modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.

Answers

Answer 1

Modern conservation science increasingly aims at preserving biodiversity and ecosystem functioning by utilizing interdisciplinary approaches that integrate ecology, genetics, and social sciences.

This approach recognizes the interconnectedness of species and ecosystems and the critical role of human communities in conservation efforts. In addition, modern conservation science emphasizes the importance of understanding and mitigating the impact of climate change on natural systems. To achieve conservation goals, scientists work closely with local communities, policymakers, and stakeholders to develop effective conservation strategies that consider both environmental and social factors. Ultimately, the goal of modern conservation science is to protect the natural world for future generations and ensure the sustainability of our planet's ecosystems.

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Related Questions

administrative agency investigative powers typically include the power to issue a ____ , an order to appear at a particular time and place and provide testimony, and a ____ , an order to appear and bring specified documents.

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Administrative agency investigative powers typically include the power to issue a subpoena ad testificandum, an order to appear at a particular time and place and provide testimony, and a subpoena duces tecum, an order to appear and bring specified documents.

What is the Subpoena

A subpoena ad testificandum is an order issued by an administrative agency that requires a person to appear before the agency and provide testimony.

This type of subpoena is used when the agency needs to gather information or evidence related to an investigation or proceeding.

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Physical security, economic security, freedom from threats, including security?

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Physical security refers to the measures put in place to protect individuals, facilities, and resources from physical harm.

This includes implementing security systems such as cameras, locks, and alarms to prevent unauthorized access to restricted areas. Economic security, on the other hand, refers to the stability and sustainability of an individual or society's financial well-being. This can be achieved through economic policies that promote growth and job creation. Freedom from threats is a fundamental human right that ensures individuals are protected from harm and danger. Threats to individuals can come in many forms such as physical violence, cyber attacks, or terrorism. In order to maintain security, it is important to have measures in place that can detect and respond to these threats. Overall, security is a multifaceted concept that includes physical, economic, and social components. Achieving security requires a holistic approach that addresses the different aspects of security and ensures the safety and well-being of individuals and communities.

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which situation would be covered by the ""full faith and credit"" clause of the u.s. constitution?

Answers

Answer:

Uphold legal agreements in marriage

Explanation:

The "full faith and credit" clause of the U.S. Constitution requires each state to recognize the official acts, records, and judicial proceedings of all other states. This means that if a legal decision or agreement is made in one state, other states must recognize and uphold that decision or agreement. Examples of situations that would be covered by the "full faith and credit" clause include the recognition of a marriage or divorce that occurred in another state, the enforcement of a child custody order issued by a court in another state, and the recognition of a driver's license issued by another state. Unfortunately, this excludes targeted individuals and sovereign gnome hunters such as my (6'7) self.

in chevron v. natural resources defense council , the court ruled that the epa _________.

Answers

In Chevron v. Natural Resources Defense Council, the court ruled that the EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) has the authority to interpret ambiguous provisions in the Clean Air Act, thereby establishing the Chevron deference principle.

This principle states that courts should defer to the reasonable interpretations of federal agencies when the statute's language is ambiguous.

In Chevron v. Natural Resources Defense Council, the court ruled that the EPA is entitled to deference in its interpretation of ambiguous statutes and regulations, as long as its interpretation is reasonable and consistent with the purpose of the law. This is known as the Chevron doctrine or Chevron deference.

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who became the first african american justice on the supreme court in the late 1960s?

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Thurgood Marshall became the first African American justice on the Supreme Court in the late 1960s.

He was nominated by President Lyndon B. Johnson in 1967 and served on the Court until 1991. Marshall was a prominent civil rights lawyer prior to his appointment, arguing landmark cases such as Brown v. Board of Education before the Supreme Court. During his tenure as a justice, Marshall was known for his liberal views and staunch defense of individual rights. He authored several notable opinions, including the majority opinion in the landmark case of Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, which upheld affirmative action in higher education. Marshall's appointment to the Court was seen as a significant milestone in the struggle for racial equality in the United States.

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the supreme court’s decision in ledbetter v. goodyear tire and rubber co. was significant because

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The Supreme Court's decision in Ledbetter v. Goodyear Tire and Rubber Co. was significant because it addressed the issue of the statute of limitations for pay discrimination claims under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

In the Ledbetter case, Lilly Ledbetter claimed that she had been paid less than her male colleagues at Goodyear Tire and Rubber Co. because of her gender. The Supreme Court's decision in the case was significant because it ruled that Title VII's statute of limitations for filing a pay discrimination claim began at the time the employer made the initial discriminatory pay decision, not each time a paycheck was received. This ruling effectively made it more difficult for employees to bring pay discrimination claims because they would have to file their claims within a short period of time after the initial discriminatory pay decision was made.

