Answer:
Hybrids.
Explanation:
During crossing over, part of one chromosome is exchanged with another. The result is a hybrid chromosome with a unique pattern of genetic material.
Which of these receptor types functions as an exteroceptor?Various general sensory receptors.CDEAll of the listed responses are correct.All of the listed responses are correct.(All of the structures illustrated are sensitive to stimuli arising outside the body.)
According to A, C, D, and E Exteroceptors react quickly to stimuli that come from the outer world.
What do the exteroceptors do?The sensations of stability (balance), hear, sight, smell, and taste are all provided by exteroceptors in in addition to data on pressure, warmth, and touch. Proprioceptors keep track of the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints. Proprioceptor and exteroceptor data are carried via somatic afferent fibers.
Exteroceptors are found where?Exteroceptors are located at or close to the skin's surface and are responsive to stimuli coming from the outside or the body's surface. These receptors have included for eyesight, hearing, smell, & taste along with those for touching, pain, and temperature.
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please match the element with the statement that most accurately describes it, to test your understanding of the origins, types, and functions of bioelements.
Bioelements are -Carbon :is a byproduct of respiration and is used in photosynthesis. -Potassium: is involved in the synthesis of proteins , Phosphorus: An essential part of a cell's genetic makeup.
Which of the following groups of creatures uses carbon from an organic source?Organic molecules, typically derived from other species, serve as carbon sources for heterotrophic organisms. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the only or primary source of carbon for autotrophic organisms. Numerous autotrophic bacteria use photosynthetic processes to obtain their carbon from atmospheric carbon dioxide.
What four types of organic carbon-based chemicals are essential to all living things?The four main categories of biological macromolecules—large molecules required for life that are constructed from smaller organic molecules—are proteins, polysaccharides, nucleic acids, and lipids.
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which of the following represents the correct order (from top to bottom) of the five sections of the vertebrae?
The correct order of five sections of vertebrae is cervical, thoracic, coccyx, sacrum, lumbar
The spine is made up of 33 bones, or vertebrae, that are split into five portions by the sacrum and coccyx, as well as the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine sections.
The cervical region of the spine consists of the atlas and axis, the top two vertebrae, also known as the joints that attach the cranium to the spine. The cervical region is in charge of the neck's movement and proper operation as well as the protection of the spinal cord, arteries, and nerves that connect the brain to the rest of the body.
The thoracic region of the spine is situated between the cervical and lumbar vertebrae at chest level. The rib cage is attached to the vertebrae in this area, which are designated T1 through T12.
The lumbar region is situated between the sacrum and the thoracic vertebrae. The primary weight-bearing portion of the spinal column is made up of the five lumbar vertebrae, which are numbered L1 to L5.
The part of the spine closest to the bottom is called the sacrum. Due to the fusion of its five levels, S1 to S5, it lacks discs that separate the vertebrae. At the sacrum portion, the pelvis and spinal column are joined.
The coccyx, which is made up of four fused vertebrae, is located at the very base of the spinal column.
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p53 is critical to preventing damage to a genome from being transmitted to next generation. To do this, p53 can control cell division cycle and help repair of DNA damage by controlling gene expression. At the same time, p53 plays central role in inducing cell death. What molecular feature of p53 function, and cellular regulation of p53 activity, enable these different p53 functions in cell division and cell death? (4 pts)
The molecular feature that allows p53 functions in both cell division and cell death is the ability to regulate the transcription of a battery of genes which includes more than 500 genes in the cell.
What is the p53 transcription factor protein?The p53 transcription factor is a tumor suppressor protein that is able to regulate the cell cycle by activating the expression of other proteins associated with the inhibition of this process.
Moreover, p53 is also able to act as an apoptotic protein by promoting the expression of genes associated with programmed cell death.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the p53 transcription factor protein is a dual-functional protein that is recognized as a tumor suppressor capable of inhibiting the progression through the cell cycle by activating specific genes and signaling cascades associated with these processes.
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TRUE/FALSE. the nucleolus the nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal rna. is surrounded by a thin nucleolar membrane. is found in prokaryotes. contains trna. is found in prokaryotes and contains trna and rrna.
the nuclear pore In the nucleolus, ribosomal RNA is produced. a thin nucleosomes membrane encircles it. is a property of prokaryotes. consists of trna. includes trna and rrna and is found in prokaryotes. It is accurate to say this.
