosis refers to:
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which of the following statements is true regarding management of pain in patients with a history of substance abuse? a. folic acid and thiamine administration may potentiate the action of pain medications. b. patients may have a higher than normal dosage threshold to achieve therapeutic effects. c. pain medications should be withheld to avoid addiction to the medications. d. withdrawal symptoms from drugs or alcohol do not occur if the patient is mechanically ventilated.
Abuse of illegal substances like cocaine, heroin, methamphetamine, or marijuana is referred to as substance abuse, which is a recognized medical brain problem.
What exactly qualifies as drug abuse? Unlawful drug use, excessive alcohol consumption, or the misuse of prescription, over-the-counter, or illicit drugs for reasons other than those for which they were intended.Addiction to drugs or alcohol can result in issues with relationships, health, emotions, and employment.Alcohol and drug use disorders are the two primary subtypes of substance use disorders.While some people are dependent on only one of the drugs, others abuse both.Addiction to substances, which includes drugs, is a general word.Utilizing a substance excessively can alter brain chemistry and result in addiction.Abuse of illegal substances like cocaine, heroin, methamphetamine, or marijuana is referred to as substance abuse, which is a recognized medical brain problem.To learn more about substance abuse refer
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Patients may have a higher than normal dosage threshold to achieve therapeutic effects. Patients with a history of substance abuse may have a higher than normal dosage threshold to achieve therapeutic effects from medications used to control pain.
What is therapeutic effects?Therapeutic effects refer to the positive changes that occur as a result of a therapeutic intervention. This could include an improvement in physical, psychological, or social well-being, as well as a decrease in symptoms associated with a particular condition. Therapeutic effects are often the target of medical treatments, psychotherapies, and other forms of therapy.
Folic acid and thiamine administration may potentiate the action of pain medications, but should not be withheld due to a history of substance abuse. Additionally, withdrawal symptoms from drugs or alcohol may still occur in a patient who is mechanically ventilated.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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a physical therapist assistant is treating a patient in an inpatient rehabilitation setting who is complaining of constipation. the patient has been diagnosed with a neurological condition. which condition is least likely to cause constipation?
The condition most likely to cause constipation is diabetic enteropathy.
Diabetes can cause a person to experience constipation. In general, constipation is a common complaint for diabetics.
This condition can cause persistently high blood sugar levels, which can cause nerve damage which can lead to constipation.
Controlling blood sugar can prevent nerve damage in the intestine. Many healthy options doctors recommend for helping with diabetes will also relieve constipation.
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the nurse is being trained in hospice care. which is the most compatible with the goals surrounding end of life care?
The intervention by the nurse which most compatible with the goals surrounding end of life care should be
Permit the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream. Diabetes melitus paients are avoid advised not to include sweet dishes in their diet, as it may worsen their health even more.
But if the client is on the death wish fulfilling his wish by granting him something he likes, is a way of comforting them towards their painful suffering, nurse should allow that without any second thought.
There nothing to hold within, as the patient is dying and what he wishes for a treat before he dies so that he can die peacefully and happy.
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a primipara is being evaluated in the clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. which occurrence indicates an abnormal physical finding that necessitates further testing?
A primipara is being evaluated in the clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. fetal HR of 180 BPM occurrence indicates an abnormal physical finding that necessitates further testing.
When does 2nd trimester start in pregnancy?Pregnancy is broken down into trimesters, with the first trimester lasting from week one to week twelve. The second trimester lasts from week 13 to week 26's conclusion. From week 27 to the conclusion of the pregnancy is the third trimester. For most women, the second trimester is the most physically satisfying.The first 12 weeks are the fetus's most sensitive time. All of the body's major organs and systems are developing at this time, and exposure to drugs, infectious diseases, radiation, some medications, tobacco, or hazardous materials can cause harm to the developing foetus.bleeding from the cervix or uterine pain. When using a Doppler, there is no heartbeat. When a CTG (Cardiotocography) machine is used on the mother, there is no sign of a foetal heartbeat. An ultrasound scan reveals no heartbeat.To learn more about 2nd trimester refer to:
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you are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (xanax) for his anxiety. what would anxiety be considered?
Anxiety is a mental health disorder characterized by feelings of worry, nervousness, or fear that are strong enough to interfere with daily activities.
