motor control is initiated by lower motor neurons and transmitted to upper motor neurons by interneurons situated within the cns.

Answers

Answer 1

Lower motor neurons start the motor control process, which is then passed to upper motor neurons by interneurons located inside the central nervous system (CNS). Skeletal muscle fibers are in direct communication with upper motor neurons, which cause them to contract.

What is CNS and PNS?

The central nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord (CNS). It is one of the two elements of the nervous system. The second part is the peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves connecting the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body.

The peripheral nervous system is one of the two components that make up the nervous system in bilateral animals; the other component is the central nervous system. Outside of the brain and spinal cord, the PNS is composed of nerves and ganglia.

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Related Questions

I need help with the last question what is the niche or role of this other group of organisms .

Answers

A niche is a position or location that is highly suitable for someone or something, often because it is very specialized and unique from others. A position or interest that enables someone or something to thrive in a certain context is sometimes referred to as a niche.

What is the role of niche?

The term "niche" in ecology refers to the function an organism performs within a community. A species' niche is defined by the physical, environmental, and interactions with other species' needs (such as temperature or terrain) (like predation or competition).

Each creature has a specific function within its habitat. The part a species fills in the environment is known as a niche. An organism "makes a livelihood" in other terms by finding a niche. The part played by the organism in the exchange of energy throughout the environment will be a niche.

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Purpose: Why is proper pipetting important in a microbiology lab? 2. What are the three different types of pipettes that are commonly used in lab 3. List 4 safety features that you will need to follow when using pipette?

Answers

Proper Pipetting is an inevitable part of experiments or research conducted under microbiology, biochemistry, and pharmacology-like fields of biology.

Different pipettes are available for various purposes with differing levels of accuracy which are Transfer Pipette, Graduated Pipette, and Single-Channel Pipette.

The equipment is designed to transport a measured volume of liquid with utmost precision. Different pipettes are available for various purposes with differing levels of accuracy. Pipette is a laboratory equipment commonly used in research or lab purposes in various fields of science. Transfer Pipette is considered one of the most basic types of pipette. This is a disposable pipette generally made of plastic generally used for rough measurements. This cannot be used for precise measurements. Graduated pipettes are classified under micropipettes. This is mainly made of long glass tubes. This contains a series of graduations to indicate different calibrated measurements. For measurements using graduated pipettes, we use additional equipment like rubber bulbs at the top of the equipment. This is a non-disposable type instrument that operates by piston-driven air displacement. Single-Channel Pipettes are of the adjustable type that delivers a measured volume of liquid. Also, these pipettes require disposable plastic tips. Many follow mouth piping instead of using rubber bulbs. This must not be appreciated. You should use new rubber bulbs or plastic suction livers for sucking the liquid into the pipette. Overfilling of pipettes using misuse of rubber bulbs may lead to undesirable effects. A lack of attention may lead to the overfilling of the pipette and overflow of the solution. The application of overpressure on pipettes or lack of attention may result in the breakage of glass pipettes and this may cause injuries to your body parts if you're handling it carelessly. Sequential calibration is essential while using an air-displacement pipette.

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Part 1 The Power of Exponential Growth A scientist places one bacterium in a Petri dish at 9.00 am: The bacteria can reproduce at a rate that doubles its population every minute. At 9.00 there is one, at 9.01 there are two, at 9.03 there are four; etc. The scientist observes that the whole Petri dish is completely full at 10.00 am_ 9.00 am Bacteria 9.01 am 2 Bacteria 9.02 am 4 Bacteria 777 10.00 am Full Quarter Full Half Full When (at what time) was the dish half_ full? What time was it a quarter full? Type your answers here in RED. 2. If they keep growing; how many dishes full of bacteria would you have at 10.022

Answers

There is 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria at 10.22, If they keep growing.

Bacterial division, or binary fission, is the process by which a single bacterium divides into two daughter cells. This process occurs when the bacterium grows to a certain size and then replicates its DNA and divides into two separate cells. Binary fission can occur quite rapidly, allowing bacteria to multiply and spread quickly. Some bacteria are able to undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, while others may take several hours.

The dish was half full at 9:30 am and a quarter full at 9:15 am.

At 10:22, if the bacteria continue to grow at the same rate, you would have approximately 2^22 = 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria.

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Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by
O having fur.
O the young developing in a pouch.
O laying eggs.
O having a placenta.
O longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas. o

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Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by: having fur, having placenta, longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas.