Describe a membrane and provide an example.Membranes are a plural noun. (1) (biology) A light coat of tissue lining an , cavity, or other area. (2) A cell membrane (in biology). (3) A thin, flexible organ sheets of material that may let through compounds in solution.
What function does a membrane serve?The body of an implants are made up of the cell membrane, also suspected as the plasma membrane. Additionally, it maintains a constant atmosphere in inside cell, and that envelope serves a variety of purposes. One is to provide nutrients in into cell while removing toxic chemicals from it.
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For long-term potentiation to occur in the hippocampus, ________.
A) a presynaptic neuron must release more acetylcholine neurotransmitter into the synapse
B) NMDA receptors must be unblocked so that they can respond to glutamate
C) the postsynaptic cell responds to glutamate by opening AMPA receptors
D) the presynaptic cell must grow more axon terminals to synapse with the dendrites of the postsynaptic cell.
Would you explain the reasoning with the answer?
NMDA receptors must be unlocked in order for them to respond to glutamate for long-term potentiation to take place in the hippocampus.
Explain about the NMDA receptors?The L-glutamate receptor family, which includes the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors, is crucial for spatial memory and plays a significant role in learning and memory. Ion channels made up of a family of similar subunits make up these receptors, which are tetrameric.
Through cellularly independent mechanisms, NMDA Receptors control the growth of neuronal intrinsic excitability. For the development of neural circuits and behaviors, it is crucial for neuronal and synaptic processes to mature during early life.
Today, it is known that NMDA receptors play a key role in controlling the physiology of the brain's memory substrate. Briefly, long-term potentiation, an activity-dependent synaptic change, is induced by postsynaptic NMDA receptor activation in the majority of hippocampal pathways (FTP).
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which of the following is an antemortem extravascular blood discoloration? hematoma livor mortis postmortem stain coloricity
Antemortem discoloration that occurs during the course of certain diseases such as gangrene and jaundice. antemortem, pin point extravascular blood discoloration visible as a purplish hemorrhages of the skin. blood discolorations occuring after death outside the blood vascular system, ie; postmortem stain.
Discoloration before death occuring on the outside of the blood vascular system; ecchymosis, hematomea, petechia, Tardieu spots (are pinpoint hemorrhages seen in areas of advance livor mortis. The pinpoint are the capillaries rupturing leaving darks spots. Can not be removed by arterial injection)
Do not respond will to arterial treatment, often causing formaldehyde gray.
Treatments can involve arterial, surface and hypodermic.
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Trace the path of a ray emitted from the tip of the object toward the focal point of the mirror and then the reflected ray that results. Start by extending the existing ray emitted from the tip of the objects Then croato the reflected rayDraw the vector for the reflected ray starting from the point where the incident focal ray hits the mirror. The location and orientation of the vector will be graded. The length of the vector will not be graded An object is placed at the location shown in front of a convex spherical mirror. Use tay tracing to determine the location and size of the image in the mirror. As you work, keep in mind the following properties of principal rays:1. A ray parallel to the axis, alter reflection, passes through the focal point Fof a concave mirror or appears to come from the virtual) focal point of a convex mirror2. Aray through for proceeding toward) the focal point Fis reflected parallel to the axis3. A ray along the radius through or away from the conter of curvature C intersects the surface normally and is rotected back along its original path4. A ray to the vertex Vis reflected, forming equal angles with the optic axis No elements selected
the pictorial representation shows the path of the ray which is emitted from the tip of the object. image file attached
The focal point F of a concave mirror or the (virtual) focal point of a convex mirror is where a ray parallel to the axis appears to originate after reflection. A ray passing through (or moving in the direction of) the focal point Fis was reflected parallel to the axis. A normal surface intersection occurs when a ray travels along the radius through or away from the center of curvature C, and it is reflected back along its original path. In order to produce equal angles with the optic axis, a ray to the vertex V is reflected. trace the path of a beam that was emitted from the object's tip through its focal point. then make the reflected beam that results from the mirror, followed by it.
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please answer fast i’ll give brainliest!!!
Evolution considered a theory It is backed up by scientific evidence.
What is the definition of evolution?
Evolution is defined as the process of growth and development or the theory that organisms have grown and developed from past organisms. An example of evolution is how cell phones have changed over time.
Thus, the option "A" is correct.