The Ledbetter decision led to the passage of the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act, which extended the time period for filing pay discrimination claims under Title VII.

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After suspects officially become defendants, they are brought before a lower-court judge for:
A) an arraignment
B) plea bargaining
C) an initial appearance
D) filing charges

Answers

After suspects officially become defendants, the next step in the criminal justice system is to bring them before a lower-court judge for an arraignment.(option.a)

An arraignment is a formal court hearing where the defendant is informed of the charges against them and enters a plea of guilty or not guilty.

This is a crucial step in the process, as it sets the tone for the remainder of the case and allows both the prosecution and defense to start preparing their arguments and evidence.

Additionally, it provides the defendant with an opportunity to hear the charges against them and to begin building their defense strategy. While plea bargaining and filing charges are important aspects of the criminal justice system, they do not occur during the arraignment hearing.

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Any party who does not receive what he or she considers a fair bargain can argue mistake.
a. True
b. False

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The answer is true. If one party feels like they did not receive a fair deal, they may argue that a mistake was made. This can occur in various situations, such as in a business contract or a real estate transaction.

Mistakes can be either unilateral or mutual, and they can be categorized as mistakes of fact or mistakes of law. In cases of unilateral mistake, only one party was mistaken, while in mutual mistake, both parties made an error. Mistakes of fact involve an incorrect understanding of a particular situation, while mistakes of law concern a misinterpretation of legal rules. Ultimately, the party that argues mistake must provide evidence to support their claim and show that the mistake was significant enough to warrant a new agreement.

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The textbook suggests that the best way to organize the narrative report is to write it ____________.

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The textbook suggests that the best way to organize a narrative report is to write it in chronological order. This means that the report should be written in the order that events occurred, beginning with the earliest event and ending with the most recent.

Writing a narrative report in chronological order helps to create a clear and logical sequence of events that the reader can easily follow. It also helps to ensure that all relevant information is included and presented in a way that is easy to understand.

Additionally, this format can be useful for legal or investigative purposes as it can provide a clear and comprehensive account of what happened. However, it is important to ensure that the report is organized in a way that makes sense for the specific situation, and that all necessary details are included.

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diversity jurisdiction must be shown to bring an appeal in a state's highest court.
T/F

Answers

True. In order to bring an appeal in a state's highest court, diversity jurisdiction must be shown if the case involves parties from different states or foreign countries.

This means that the parties in the case must be from different states or countries and the amount in controversy must exceed a certain threshold, which varies depending on the state. If diversity jurisdiction is not present, the case may not be heard in the state's highest court.

Diversity jurisdiction refers to the ability of federal courts to hear cases involving parties from different states or countries when the amount in controversy exceeds a certain threshold. It does not apply to bringing an appeal in a state's highest court, as that would typically fall under state jurisdiction.

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a promise of an act by one party in exchange for the promise of an act by another is an example of:

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A promise of an act by one party in exchange for the promise of an act by another is an example of a "bilateral contract."

In a bilateral contract, both parties involved make legally enforceable promises to perform specific actions. These contracts are commonly used in various transactions, such as sale agreements, service contracts, and employment agreements. The mutual promises create obligations for both parties, which can be enforced if one party fails to fulfill their part of the agreement. To form a valid bilateral contract, there must be an offer, acceptance, consideration, and the intention to create legal relations. The key feature that distinguishes bilateral contracts from other types is the reciprocal nature of the promises, as both parties have responsibilities and rights within the agreement.

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Which of the following would most likely NOT be considered a reportable injury according to OSHA?
A) Mike breaks his arm while playing in a softball game during a mandatory company picnic.
B) John sprains his ankle after becoming tangled in his car's seat belt in the company parking lot.
C) Leah breaks her wrist after slipping in a puddle on a stairwell inside the company building.
D) Tom injures his back during a traffic accident as he delivers lumber in a company truck.

Answers

B) John spraining his ankle

why did the san francisco's metro transit authority (mta) order uber to cease and desist?

Answers

San Francisco's Metro Transit Authority (MTA) ordered Uber to cease and desist due to the company's refusal to share data with the agency.