A grouping of mammals could be made based on placentation. A single maternal layer (endometrium), an exterior embryonic layer (chorion), and an inner embryonic layer make up the placenta that surrounds the foetus.

The inner embryonic layer of eutherian mammals is an allantoic membrane, while that of metatherian mammals is a vitelline membrane.

Those mammals that don't have a placenta are known as prototherian mammals.

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a scientist designs an experiment to test the effect of fertilizer on the height of sugar cane. two fields are fertilized and two other fields are not. what is the control group in this experiment?

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An experiment is created by a scientist to determine how fertiliser affects sugar cane height. Two fields receive fertilization, but the remaining two do not. Fertilizer Application serves as the experiment's control group.

Fertilizer Application is typically limited to irrigated plantations and varies by region and even by farmer. Fertilizers will work best if used between 12 and 24 months before and after the peak growing season. One year after planting, farmers typically spray 50 kg of urea and 50-100 kg of DAP per acre. Since Casuarina manufactures its own nitrogen with the aid of the bacterium Frankia, it does not require a significant amount of nitrogen fertiliser. In order to prevent this, it is advised to apply 11 kg of urea and 94 kg of superphosphate at moderate level.

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an excitatory neurotransmitter, it causes a pleasant mood, increased attentiveness in the brain, and also causes blood vessel vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure.

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An excitatory neurotransmitter, it causes a pleasant mood, increased attentiveness in the brain, and also causes blood vessel vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure Norepinephrine.

What is neurotransmitter and its function?

Neurotransmitters, a class of chemical transmitters, are important for bodily function. These carry chemical "messages" from one neuron (nerve cell) to the following target cell. Any gland, muscle, or other nerve cell could be the next target cell.

What are the 7 main neurotransmitters?

Fortunately, the majority of the work is done by the seven "small molecule" neurotransmitters acetylcholine, dopamine, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), glutamate, histamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin.

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Which graph shows the effect of temperature
on the activity of a human
digestive enzyme?

Answers

Graph B as shown in figure shows the effect of temperature on the activity of a human digestive enzyme.  

In general, a reaction is sped up by increasing temperature and slowed down by decreasing temperature. But extremely high temperatures can denature an enzyme, causing it to lose its form and cease functioning.

Higher temperature typically results in more molecular collisions, which accelerates the rate of a reaction. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction can be increased by increasing the likelihood of a substrate colliding with the enzyme's active site.

An enzyme's internal energy rises in direct proportion to its temperature. The protein may get denatured as a result of this.

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What is the primary gases in our atmosphere

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Answer:nitrogen (N2) and about 21% oxygen (O2). Argon, carbon dioxide (CO2

Explanation:

kate has gone on a long hike and forgotten to bring water. she becomes dehydrated and her blood volume drops. which of the following will occur in her body to maintain homeostasis? a.) diuretics cause her body to reabsorb less sodium and dilute her urine. b.) the release of renin is triggered, which concentrates her urine and causes an increase of resorbed water. c.) adh levels decrease in an attempt to reabsorb more water and increase blood volume and blood pressure. d.) aldosterone levels decrease, causing a decrease in sodium reabsorption and more diluted urine.

Answers

kate has gone on a long hike and forgotten to bring water. she becomes dehydrated and her blood volume drops. which of the following will occur in her body to maintain homeostasis

b)The release of renin is triggered , which concentrates her urine and causes an increase of resorbed water

Any self-regulating process called homeostasis helps biological systems to maintain stability while responding to environmental factors that are best for survival. If homeostasis is achieved, life goes on; if it is not, tragedy or death result. The stability obtained is actually a dynamic equilibrium, where conditions are largely uniform yet change is constant.

Any system that is in dynamic equilibrium will eventually establish a stable balance that is resistant to external pressures of change. When such a system is upset, built-in regulatory mechanisms react to the deviations to restore equilibrium; this is an example of feedback control. Examples of homeostatic regulation include all integration and coordination processes, whether they are carried out by electrical circuits, nervous systems, or hormonal systems.

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which choice best describes the kind of information genes contain according to mendel's predictions? responses mutated mutated irregular irregular hereditary hereditary consistent

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Genes best describe the kind of information genes contain according to Mendel's predictions.

What instrument is utilised in Mendelian genetics to forecast outcomes?