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To make a buffer you will need to mix a solution of a weak base with a weak acid. We will be making a phosphate buffer by combining a phosphate base K2HPO4 (dibasic monohydrogen phosphate) with a phosphate acid KH2PO4 (monobasic dihydrogen phosphate). Equal amounts of each should provide a solution with a pH of 6.8.
Determine the mass of 1 mole of each of the phosphate salts
1 mole of K2HPO4
1 mole of KH2PO4
To make a 0.1 M solution of K2HPO4 how much salt should you add in a 100 ml solution?
To make a 0.1 M solution of KH2PO4 how much salt should you add in a 100 ml solution?
By the principle of Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:
Mass of 1 mole of each of the phosphate salts 1 mole of K₂HPO₄: 0.575 gm
Mass 0.1 M solution of KH₂PO₄ in a 100 ml solution: 0.912 gm
What is Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?In biological and chemical systems, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation defines the link between pH as a measure of acidity and the acid dissociation constant (pKa). The equation is particularly useful for calculating the pH of a buffer solution and determining the pH of equilibrium in acid-base processes.
Phosphoric acid pKa's are 2.3, 7.21 and 12.35.
Our required pH is 6.5, so 7.21 will be used.
Hence, mono-potassium dihydrogen phosphate (KH₂PO₄) and dipotassium mono-hydrogen phosphate (K₂HPO₄) will be used.
Handerson-Hasselbach equation:
pH = pKa + log ([A⁻]/[HA])
Therefore, A⁻ is K₂HPO₄ concentration, and for HA is KH₂PO₄ concentration:
or, 6.5 = 7.21 + log(A⁻/HA)
or, log(A⁻/HA)=-0.71
or, A⁻/HA = 0.49
We know that total salt concentration = 0.1 M
HA+A=0.1
A⁻/HA=0.49
So, HA+0.49 HA=0.1
[HA] = 0.1/1.49 = 0.067M
[A] = 0.1-0.067M = 0.033M
Therefore, the concentration of K₂HPO₄ = 0.033M
and the concentration of KH₂PO₄ = 0.067M
Since, we are preparing 100 ml or 0.1 L of the solution,
Thus, the weight of K₂HPO₄ = (0.033M x mol.weight)x 0.1 L
= (0.033M x 174.2 g/mol)x 0.1 L
= 0.575 g of K₂HPO₄ required for 0.1 L
Similarly, we can calculate for KH₂PO₄:
or, wieght of KH₂PO₄ = (0.067M x mol.weight)x 0.1L
= (0.067M x 136.086 g/mol)x 0.1L
= 0.912 g of KH₂PO₄ required for 0.1L buffer solution.
Therefore, we need to take 0.575 g of K₂HPO₄ + 0.912 g of KH₂PO₄ and dissolve them in 100 ml water to prepare 100mL of a 0.1M potassium phosphate buffer of pH 6.5.
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What is the correct order of mitosis?
There are five of these phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. As the final physical cell division after telophase, cytokinesis is frequently regarded as the sixth stage of mitosis.
Which sequence do the five stages of mitosis follow?Traditionally, mitosis is broken down into 5 phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis.
How do mitosis and meiosis work?The process of cell division that produces sperm and egg cells is known as meiosis. A crucial aspect of life is mitosis. A cell divides into two identical daughter cells after duplicating every component of it, including its chromosomes, during the mitotic process.
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It is not advised to introduce solid foods to an infant before 4 months of age because Multiple Choice 8 the young Infant's Gl tract is not mature enough to digest complex carbohydrates and proteins. the young Infant's kidney function is limited, the young infant is not able to sufficiently control his head and neck. All of these are reasons to delay the introduction of solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Prenatal dietary supplements containing iron may cause in some women. Multiple Choice 51:01 high blood sugar O brain fog gastrointestinal bleeding O constipation and nausea. For young children (ages 4 to 6), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends Multiple Choice 16 O limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day. limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid Ounces per day. consuming at least 8 fluid Ounces per day of fruit juice. limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid Ounces per day, Obesity during pregnancy is associated with BO Multiple Choice 00:50:29 O high blood pressure. O diabetes. O surgical complications. All of the choices.
All of these are reasons to wait to offer solid foods to a baby until they are between 4 and 6 months old, hence it is not recommended to do so before that age.
Some women may experience nausea and constipation from taking iron-rich prenatal nutritional supplements. The American Academy of Pediatrics advises between 112 and 212 litres per day for young children (ages 4 to 6), depending on age and gender. 100% fruit juices have been associated to obesity, fatty liver, and metabolic syndrome despite being widely believed to be a significant source of potassium and vitamin C for kids. Pregnancy obesity is linked to risks from surgery, diabetes, and high blood pressure.