In 2014, the San Francisco MTA sent a letter to Uber ordering the company to cease and desist its operations in the city. The letter stated that Uber was in violation of local regulations, which required ride-sharing companies to provide data to the MTA regarding their operations. Specifically, the MTA was seeking information about the number of rides provided by Uber, as well as data on the company's drivers and vehicles.

Uber refused to comply with the MTA's request, arguing that it was not subject to the agency's regulations. However, the MTA continued to pursue the issue, and in 2015, the agency passed new regulations that required ride-sharing companies to provide data on their operations. Uber eventually agreed to share data with the MTA, and the agency lifted its cease and desist order.

The dispute between Uber and the MTA highlighted the challenges that arise when new technologies disrupt established industries and regulatory frameworks. In this case, the MTA was seeking to regulate Uber in the same way that it regulated traditional taxi companies, while Uber argued that its operations were fundamentally different and should be subject to different rules.

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among the reasons for a welfare state is a desire to alleviate income inequality and to:

Answers

Promote social welfare. A welfare state is a government system that provides for the basic needs of its citizens through various social programs and services.

One of the main reasons for the existence of a welfare state is to help reduce income inequality by providing financial assistance to those who are in need. This can include programs such as unemployment benefits, food assistance, and housing subsidies.

However, a welfare state also serves to promote social welfare by ensuring that citizens have access to basic necessities such as healthcare, education, and adequate housing.

By providing these essential services, a welfare state can help to create a more equal and just society where everyone has the opportunity to succeed regardless of their socioeconomic background. In addition, a welfare state can also help to reduce poverty, improve health outcomes, and promote overall well-being.

Overall, a welfare state is an important tool for promoting social justice and ensuring that all citizens have access to the resources they need to thrive.

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which of the following is not one of james q. wilson’s operating styles?a. watchman c. service b. legalistic d. aggressive

Answers

The option that is not one of James Q. Wilson's operating styles is (d) aggressive.

James Q. Wilson identified three operating styles of policing in his book "Varieties of Police Behavior: The Management of Law and Order in Eight Communities" - watchman, legalistic, and aggressive. The watchman style focuses on maintaining order and keeping peace, while the legalistic style emphasizes strict adherence to the law. The aggressive style involves a more proactive approach to policing. Wilson did not include the service style as one of his operating styles.
James Q. Wilson identified three main operating styles for police officers, which include (a) watchman, (b) legalistic, and (c) service styles. The aggressive style is not part of Wilson's classification.

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This chapter presented an overview of federal statutes that were designed to protect ________.
A
A. Individual rights
B. The right to privacy
C. The right of self-determination
D. ALL OF THESE ARE CORRECT

Answers

The answer to the question is D. ALL OF THESE ARE CORRECT.

What is the reason?

This chapter presented an overview of various federal statutes that were designed to protect individual rights, the right to privacy, and the right of self-determination.

These statutes include the Fourth Amendment, which protects against unreasonable searches and seizures; the Fifth Amendment, which protects against self-incrimination and double jeopardy; the Fourteenth Amendment, which protects against discrimination; and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which protects the privacy of medical information.

These statutes are all important in ensuring that individuals' rights and freedoms are protected, and that they have control over their own lives and personal information.

Hence, option d. is correct.

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the supreme court case franklin v. gwinnett county public schools was important because it:

Answers

The Franklin v. Gwinnett County Public Schools case was important because it established the right of students to receive monetary damages for violations of Title IX, a federal law that prohibits discrimination based on se-x in education programs and activities that receive federal funding.

In this case, a high school student named Christine Franklin sued her school district for not responding adequately to her allegations of se-xual harassment by a teacher. The Supreme Court ruled that students have the right to recover damages for violations of Title IX, including monetary compensation for the harm caused by the school's failure to address the harassment.

This decision was significant because it clarified the legal remedies available to students who experience se-xual harassment or discrimination in schools. It also emphasized the importance of schools taking proactive steps to prevent and respond to harassment, as failing to do so can result in financial consequences for the school district.

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T./F. Goods associated with real estate never fall within the scope of UCC Article 2.

Answers

The statement is true. Goods associated with real estate, such as land, buildings, and fixtures, are generally considered to be part of real property and therefore fall outside the scope of UCC Article 2.

This article governs transactions involving the sale of goods, which are typically tangible, movable items such as clothing, electronics, or vehicles. However, certain items that are attached to real property, such as heating and cooling systems, may be considered goods for the purposes of Article 2. It's important to note that the UCC only applies to transactions involving goods, and other legal principles and regulations may govern transactions involving real estate.