The percentages of phenotypes in a cross's progeny from known genotypes can be predicted using a Punnett square. Based on the other genotypes involved in the cross, a missing genotype can be identified using a Punnett square.

What is Mendel's heredity theory?

He concluded that genes are inherited from each parent as separate, paired units. Mendel observed how parental genes separated and if they showed up as dominant or recessive qualities in the children. He was aware of the mathematical patterns passed down from one generation to the following.

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Answer: pretty sure it's mutated

Explanation:

what is the difference between the vegetations that form on heart valves in rheumatic heart disease and in infective endocarditis?

Answers

Infective endocarditis has traditionally been linked to rheumatic heart disease as a risk factor. Despite the fact that patients with acute rheumatic fever (ARF) frequently have valvulitis, the established valve dysfunction following the initial episode of ARF is typically regarded as a risk factor for IE.

Rheumatic heart disease, which commonly affects the mitral valve, is a complication of rheumatic fever and is characterized by deforming valvular fibrosis. In contrast, infectious endocarditis results in vegetations comprised of thrombotic debris and microorganisms that are frequently connected to the deterioration of underlying heart tissues. Either the mural endocardium or the cardiac valves are affected. The primary difference between the two diseases is that rheumatic heart disease develops with an autoimmune component, as opposed to infectious endocarditis, which only results from infectious pathogens.

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how does the intestinal mucosa prevent the development of food allergies mounted against innocuous food antigens? group of answer choices it has several tolerogenic (aka immunosuppressive) mechanisms that inhibit immune activation to non-infectious material there are no adaptive immune cells (t or b cells) in the intestine no antibodies can cross the intestinal epithelium to initiate complement signaling all food antigens are broken down into individual atoms before reaching the intestine

Answers

There are no adaptive immune cells (t or b cells) in the intestine .

In general, the epithelial cells transport antibodies, particularly IgA, into the intestinal lumen and these specialized antibodies helps to contribute and act as a  barrier by excluding the uptake of antigens or microbes.

So, in order to prevent a food allergy reaction it is required to completely avoid the food and any product that may contain any such ingredient. Intolerant Food never trigger the immune system and also not considered life threatening, although it may cause similar symptoms like diarrhea and stomach pain.

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Gene probes locate specific DNA sequences by Binding with the complementary sequence in a genome. b. Turning off genes in specialized cells. Creating cloned genes. Electrophoresis. All answers are correct:

Answers

A.binding with the genome's corresponding sequence.

How are specific DNA sequences located using gene probes?

The cDNA will be labeled and can then be utilized as a hybridization probes to search for the corresponding sequences if radioactive bases is added to a reaction mixture.

What purposes serve gene probes?

Microorganisms can be quickly and precisely identified using gene probes.We'll talk about phylogenetic identification and in-situ detection of uncultured bacteria.

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which piece of evidence supports the argument that land plants evolved due to presence of microbes?(1 point)

Answers

Land plants have chloroplasts, which are like those in cyanobacteria and enable them to do photosynthesis.

The purpose of evolution?

According to the theory of evolution, sophisticated organisms evolved from simpler ones. The subject of evolution has been approached from a variety of angles. The presence of structures shared by both species serves as a resounding indication of a connection between them.

what connection exists between microorganisms and plants?

Because land plants' chloroplasts, which enable them to perform photosynthesis, have a structure resembling that of cyanobacteria, this is evidence that suggests that land plants developed as a result of the presence of microorganisms.

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In a graded potential, what is the effect of cytoplasmic resistance and current leak?

a) More K+ is able to enter the cell, off-setting the depolarizing effects of Na+.

b) The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over distance.

c) Fewer Na+ can cross the membrane in response to the stimulus.

d) The outer membrane surface becomes more positively charged, causing hyperpolarization.

Answers

(b)The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over a distance

Depolarizing current from an action potential travels very rapidly through the cytoplasm of axons, insulated by myelin until reaching the next node of Ranvier. At each node, the membrane depolarizes above the threshold voltage, and the influx of sodium ions again initiates the action potential through Nav

And those generated by stimuli and sensory receptors are also called receptor potentials. A graded potential like this one, that moves the membrane potential to a less negative number, or closer to zero, is called a depolarization, because now the membrane is less polarised. It has less charge separation.

That is, neurons have a resting membrane potential (or simply, resting potential) of about −30 mV start text, m, V, end text to −90 mV start function, m, V, end text. Because there is a potential difference across the cell membrane, the membrane is said to be polarised.