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Classify the following characteristics of water-soluble hormones and lipid-soluble hormones in the appropriate category.
1. receptor located on plasma membrane
2. initiates pathways that involve second messengers
3. functions as transcriptional activator or inhibitor
4. can influence multiple genes in a cell
receptor located in cytosol and nucleus
The water-soluble hormone has characteristics: receptor located on the plasma membrane and initiates pathways that involve second messengers. While lipid- soluble hormones have characteristics are: function as transcriptional activators or inhibitors and can influence multiple genes in a cell receptor located in the cytosol and nucleus.
Hormones that are water-soluble are amines and proteins that actively flow through the cell membrane. The target cell membrane's extracellular surface is where the receptors for each type of water-soluble hormone are expressed.
Lipid-derived (soluble) hormones can enter the cell by passing through the plasma membrane, binding to DNA, and changing the activities of the cell by encouraging the creation of proteins that have an overall impact on the cell's long-term structure and function.
Lipid-soluble hormones enter the target cell and diffuse through the plasma membrane where they bind to a receptor protein. Water-soluble hormones attach to a protein receptor on the cell's plasma membrane.
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Which of the following are processes that change the allele frequencies of a gene in a population? There are 5 correct answers. Natural selection Sexual selection Mutation Gene flow Inbreeding Sexual reproduction Genetic drift
The factors that alter the allele frequencies of a gene in a population are natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow.
What is natural selection?
The method through which populations of living things adapt and transform is called natural selection. The fact that each person in a population is unique in certain aspects is referred to as natural variation. Because of this difference, some people have characteristics that are more environment-appropriate than others. A person is more likely to survive and reproduce if they possess adaptive traits, or traits that give them an advantage. The adaptive features are then transmitted to the progeny by these people. These helpful qualities spread across the population over time. Positive qualities are passed down across generations through this process of natural selection.
It is possible for natural selection to result in speciation, in which one species gives rise to a brand-new, distinctly unique species.
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adverse reactions to high osmolarity water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include___
Adverse reactions to high osmolarity water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild reactions, include mild effects like Headache, nausea, vomiting, and arm pain.
When you are dehydrated, osmolarity rises; when your blood is overhydrated, osmolality falls. Your body has a special system in place to regulate osmolality. Osmolality rises, causing your body to produce more antidiuretic hormone (ADH). referred to as arginine vasopressin at times (AVP). This hormone tells your blood vessels to store more water, which causes your urine to become thicker. Less ADH is produced by your body as osmolality rises. You experience some concentration loss in your urine and blood. With the help of this test, you may find out your blood's osmolality, or concentration of dissolved particles. A fluid or electrolyte imbalance, including dehydration, can be found using this test. Mineral salts called electrolytes assist in moving waste from and into your cells. Another component that controls your pH and acidity levels is electrolytes. The particle concentration decreases with the dilution of your blood and urine. The concentration of particles increases as the blood's water content decreases.
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Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?
a. receiving electrons from the photosystem II electron transport chain
b. generation of molecular oxygen
c. extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water
d. passing electrons to the cytochrome complex
A
Photosystem I directly receives electrons from the photosystem II electron transport chain.
An important membrane protein complex called photosystem I uses light energy to catalyze the movement of electrons from plastocyanin to ferredoxin across the thylakoid membrane. The moderate-energy hydrogen carrier NADPH is ultimately created using photosystem I transfer electrons. Each photosystem is made up of two interconnected parts: the antenna complex, which is composed of a large number of pigment molecules and collects photons, and the reaction center, which is made up of Chlorophyll a molecules embedded in a protein matrix. Plastocyanin (a peripheral membrane protein) transports electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I, where the absorption of additional photons again generates high-energy electrons.
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The products of the Calvin cycle reactions are __________________.
Group of answer choices
G3P, CO2, and ATP
CO2, NADP+, and G3P
O2, NADPH, and ADP + Pi
G3P, NADP+, and ADP + Pi
O2, NADPH, and ATP
The products of the Calvin cycle reactions are sugar, O2, NADPH, and ADP + Pi, thereby the correct option is C.