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Paul sued Dan and won a $90,000 judgment against him. Paul has identified property belonging to Dan that would be used to satisfy the judgment. The order the court will give to the sheriff instructing him or her to seize and sell Dan's property is a writ of ________________.
A. Attachment
B. Garnishment
C. Execution
D. Expropriation

Answers

The order the court will give to the sheriff instructing him or her to seize and sell Dan's property is a writ of execution.

In this scenario, Paul sued Dan and was successful in obtaining a judgment of $90,000 against him. Now, Paul wants to enforce the judgment and collect the owed amount. To do so, the court will issue a writ of execution, which is a legal order that authorizes the sheriff or another designated officer to seize and sell Dan's property. The purpose of the writ of execution is to satisfy the judgment by utilizing the proceeds from the sale of the property. This allows Paul to recover the amount owed to him by Dan. The writ of execution grants the sheriff the authority to take possession of the identified property and sell it to generate funds to satisfy the judgment. By executing the writ, Paul can enforce the court's decision and collect the awarded amount from Dan's property. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Execution.

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in eli lilly's office of alliance management, the alliance champion is primarily responsible for

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In Eli Lilly's Office of Alliance Management, the alliance champion is primarily responsible for overseeing the success of a partnership between two companies.

They are the main point of contact between the partnering companies and work to ensure that both parties are meeting their goals and objectives. The alliance champion acts as a liaison between the two companies, facilitating communication and resolving any conflicts that may arise. They also monitor the progress of the alliance and make recommendations for adjustments or changes to ensure its success. The alliance champion must have excellent communication, negotiation, and project management skills to effectively manage the alliance. They must also have a deep understanding of both companies' goals, strategies, and cultures to create a strong and effective partnership.

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(p. 43) about how many arrests are made in the u.s. each year for drug-law violations?

Answers

According to data from the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), there were approximately 1.6 million drug-related arrests made in the United States in 2018.

Of these arrests, more than 86% were for possession of a controlled substance, while the remaining arrests were for drug trafficking and manufacturing. The majority of these arrests were for marijuana, followed by cocaine and heroin. The number of drug-related arrests has been steadily increasing over the years, despite efforts to address drug addiction and drug-related crimes through various policies and initiatives. However, some argue that the focus should be on treatment and rehabilitation rather than punishment, as addiction is often a root cause of drug-related offenses.

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This case allowed searches, also known as "pat-downs," during field interrogations.
a. Chimel v. California
b. Terry v. Ohio
c. United States v. Matlock
d. Abel v. United States

Answers

The case that allowed searches, also known as "pat-downs," during field interrogations is Terry v. Ohio. Therefore Option B.Terry v. Ohio   would be the correct answer.

This landmark case established the concept of "stop and frisk," which allows police officers to stop and briefly detain individuals if they have reasonable suspicion that the person is involved in criminal activity. During this brief detention, officers may pat down the outer clothing of the individual for weapons if they have reason to believe the person may be armed and dangerous. The decision in Terry v. Ohio recognized the need for police officers to take proactive measures to prevent crime, while also balancing individual rights to privacy and protection from unreasonable search and seizure under the Fourth Amendment.

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a witness testifying in a court or legislature may never be sued for defamation.
T/F

Answers

True, a witness testifying in a court or legislature may never be sued for defamation. This is because witnesses have testimonial immunity, which protects them from defamation lawsuits while providing testimony.


This statement is generally true. Witnesses who testify in court or before a legislature are generally protected by a privilege from being sued for defamation for statements they make while testifying. This privilege is based on the idea that it is important to encourage witnesses to speak candidly and freely without fear of being sued for their statements. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, such as if the witness acted with malice or made statements outside the scope of their testimony.

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who has the most discretionary power to dismiss or reduce charges prior to the trial?

Answers

The prosecutor has the most discretionary power to dismiss or reduce charges prior to trial. This power comes from their role as the legal representative of the state or government in criminal cases.

The prosecutor are responsible for deciding which charges to bring against a defendant, as well as whether to dismiss or reduce charges based on various factors such as the strength of the evidence, the defendant's criminal history, and the interests of justice. While judges also have some discretionary power to dismiss charges, this is typically limited to cases where there is a legal defect or procedural issue with the charges, rather than a decision based on the facts or evidence of the case.

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briana, an employee of cotillion bank, is charged with embezzlement, which requires

Answers

Briana, as an employee of Cotillion Bank, is charged with embezzlement.