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hemoglobin is a complex protein that contains four polypeptide chains. the normal hemoglobin found in adults, called adult hemoglobin, consists of two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains, which are encoded by different loci. sickle‑cell hemoglobin, which causes sickle‑cell anemia, arises from a single mutation in the beta chain of adult hemoglobin. adult hemoglobin and sickle‑cell hemoglobin differ in a single amino acid. the sixth amino acid from one end in adult hemoglobin is glutamic acid, whereas sickle‑cell hemoglobin has valine at this position.

Answers

GAA and GAG are both potential codons that may be used for the production of glutamic acid.

Codons that encode valine may be produced by making a single-base replacement in the second position of any one of these codons:

GAA————> GUA (Val) (Val)

GAG————> GUG (Val) (Val)

Both of these swaps are considered transversions. However, the sickle-cell phenotype is caused by a mutation in the GUG codon, which is found in the gene that codes for the beta chain of hemoglobin. The wild-type codon, GAG, may be found in this gene.

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put the steps of sexual development in order as they occur in a normal xy male.

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Sexual development steps sequentially as it occurs in a normal XY male:

SRY is expressed and induces SOX9SOX9 is expressed and induces the development of testesTestes secrete testosteroneTestosterone binds the androgen receptor (AR) in presumptive genital cells.The AR-testosterone complex translocates to the nucleus.The AR-testosterone complex binds DNA sequences, and target genes are expressed.External genitalia are masculinized

In the 4-5 week embryo, the coelamic epithelial projections form the gonadal ridges. Week 6 occurs the migration of primordial germ cells to the gonadal mountains which form the gonads. The gonads are in an independent stage and have multiple potentials (bipotential), meaning they can form testes or ovaries.

The development of the gonads differs depending on the direction or constitution of the sex chromosomes. The 46XY embryo contains TDF (Tests Determining Factor), which is the product of a gene found on the short arm of the Y chromosome. TDF contains the SRY (Sex Determining Region on the Y chromosome) gene, which plays a role in determining gonadal development (TDF = SRY).

46 XY embryo contains TDF, gonadal epithelium develops into Sertoli cells or sustentacular cells, Leydig cells/interstitial cells (stroma), and seminiferous tubules (medulla). The 46 XX gene SRY embryo is missing, so the gonads develop into ovaries.

Testicular development (7 weeks) and testicular structure (8 weeks). 9 weeks, the Leydig cells differentiate into testosterone (peak at 15-18 weeks). Sertoli cells contain proteins: AMH/MIF/MIS which function to suppress the development of the muller ducts (so that the fallopian tubes, uterus, and the upper 2/3 of the vagina are not formed).

Complete the question and see the picture.

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1. If a plant homozygous for tall is crossed with one homozygous for dwarf, what will be the appearance of the F1; of the F2; of the offspring of a cross of F1 with its tall parent; with its dwarf parent?
2 Let the allele for tall be represented by T, and the allele for dwarfness by t. What will be the​

Answers

Answer:

The condition given is that a plant (Homozygous tall) is crossed with a plant (Homozygous dwarf), then the appearance of the plats or saplings at the F₁ generation would be all tall plants.

The plants are homozygous tall, so their alleles will be the same. Consider a plant with tallness TT and a plant with dwarfness tt.

All the F₁ generation plants have a dominant "T". Therefore, all the saplings will be tall.

CONCLUSION - ALL THE SAPLINGS WILL BE TALL.

CONCEPTS USED:

Homozygoes - Homozygous in biology means that both alleles are identical. For example, if it is said that a fruit is homozygous sweet, it has identical sweet traits.

Heterozygous - Heterozygous in biology means that both alleles are not identical, but they are contrasting. For example, if a fruit is heterozygous sweet, it has a allele for sweetness and a allele for other flavours.

Explanation:

the digestive function of the liver is to ________.

Answers

The liver's digestive job is to create bile, and the digestive system is responsible for processing the nutrients taken in from the small intestine.

What serves the body's digestive system?

Food must be digested in order to be broken down into nutrients that the body may use for energy, development, and cell repair. Prior to being absorbed by the blood and transported to the cells throughout the body, nutrients from food and drink must be broken down into smaller molecules.

What is the name for digestion?