What are the Calvin cycle reactions?The Calvin cycle reactions are a series of metabolic processes that occur in plants in absence of light which are fundamental to generating glucose or simple carbs (i.e. sugars) and thus obtaining chemical energy for the plant.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the Calvin cycle reactions generate sugar and or glucose in the plant and they are reactions that occur in the absence of sunlight.
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One of the major true concepts for life on earth is that “energy flows (changing forms) and matter cycles”. Using your knowledge of enzymatic reactions, the workings of photosynthesis, and cellular respiration, provide 3 very specific examples that prove this scientific truth. Be precise with giving me where, when, how, and what for each example.
Answer:
Here are three specific examples that demonstrate how "energy flows (changing forms) and matter cycles" in life on earth:
1. Enzymatic reactions: Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in cells. They allow chemical reactions to occur more quickly and efficiently by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to take place. During an enzymatic reaction, the reactant molecules (called substrates) bind to the enzyme, and the enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction that converts the substrates into different products. The energy required for the reaction is usually supplied by the breakdown of a molecule called ATP (adenosine triphosphate). This process releases energy that can be used to power other cellular processes.
2. Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants and some other organisms convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose (a sugar). During photosynthesis, plants absorb light energy and use it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose, releasing oxygen as a byproduct. The chemical energy stored in the glucose molecules can be used by the plant to power its growth and development, as well as to provide energy for other organisms that consume the plant.
3. Cellular respiration: Cellular respiration is the process by which cells convert chemical energy stored in organic molecules (such as glucose) into ATP, a molecule that can be used to power cellular processes. During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen, releasing energy that is used to synthesize ATP. The ATP can then be used to power various cellular processes, such as muscle contractions and the synthesis of new molecules.
In all of these examples, energy is flowing and changing forms as it is converted from one form to another. The matter (reactant molecules or glucose) is also cycling through the system, being converted into different products and then being used or recycled for other purposes.
The three examples are enzymatic reactions, photosynthesis as well as cellular respiration.
What is enzymatic reactions?Proteins called enzymes catalyze chemical reactions in cells. They make chemical reactions faster and more efficient by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to take place.
The energy needed for the reaction is typically provided by the breakdown of a molecule known as ATP (adenosine triphosphate). This process generates energy, which can then be used to fuel other cellular processes.
The process by which cells convert chemical energy stored in organic molecules (such as glucose) into ATP, a molecule that can be used to power cellular processes, is known as cellular respiration.
The process by which plants and some other organisms convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose is known as photosynthesis (a sugar).
Energy is flowing and changing forms in all of these examples as it is converted from one form to another.
Matter (reactant molecules or glucose) is also cycling through the system, being converted into various products before being used or recycled.
Thus, these are examples that prove this scientific truth.
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which of the following conclusions about increasing the number of folds in the inner mitochondrial membrane is best supported by the results of the experiment?
It boosts photosynthesis' effectiveness, which causes cells to develop more quickly.
Which of the following transport processes will be most directly impacted by a brief ATP shortage?Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that reaches a target cell by crossing the plasma membrane and traveling down a concentration gradient. It is a tiny, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecule.
Which of the following types of membrane transport has a direct relationship between the rate of transfer and the solute concentration?The movement of molecules in a solution from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is known as diffusion. The net rate of solute flux in this kind of transport is inversely proportional to the disparity in concentration between the two regions.
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Which of the following is not a form of derivative classification?
It is not derivative classification to copy or duplicate already-classified information, such as by photocopying a document.
What in the derivative categorization process is not a step?Every stage in derivative classification is listed here, WITH THE EXCEPTION of the initial judgement that information has to be protected from unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
What categories do derivatives fall under?
The term "derivative classification" refers to the process of integrating, paraphrasing, restating, or creating in new form already classified information and classifying the newly created material in accordance with the classification markings that apply to the source information.
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because eukaryotic genes contain introns, they cannot be translated by bacteria, which lack rna-splicing machinery. if you want to engineer a bacterium to produce a eukaryotic protein, you can synthesize a gene without introns. if you know the nucleotide sequence you can .
If we know the nucleotide sequence we can work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns.
What are Eukaryotic genes?
Eukaryotic genes are genes that are found in organisms with eukaryotic cells, such as plants, animals, fungi, and protists. They are composed of DNA which is wrapped around proteins called histones to form structures called chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes are typically larger and more complex than prokaryotic genes, and they often contain regions of non-coding DNA that are involved in the regulation of gene expression.