It is a normal and often healthy emotion, but it can become overwhelming in some individuals. In this case, alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication that is commonly prescribed to help reduce symptoms of anxiety.
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication in the class of drugs known as benzodiazepines, which are commonly prescribed to help reduce symptoms of anxiety.
Benzodiazepines like alprazolam (Xanax) are often prescribed for short-term use as they can be addictive and can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and impairment of cognitive function. They may be used to reduce symptoms of anxiety in patients who have not responded to other treatments, or as a short-term solution to manage severe or debilitating symptoms of anxiety while the patient receives therapy or counseling to address the underlying causes of the anxiety.
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the nurse is told in a report that the client has hypocalcemia. which signs would the nurse expect to note during the data collection? select all that apply
The client has hypocalcemia, the nurse is informed in a report. Tetany, diarrhoea, and a positive urine test are indicators that the nurse should look for when collecting data. Symbol of Trousseau
What is hypocalcemia?Having insufficient vitamin D might result in hypocalcemia. The four tiny parathyroid glands in the neck, the kidneys, or the pancreas may also be implicated in its occurrence.Most instances have no symptoms. Muscle cramps, disorientation, and tingling in the fingers and lips are signs of severe instances.Calcium and vitamin D pills are part of the treatment. Treatment will also be required if an underlying condition exists. The most frequent causes of low serum calcium levels are PTH or vitamin D problems. Other conditions that lower the level of blood ionized calcium by calcium binding in the vascular space or calcium deposition in tissues, as might happen with hyperphosphatemia, are among the causes of hypocalcemia.
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a young man goes to his physician complaining of large, raised, suppurative abscesses on his neck. the man denies having a fever or the chills. what is the name of the lesions on his neck, and what organism causes this type of lesions?
The name of the lesion on his neck that had a suppurative abscess was lymphadenitis. Whether the organism causing the lesion is a bacteria, virus, or fungus.
What is a suppurative abscess?The suppurative abscess is a term that indicates that there is inflammation due to a bacterial infection that causes pus (suppuration). If the abscess is located in the neck it is probably lymphadenitis.
Lymphadenitis is an infection of the lymph nodes characterized by painful swelling of the glands. Infected lymph nodes are usually a secondary infection caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi elsewhere in the body. Streptococcal and staphylococcal bacteria are the most common causes of lymphadenitis.
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the parent of a toddler and a 4-week-old infant tells the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner that the toddler has just been diagnosed with pertussis. what should the nurse practitioner do to prevent disease transmission to the infant? group of answer choices administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant.
The nurse practitioner should advise the parent to separate the toddler and infant, if possible, and to keep them in separate rooms, to minimize the risk of transmission of pertussis to the infant.
What should the nurse practitioner do to stop the newborn from contracting the disease?The nurse practitioner should also advise the parent to thoroughly wash her hands after contact with either child, to avoid spreading any possible infection. Additionally, the nurse practitioner should administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant, as this will help to prevent the infant from developing pertussis if exposed. The nurse practitioner should also ensure that the infant completes the entire series of recommended immunizations, as this will provide further protection from the disease.Finally, the nurse practitioner should counsel the parent on the best ways to care for the infant if he or she is exposed to pertussis, including the importance of monitoring for any signs or symptoms of infection, and the importance of seeking medical attention if any such signs or symptoms are observed.administer the preventive antibiotic erythromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic azithromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic clarithromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic rifampin to the infant.To learn more about prevent disease transmission refer to:
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The nurse practitioner should advise the parent to separate the toddler and infant, if possible, and to keep them in separate rooms, to minimize the risk of transmission of pertussis to the infant.
What should the nurse practitioner do to stop the newborn from contracting the disease?The nurse practitioner should also advise the parent to thoroughly wash her hands after contact with either child, to avoid spreading any possible infection.
Additionally, the nurse practitioner should administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant, as this will help to prevent the infant from developing pertussis if exposed. The nurse practitioner should also ensure that the infant completes the entire series of recommended immunizations, as this will provide further protection from the disease.
Finally, the nurse practitioner should counsel the parent on the best ways to care for the infant if he or she is exposed to pertussis, including the importance of monitoring for any signs or symptoms of infection, and the importance of seeking medical attention if any such signs or symptoms are observed. administer the preventive antibiotic erythromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic azithromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic clarithromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic revamping to the infant.