Embezzlement refers to the illegal act of taking money or property that belongs to someone else but has been entrusted to the embezzler. In this case, Briana is accused of taking funds that belonged to Cotillion Bank. The consequences of embezzlement can be severe, including criminal charges, fines, and imprisonment. It can also lead to the loss of a person's job and reputation. Embezzlement is a serious crime, and employers must take steps to prevent it, such as regularly auditing financial transactions and implementing strict policies and procedures for handling funds. It is essential to ensure that employees are trained on proper financial procedures and understand the consequences of violating them.

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the only function of a will is to dispose of a person's property upon death.
T/F

Answers

The statement is true. A will is a legal document that outlines how a person's assets will be distributed after their death.

Its main purpose is to ensure that the deceased's wishes regarding their property are carried out according to their preferences and instructions. However, a will can also serve other functions such as appointing guardians for minor children, setting up trusts, and naming an executor to manage the estate. Nonetheless, the primary purpose of a will is to dispose of a person's property upon death. It is important to have a will in place to ensure that your assets are distributed according to your wishes and to avoid any disputes or legal challenges from your heirs.

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a decision issued by a grand jury authorizing the prosecutor to arraign the defendant is called the

Answers

A decision issued by a grand jury authorizing the prosecutor to arraign the defendant is called the "indictment." An indictment indicates that the grand jury found enough evidence to proceed with a criminal trial.

An indictment is a formal accusation or charge made against an individual suspected of committing a crime. It is based on the evidence presented by the prosecutor to the grand jury, which determines whether there is enough evidence to proceed with a trial. If the grand jury finds sufficient evidence, they issue an indictment, which allows the prosecutor to arraign the defendant and proceed with the legal process.

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who initiated a series of resolves in virginia in protest of the stamp act?

Answers

Patrick Henry, a Vir-ginia lawyer and politician, initiated a series of resolves in Vir-ginia in protest of the Stamp Act. In May 1765, Henry introduced his famous "Vi-rginia Resolves" to the Vir-ginia House of Burgesses, which were a set of resolutions denouncing the Stamp Act and declaring that only the Vir-ginia General Assembly had the right to tax Vi-rginians.

Henry's Vi-rginia Resolves were highly influential in the growing movement against the Stamp Act throughout the American colonies. The resolves argued that Vir-ginians, as British subjects, were entitled to the same rights and liberties as those in Britain, including the right to be taxed only by their own representatives. The resolves also declared that the colonists' only allegiance was to the British Crown, not to Parliament, and that any attempt by Parliament to tax the colonies without their consent was a violation of their rights.

Henry's Vir-ginia Resolves were met with both support and opposition, but they helped to galvanize resistance to the Stamp Act and contributed to the eventual repeal of the law in 1766. Henry's leadership in opposing the Stamp Act and advocating for colonial rights would make him a key figure in the American Revolution.

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perjury is:select one:a.a false statement during a deposition.b.a false statement during negotiations.c.a false statement made to the physician during a patient office visit.d.a false statement made to your attorney.

Answers

Perjury is (a) a false statement during a deposition. Perjury refers to knowingly and willfully providing false information while under oath, typically in a legal setting such as a deposition, trial, or other official proceedings.

Perjury refers to a false statement made under oath in a legal proceeding. This can include lying during a deposition or trial testimony, or submitting false information in a written legal document such as an affidavit or sworn statement. It is a serious crime that can result in fines, imprisonment, and other legal consequences.

Perjury involves deliberately making false statements or concealing important information with the intention of misleading a court or legal proceeding. It can also refer to tampering with evidence, such as altering or destroying documents, or encouraging others to lie or withhold information. Perjury can undermine the integrity of the legal system and prevent justice from being served, which is why it is taken very seriously and can carry severe penalties.

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only personal property, not real property or persons, can be the subject of a bailment. True/False

Answers

False. Not only personal property, but also real property and even living beings can be the subject of a bailment.

A bailment is a legal relationship in which one person (the bailor) delivers property to another person (the bailee) for a specific purpose, with the understanding that the property will be returned or disposed of according to the bailor's instructions. While personal property is often the subject of a bailment, it is not the only type of property that can be involved.

Real property, such as land and buildings, can also be the subject of a bailment, such as when someone delivers a key to a building to a security guard for safekeeping. Similarly, living beings, such as animals, can be the subject of a bailment, such as when a veterinarian takes custody of an animal for medical treatment. In all cases, the bailor retains legal ownership of the property or living being, and the bailee has a duty to use reasonable care to safeguard it and return it or dispose of it as instructed.

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