Define the term Introns?
Introns are non-coding regions of a gene that are removed from the pre-mRNA during the process of gene expression. They are also known as intervening sequences or intervening regions. Introns are typically found between exons, which are coding regions of a gene. They are removed from the pre-mRNA before it is translated into a protein. Introns are important for the regulation of gene expression and play a role in the evolution of genes.
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a new experimental pesticide is being tested by a large agricultural chemical company. an unfortunate side effect in plants treated with this new product is a decrease in nadph production in the chloroplasts due to an inhibition of the enzyme nadp reductase. the photosynthetic etc and the proton gradient are not affected. (interestingly, reduction of nad to nadh in the mitochondria is unaffected.) given this observation, what specific change(s), if any, would you expect to observe in the amounts of the following molecules in the chloroplasts of these plants:
Photosynthesis is the process that produces carbon sugars using the energy derived from light. One component of photosynthesis, the light dependent reactions, produces ATP and NADPH which is necessary for other reactions in photosynthesis.
An organic substance called adenosine triphosphate (ATP) gives energy to a multitude of biological functions in living cells, such as muscular contraction, nerve signal transmission, condensate dissolution, and chemical synthesis. ATP, which is sometimes referred to as the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer, is present in all known forms of life. It either transforms into adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or adenosine diphosphate (ADP) when absorbed via metabolic activities (AMP). There are several ways to recover ATP. The body of the typical person recycles as much ATP per day as they weigh. It also performs a number of other tasks as a coenzyme and precursor to DNA and RNA.
The complete question is:
A new experimental pesticide is being tested by a large agricultural chemical company. An unfortunate side effect in plants treated with this new product is a decrease in ATP production in the chloroplasts. (Interestingly, the production of ATP in the mitochondria is unaffected.) Given this observation, which of the following would be expected to be DIRECTLY affected by the new pesticide?
A. the transport of electrons along the photosynthetic electron transport chain
B. the oxidation of RuBP by rubisco
C. the carboxylation of RuBP by rubisco
D. the synthesis of triose phosphates from 3-phosphoglycerate
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which of the following best describes the function of the circulatory system
Cells receive oxygen and nutrients from the circulatory system, while waste is removed. Different sides of the heart pump blood that is oxygenated and blood that is not.
Which of the following best sums up the circulatory cardiovascular system's primary function?Blood arteries, the heart, and the cardiovascular system make up the body. Its main job is to transmit oxygen- and nutrient-rich blood to every area of the body and return deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
What are the four primary roles that the circulatory system plays?Circulation and blood's jobs: eliminates carbon dioxide while circulating oxygen. provides nutrients to the cells. removes the metabolic byproducts to be disposed of in the excretory organs. defends the body from infection and sickness.
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the rachis is group of answer choices a. harder in domesticated wheat, owing to artificial selection. b. the part of the wheat plant early farmers turned into flour. c. softer in domesticated wheat, allowing easier access to the seed. d. the soft coating surrounding fruit preferred by early farmers.
The correct answer to the question about Rachis is option A) harder in domesticated wheat, owing to artificial selection.
A rachis stalk, which is the foundational component of a grass flower, serves as the inflorescence of a wheat plant. Between two and nine distinct flowers' florets make up each spikelet. An essential axis, or "shaft," is a rachis. The primary axis of a complex structure in plants is known as a rachis. The main, flower-bearing section of an inflorescence above a supporting peduncle, as in Acacia or ferns, or the main stem of a compound leaf. These are referred to as rachillae where it splits out into other branches. When a ripe head of wild-type wheat is touched or blown by the wind, it easily breaks into dispersal units.
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the study of eukaryotic organisms that invade the body and cause disease is specifically referred to as ___
Parasitology is the scientific paper of eukaryotic organisms which infect humans and cause illness.
Eukaryotes come in four different categories: protists, fungus, animals, and plants. An creature called a eukaryote has cells with a more intricate internal structure. Eukaryotes, one of three kingdoms of life, make up all vast complex creatures. A cellular membranes, cell wall, mitochondria, or cytoskeleton may make up a eukaryotic cell.Parasitology is the scientific paper of eukaryotic organisms which infect humans and cause illness. The large collection of different microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, and eukarya, that make up the human GI tract is referred to as the "gut microbiota." Eukaryotes include protists, fungi, plants, and animals. Eukaryotes are all multicellular creatures. Eukaryotes can have just one cell.