Depending on how foodstuff is broken down, digestion, a type of catabolism, is sometimes divided into two processes: mechanical digestion and chemical digestion. The actual breakdown of large amounts of food down smaller fragments that may then be accessed is referred to as mechanical digestion.

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Arranged the following terms in the correct order from smallest level to largest level.
elephant,earth,skin,serengeti grassland,mitochondria,elephants,zebras,giraffes,herd of elephants, skin cell

Answers

The terms in the correct order from the smallest level to largest level are mitochondria >> skin cell >> skin >> elephant, zebras, giraffes >> herd of elephants>> Serengeti grassland >> Earth.

What are the biological organization levels?

The biological organization levels make reference to all strictures in which life is organized, which in this case starts with mitochondria (a cell organelle), then the cell, organisms, populations, biome, and finally the earth.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the biological organization levels depend on the organization of life in different structures that can be classified according to their sizes.

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. compare the control of gene regulation in eukaryotes and bacteria at the level of initiation of transcription. how do the regulatory mechanisms work? what are the similarities and differences in these two types of organisms in terms of the specific components of the regulatory mechanisms?

Answers

Recognition of the promoter can be affected by activators and repressors.The (omega) component of a RNA polymerase holoenzyme recognizes the promoter in bacteria.

Similarities: Cis-acting elements and trans-acting factors must interact for transcription to begin. Upstream of a transcribed gene are components called promoters that are necessary. Recognition of the promoter can be affected by activators and repressors. Although they have diverse structures, DNA loops have a role in the control of transcription initiation.

Differences: The (omega) component of a RNA polymerase holoenzyme recognizes the promoter in bacteria. The specificity of transcription is controlled by the recognition of various promoter sequences by various (omega) subunits. Additionally, RNAs (attenuators, riboswitches, and sRNAs) can either allow as well as repress initiation, making transcription adapt to environmental or cellular conditions. Repressor proteins that cause DNA conformational adjustments (repression loops) can prevent RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. In eukaryotes, the chromatin structure may have to be altered in order to change how accessible the promoter is to the transcriptional machinery. General transcription factors attract RNAP II to promoters. Additionally, enhancers and silencers are each bound by activators and repressors, respectively. Large DNA loops may be created, putting promoters & enhancers (or silencers) near to one another, according to one theory.

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During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? a) b) c) Lag phase Log Phase Death phase Stationary phase The culture is equally susceptible during all phases

Answers

The answer is c the minimum rate of doubling of the  generation time is however it take  long  for a cell to double or a bacterial of the  cell to double.

What is bacteria?

Bacteria is a very very tiny living things that can only be seen with microscope.

During which growth phase will grant positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin. This is kind of actually a trick question because the culture is equally susceptible to all phases because each individual cell is always susceptible to penicillin.

Okay next question. Which of the following is best if it is the best definition of generation time. The answer is c the minimum rate of doubling generation time is how long it takes for a cell to double or a bacterial cell to double.

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Examine the comparison between a eukaryotic cell and a prokaryotic cell. which two lettered choices provide a comparison of structures that encode genetic information for the cells?

Answers

The two lettered choices provide a comparison of structures that encode genetic information for the cells that are eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Prokaryotes are always unicellular while eukaryotes are often multicellular. Furthermore, eukaryotic cells are over 100-10,000 times larger than prokaryotic cells and much more complex. Eukaryotic DNA is stored in the cell nucleus, while prokaryotic DNA is stored in the cytoplasm.

Simple primitive cells are prokaryotes. They have no nucleus and no organelles surrounded by a plasma membrane. Three similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are that they are both vesicle vacuoles and capable of performing eight functions of life. Prokaryotes have no organelles. Cell walls are present in both.

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Which of the following would cause more rapid transcription?
Select one:
A. A gene with more promoters.
B. A tighter binding of the polymerase to the DNA.

Answers

Answer:

B. A tighter binding of the polymerase to the DNA.

Explanation:

The strength of the polymerase's binding to the DNA affects the rate at which it can move along the molecule. A tighter binding of the polymerase to the DNA allows transcription to occur more quickly, while a weaker binding may cause transcription to proceed more slowly.

Write a list of at least three reasons why plasmids and bacterial cells are helpful tool in genetic engineering.

Answers

Plasmids and bacterial cells are helpful tools in genetic engineering because they are easy to use, take less time to multiply, and, due to the small size of the plasmid, are highly used in genetic engineering.