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while treating a patient with a high fever and cough, you accidentally expose yourself to the illness. what should you do?
You unintentionally expose yourself to the illness when treating a patient who has a high fever and cough. "Report it to the infection control officer," is what you should do. Thus, the correct answer is C.
Reporting it to the infection control officer is the correct action because it ensures that proper protocols and procedures are followed to prevent the further spread of the illness. The infection control officer will assess the risk of contamination and determine the appropriate measures to take, such as isolation and testing for the patient and monitoring for any symptoms in the healthcare worker. Additionally, reporting the exposure allows for proper documentation and tracking of any potential outbreaks within the healthcare facility. Ignoring or failing to report the exposure puts both the healthcare worker and other patients at risk.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Ignore it. The risk of contamination is small.B. Report it to the hospital staff so they can isolate the patient.C. Report it to the infection control officer.D. Do not report it but perform self-monitoring to be sure you are not infected.The correct answer is C.
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which communication by the nurse will help the bereaved caregiver of a terminally ill patient gather information about the diagnosis, medical care, and treatment options? select all that apply
Nurse can help bereaved caregivers information about their loved ones: "Looks like you need one more explanation. Let me explain it another way." "I understand you want to make sure all the information is correct." "If you have any questions, feel free to contact us and we will do our best to answer them."
What are the four stages of grief?Sustained, traumatic grief can cause us to progress (sometimes rapidly) through stages of grief. Denial, anger, haggling, depression, acceptance. These stages are an attempt to protect ourselves as we process change and adapt to new realities.
What is caregiver Grief?A caregiver may be prone to her two types of grief: The expected grief during your loved one's illness and the grief after his death. Many caregivers experience "anticipatory grief" when observing the physical, psychological, and cognitive decline that occurs as the disease progresses.
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the monitor shows that the patient is in ventricular tachycardia. the patient is awake and talkative. treatment of the dysrhythmia is dependent on: a. presence or absence of a pulse and blood pressure. b. 12-lead ecg diagnosis. c. physician order. d. availability of an automated external defibrillator.
Ventricular tachycardia is a heart rhythm problem (arrhythmia) caused by irregular electrical signals in the lower chambers of the heart (ventricles).
What is ventricular tachycardia?At rest, a healthy heart normally beats 60 to 100 times per minute. The heart beats more quickly in ventricular tachycardia, typically 100 or more beats per minute or more.
Sometimes a fast heartbeat makes it difficult for the heart chambers to receive enough blood. The heart might not be able to pump enough blood to the body as a result. If this occurs, you can have shortness of breath, dizziness, or even lose consciousness.
However, prolonged bouts (also known as sustained V-tach) can be fatal. Ventricular tachycardia can occasionally cause the heart to cease beating (sudden cardiac arrest).A shock to the heart, medicine, or both may be used to treat ventricular tachycardia.
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the nurse is teaching a patient about finateride therapy. which time perisod will the drug take to achieve its full effect?
The nurse is teaching a patient about finateride therapy and at least 3 months time period will the drug take to achieve its full effect.
Finasteride is a hair loss therapy which you must continually take if you wish to stop hair loss from happening again. It is not a permanent solution. DHT may contribute to prostate enlargement. Additionally, it may prevent hair growth. Finasteride prevents the production of DHT, which aids in prostate reduction and hair loss reduction.
Since hair loss and growth occur gradually over time, it could take at least 3 months if you're taking finasteride drug to treat male pattern hair loss before you notice any change. Nevertheless, you should anticipate progress over the initial 12 months of your therapy.
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physicians require many sources of patient information to determine a diagnosis. what data do physicians consider when making a diagnosis (please check all that apply):
The clinical history of a patient comprises information about the current issue, previous medical histories, family histories, social histories, and other pertinent details, such as present medications (both prescription and over-the-counter), and dietary supplements.
What is meant by clinical history? A file containing details on a person's health. In a personal medical history, details concerning ailments, operations, vaccines, and the outcomes of physical examinations and tests may be included. Information on medications taken as well as health practises like diet and exercise may also be included.A medical history typically entails questions about a patient's past medical conditions, previous surgeries, family medical history, social history, allergies, and drugs they are currently taking or may have recently stopped taking.To learn more about clinical history refer:https://brainly.com/question/1184239
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