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a hormone responds to food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release wuizlet
A hormone responds to the food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release a)bicarbonate. So, correct option is A.
The pancreas is an organ of the stomach related framework and endocrine arrangement of vertebrates. In people, it is situated in the midsection behind the stomach and works as an organ.
The stomach related proteins emitted by the pancreas into the small digestive tract require a marginally basic pH for ideal working.
These proteins are:
1. Proteases for protein breakdown.
2. Lipase for fat breakdown.
3. Amylase for starch breakdown.
Since the Chyme (the liquid containing somewhat processed food and gastric acids coming from the stomach to the small digestive system) is acidic, the arrival of bicarbonate and water by the pancreas kills this acidic chyme and make a marginally basic pH in which the pancreatic stomach related enzymes can work.
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
a hormone responds to the food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release?
a) bicarbonate.
b) acid.
c) bile.
d) mucus.
Nalidixic acid is an antibiotic that inhibits DNA synthesis by preventing the action of DNA gyrase. DNA gyrase introduces negative supercoils into DNA. Which statements explain why inhibiting negative supercoiling in bacteria inhibits overall bacterial growth?Negative supercoiling increases the size of the chromosome; making ' easier to replicate Negative supercoiling decreases chromosome compaction , which increases DNA synthesis bacteria Negative supercoiling results in the complete unwinding of DNA, allowing synthesis to occur Negative supercoiling necessary for the binding of DnaA to the origin of replication: Negative supercoiling aids in chromosome compaction, which ensures the transmission of chromosomes to daughter cells.
Oxolinic and nalidixic acids promote the development of a relaxation complex analog while inhibiting DNA gyrase activity. Sodium dodecyl sulfate treatment of the complex results in a double-strand break in the DNA substrate and the resultant linear molecule appears covalently attached to the protein.
Gyrase's ATPase activity is inhibited, which prevents DNA from forming negative supercoils and locks the chromosome in a positively supercoiled state that may have an effect on cell physiology and division later on.
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Which of the following mechanisms is not directly involved in inactivating an activated RTK?
A) digestion of the RTK in lysosomes
B) dephosphorylation by serine/threonine phosphatases
C) dephosphorylation by protein tyrosine phosphatases
D) removal of the RTK from the plas ma membrane by endocytosis
The mechanism that is not directly involved in inactivating an activated RTK is A) digestion of the RTK in lysosomes.
In the field of biology, receptor tyrosine kinase can be described as proteins present on cell membrane receptors that help in cell signaling.
In order to activate the RTK, phosphorylation of the RTK is done through phosphateses such as serine, threonine and tyrosine.
In order to inactivate the RTK, dephosphorylation is dine by the serine, threonine and tyrosine. Deactivation can also be done by removing thr RTK from the plasma memebrane through the process of endocytosis.
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In a tabular format list the classes of flatworms and their unique characteristics.
The classes of flatworms are:
Turbellaria, Trematoda Cestoda.The characteristics of Turbellaria are:
Turbellarians lack fluid transport systems, and are acoelomate. The gut in turbellarians has only a mouth opening. There is usually a pharynx for introducing food into the gut,The characteristics of Trematoda are:
Trematodes are are dorso-ventrally flattened and leaflike in shape.Their bodies are covered with tegument,They have one oral and one ventral.The characteristics of Cestoda are:
Cestodes are long, flat, ribbon-like organisms. Their head, or scolex, has one or more hooked for firm attachment to the host. The body consists of segments, each containing reproductive organs.What is flatworms?The flatworms, also known as Platyhelminthes, or platyhelminths are a class of unsegmented, soft-bodied, bilaterian invertebrates that are relatively basic. They are acoelomates, unlike other bilaterians, and lack specialized circulatory and respiratory organs.
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which of the following procedures could be used to verify that a new promoter has been cloned into the receving plasmid?
Successful cloning of student promoters can be verified by change of colony color, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or DNA sequencing.
A given DNA segment can be quickly multiplied (amplified) into millions or billions of copies using the polymerase chain reaction (abbreviated PCR), allowing for more in-depth analysis. In PCR, a section of the genome to be amplified is chosen using short synthetic DNA fragments called primers.
Multiple rounds of DNA synthesis are then used to amplify that segment. Finding the nucleic acid sequence, or the order of nucleotides in DNA, is the process of DNA sequencing.
The four bases—adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine—are arranged in this way using any technique or technology.
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