What is the importance of genetic engineering?

Genetic engineering is extremely useful for a variety of processes, including the production of the desired proteins and gene products in less time with the help of bacteria and plasmids. It is helpful to make genetically modified plants that have more nutrients than the wild-type variety, etc.

Hence, they are helpful tools in genetic engineering because they are easy to use, take less time to multiply, and, due to the small size of the plasmid, are highly used.

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how is a gram-positive bacterial cell different from a gram-negative bacterial cell? what are the ramifications for drug design? g

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A lipopolysaccharide-containing outer membrane surrounds the peptidoglycan cell wall that encases gram-negative bacteria.

In contrast to Gram-negative bacteria, which have an outer membrane, gram-positive bacteria have layers of peptidoglycan that are many times thicker.

While Gram negative bacteria have an outer lipid membrane and a thin peptidoglycan layer, Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer.

Gram positive and Gram negative microorganisms can be broadly categorized. Cell walls of gram-positive bacteria are made up of several, thick layers of peptidoglycan. Gram positive cells tint purple when subjected to a Gram stain process. Gram negative bacteria have cell walls with a thin coating of peptidoglycan

The identification of screening hits, medicinal chemistry, and optimization of those hits to improve their affinity, selectivity (to reduce the possibility of side effects), efficacy/potency, metabolic stability (to increase the half-life), and oral bioavailability are all essential components of modern drug discovery.

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drag the appropriate trnas to the binding sites on the ribosome to show the configuration immediately before a new peptide bond forms. note that one of the binding sites should be left empty.

Answers

P (peptidyl), A (aminoacyl), and E (exit) sites are three locations on the ribosome where tRNA can bind. At the P site is a binding for the initiator methionyl tRNA. The next aminoacyl tRNA is paired with the second codon of the mRNA to bind to the A site, which is the first step in elongation.

Three RNA binding sites, A, P, and E, can be found on ribosomes. The A-site binds a free tRNA, the P-site a peptidyl-tRNA (a tRNA bound to the polypeptide chain), and the E-site (exit) binds an aminoacyl-tRNA or termination release factor.

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what increases the permeability of the glomerulus by making the capillaries leaky?

Answers

Fenestrations increases the permeability of the glomerulus by making the capillaries leaky.

The glomerular capillary endothelium's fenestrations make them leaky, which raises their permeability. This fenestrated endothelium is surrounded by podocytes and is situated close to the basement membrane. The fenestrations promote permeability by increasing water penetration. Therefore, response (b) is the right one.The glomerulus lacks microvilli. Option (a) is therefore untrue.Desmosomes are also absent from the glomerulus; instead, they are typically found in tissues with severe mechanical stress, such as heart muscle. Option (c) is therefore untrue.Tight connections increase cell adhesion and stop content leakage. So the structure does not cause increased permeability. Option (d) is therefore untrue.

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human papillomavirus can cause cervical cancer. the virus encodes e6, a protein that binds p53. based on this fact and what you know about p53, what effect do you think e6 binding has on p53 activity? a

Answers

E6 binding designates the degradation of p53 papillomavirus.  Other consequences for the cell cycle result from the lack of p53 activity. P53 with mutations may no longer be able to activate p21 synthesis. Without sufficient p21 levels, Cdk activation cannot be effectively blocked.

How is p53 impacted by HPV E6?

Background. Even when p53 is produced ectopically, E6 renders it incapable of acting as a tumor suppressor in HPV-infected cells. E6 might not only aid in the decomposition of p53 but also impede its transactivity, however the underlying mechanisms are currently unclear.

How can HPV produce p53-positive cervical cancer?

The cellular tumor-suppressor protein p53 is bound to by the E6 oncoprotein from tumor-associated human papillomaviruses (HPVs), which then causes its destruction.

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correctly label the following parts of the small intestine.

Answers

The different parts of small intestine include duodenum ,jejanum and ileum.

what are the different parts of small intestine?

A component of your digestive system is the small intestine. It is a component of the GI tract, the extensive route that food travels through your body. Food travels through the small intestine, also known as the small bowel, after leaving your stomach. The large bowel, commonly referred to as the colon or large intestine, is joined to the small bowel. The intestines are in charge of digesting food, assimilating nutrients, and solidifying waste. Most of your digestion occurs in the small intestine, which is the longest section of the GI tract.

The small intestine is divided into three sections: the beginning, the middle, and the end. Even though there isn't really a distinction between the pieces, they do have slightly varied traits and functions.

Duodenum

The stomach feeds into the duodenum, which is the first section of the small intestine. It's a small, downward chute (approximately 10 inches long) that forms a "C" shape with the pancreas before joining the remainder of the coiling intestines.

Jejunum

In the lower abdominal cavity, the small intestine that is still present is arranged in several coils. Less than half of this length is made up by the jejunum, which is its middle part. The jejunum has numerous blood vessels, which give it a deep red hue.

Ileum

The ileum is the small intestine's final and longest segment. Here, the blood flow is diminished and the walls of the small intestine start to weaken and constrict. The ileum is where food spends the longest time and where the majority of its nutrients and water are absorbed.

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a number that cannot be expressed as a ratio of integers. these numbers have digits that go on forever without repeating. fundamentally, cultivation theory suggests that heavy television exposure leads people to think the same way about things, also known as a(n) effect. additionally, individuals with similar real-world circumstances can have a particularly strong reaction to media content, which is known as . a true-false test contains 11 questions. in how many different ways can the 11-question test be answered? (give an exact answer.) some of the earliest true land plants lacked roots or a vascular system. the implication of this would be that they: the owner of a technology firm needs to hire a new site manager. she has narrowed the list of applicants down to two candidates. though neither applicant has worked for a technology firm before, each has experience and skills that could make them effective in the position. as the owner considers how each candidate might perform in various situations, she is performing at which level of bloom's taxonomy? group of answer choices remember FILL IN THE BLANK. in the last quarter of the nineteenth century,___emerged as the center of western artistic productivity. group of answer choices new york london montreal paris state farm has a commitment to service, which is one way of managing for Someone help me fast please! which of the following is not a genus within the hominoidea? a) pan (chimpanzees) b) gorilla (gorillas) c) hylobates (gibbons and siamangs) d) pongo (orangutans) e) papio (baboons) iven this series of address references given as word addresses: 5, 6, 14, 19, 24, 16, 67, 51, 22, 14, 6, 25, 7, 30, 9, and 14. assume a direct map cache with 16 one-word blocks that is initially empty, a. label each reference in the list as hit or miss? b. show the final contents of the cache? c. show the hits and misses and final cache contents for a fully associative cache with four-word blocks and a total size of 16 words using the series of references given. assume lru replacement. PLS HELP!The complications that create a story's rising action serve mainly what purpose?A. to hint at the resolution of the story's main conflict B. to introduce the reader to the characters and situation C. to confuse the reader about the nature of the main conflict D. to build suspense by putting off a resolution of the conflict When writing a summary of a text it is most important to?; Which two details are most important to include in a summary of the paragraph?; What is true about a summary?; Which idea gives the purpose of a summary? symbolism in the short story the chrysanthemums by john steinbeck Which of the following is not a reason a service firm would use a job order costing system?A.to help control costs.B.to determine client billingC.to determine department costs within the firmD. to determine profit. in a classicical conditioning experiment, you ring a bell but no longer provide dinner to your subject, a beagle. at last, the cs no longer invokes the cr. therefore you've accomplished behavioral? In 2014, the population of coyotes in a certain county was 611. By 2018 thepopulation had grown to 1,023. Assume the population is changing linearly. What isthe average population growth per year? Which phrase should Ronnie put in the blank to provide the best transition between his ideas1. It is believed that2. It is fortunate that3. I appreciate the idea that4. I have heard people say that assume the magnetic susceptibility data were measured for the iron (ii) compounds given below and that the data reveals only one of them is low-spin. which of the compounds will be low-spin? hint: consult your spectrochemical series. (nh4)2[fe(h2o)6](so4)2 na4[fe(co3)3] k4[fe(cn)6] k4[fecl6] k3[fe(oxalate)3] Which of these is a thesis statement?Choose one of the following.Because horror films are disturbing, children under the age of 15 should not be allowed to watch them.The most expensive horror movie ever made is Van Helsing; it cost $222 million dollars.Physical reactions to watching horror movies include sweaty palms, tense muscles, and an increased heart rate.A Terrible Night and A Nightmare are two of the first horror films, both filmed in black and white and released in 1896. President Trump appointed which of the following people, a close ally of the oil industry, to head the Environmental Protection Agency?a. Mike Penceb. Maxine Watersc. Scott Pruittd. Edward Snowden