Potted green plant (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) air out air in 1 Sunlight //// Water Give four reasons why photosynthesis will occur in the set-up above. What is the role of sunlight in the process above? State four steps to test for the main product of photosynthesis. Name the by-product of photosynthesis and state how you would test for it. [2 marks] [2 marks] [4 marks] [2 marks]​

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Answer 1

1. Photosynthesis will occur in the set-up above because the potted green plant is able to receive sunlight and water, which are essential for the process. Furthermore, the plant is able to take in carbon dioxide from the air in the surroundings and release oxygen through the process of respiration. This means that the plant will have all the necessary ingredients to perform photosynthesis.
2. The role of sunlight in the process above is to provide the energy required to carry out photosynthesis. The energy from sunlight is absorbed by the chlorophyll present in the plant's leaves, which is then used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.
3. To test for the main product of photosynthesis, one can perform a simple experiment where a small piece of the plant's leaf is placed in a test tube containing ethanol. The test tube is then heated gently and the ethanol turns green, indicating the presence of chlorophyll. The ethanol is then decanted and a few drops of iodine solution are added. If the solution turns blue-black, it indicates the presence of starch, which is the main product of photosynthesis.
4. The by-product of photosynthesis is oxygen. To test for it, one can use a glowing splint or a lighter to test if the gas being released by the plant is flammable. If it is, it means that the gas is oxygen and photosynthesis is occurring. Another way to test for oxygen is to place a small water plant in a test tube and leave it in sunlight for a few hours. Small bubbles of oxygen will be seen to be formed on the leaves of the plant, indicating the presence of oxygen.

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Related Questions

why does species richness generally increase from the poles to the tropics? briefly describe two hypotheses

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Species richness generally increases from the poles to the tropics, which means that there are more different species in the tropics than in polar regions.

Species richness generally increases from the poles to the tropics, which means that there are more different species in the tropics than in polar regions. This pattern is known as the latitudinal diversity gradient, and it is one of the most striking and consistent patterns in ecology.
There are several hypotheses to explain why this pattern occurs, but two of the most prominent are the productivity hypothesis and the evolutionary rate hypothesis.
The productivity hypothesis suggests that the tropics have higher species richness because they have higher productivity, which means that they produce more biomass. This is due to factors such as higher temperatures, more consistent rainfall, and more sunlight, which allow for greater photosynthesis and more energy to be available for organisms. As a result, there is more food available, and more species can be supported.
The evolutionary rate hypothesis suggests that the tropics have higher species richness because they have higher rates of evolution. This is due to factors such as higher temperatures, higher levels of competition, and more stable environments, which all contribute to faster rates of speciation (the formation of new species) and slower rates of extinction. As a result, there are more opportunities for new species to arise and persist in the tropics.
Overall, both of these hypotheses suggest that the high species richness of the tropics is due to a combination of factors that allow for more species to exist and persist in these regions.

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the ornithine decarboxylase reaction has been studied extensively by biomedical researchers. the most likely reason for the interest of these researchers is that the reaction is: a.a good source of ornithine. b.an early event in cell division. c.unique to mammals. d.one in which a chiral reactant is converted to an achiral product.

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The ornithine decarboxylase reaction has been studied extensively by biomedical researchers. The most likely reason for the interest of these researchers is that the reaction is b. an early event in cell division.

The most likely reason for the interest of biomedical researchers in studying the ornithine decarboxylase reaction is that it is an early event in cell division. This reaction plays a crucial role in the synthesis of polyamines, which are essential for cell growth and proliferation. By understanding the regulation of this reaction, researchers hope to develop new therapies for diseases such as cancer that involve uncontrolled cell division. While ornithine is a product of the reaction, its role as a source of ornithine is not the primary reason for the interest in this reaction. The reaction is not unique to mammals, as it occurs in many other organisms. The conversion of a chiral reactant to an achiral product is not a significant factor in the interest of biomedical researchers in this reaction.

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the pancreas has pancreatic islets composed of primarily alpha and beta cells. alpha cells secrete

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Alpha cells in the pancreatic islets secrete the hormone glucagon. Glucagon plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels.

When blood glucose levels drop, such as during fasting or between meals, alpha cells are stimulated to release glucagon into the bloodstream.

Glucagon functions by triggering various physiological responses aimed at increasing blood glucose levels. It acts on liver cells, promoting glycogenolysis, the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose.

Glucagon also stimulates gluconeogenesis, the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.

By increasing blood glucose levels, glucagon acts in opposition to insulin, which is secreted by beta cells. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels, whereas glucagon works to raise them.

Together, insulin and glucagon maintain glucose homeostasis, ensuring the body's cells have a steady supply of energy.

Overall, the secretion of glucagon by alpha cells is a vital component of the intricate hormonal regulation system that helps maintain blood glucose balance in the body.

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Bacteria are generally haploid organisms that reproduce asexually. A strain of Heliobacter pylori (The haploid bacterium that often causes ulcers) is found to have low levels of genetic variation at a locus encoding membrane proteins. If we assume this variation is maintained by selection the most likely explanation from the list below would be:
a. directional selection
b/ frequency dependent selection
c. selection favoring heterozygotes
d. selection against heterozygotes

Answers

If the strain of Heliobacter pylori has low levels of genetic variation at a locus encoding membrane proteins and this variation is maintained by selection, the most likely explanation from the list provided would be b. frequency-dependent selection.

This means that the fitness of a particular genotype is dependent on its frequency within the population. If a particular genotype becomes too common, it may become less fit as it becomes more vulnerable to predation or disease. Conversely, if a particular genotype is rare, it may become more fit as it is less vulnerable to predation or disease.

In the case of the H. pylori strain with low levels of genetic variation at a locus encoding membrane proteins, it is possible that this variation is being maintained by frequency-dependent selection. This may occur if the strain is able to evade the host immune system by presenting a unique set of membrane proteins. If the strain were to become too common, it may become more susceptible to the host immune system, making it less fit overall. Therefore, frequency-dependent selection may be helping to maintain the low levels of genetic variation at this particular locus.

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what does it mean to say that a species has a wide niche breadth?

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When a species has a wide niche breadth, it means that it is able to use a variety of resources and habitats in its environment.

A species' niche refers to its role and position in its ecosystem, including the resources it uses and the environmental conditions it requires to survive and reproduce. Niche breadth refers to the range of resources and conditions a species can tolerate and utilize in its habitat. A species with a wide niche breadth can adapt to and thrive in a variety of different environments, and is not limited to a narrow range of resources or conditions.

In summary, a wide niche breadth indicates that a species is adaptable and versatile, able to use a variety of resources and habitats to survive. This can be an advantage in changing or unpredictable environments, as it allows the species to maintain its population even if some resources become scarce or conditions change.

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The picture shows the fossils of three species of mosasaur, large marine reptiles that are now extinct.



What do the similarities in these mosasaur fossils indicate?
A.
that these mosasaurs all expressed similar behaviors

B.
that these mosasaurs evolved from a common ancestor

C.
that these mosasaurs were all genetically identical

D.
that these mosasaurs lived in different environments

Answers

The picture shows the fossils of three species of mosasaur, large marine reptiles that are now extinct,  the similarities in these mosasaur fossils indicate that these mosasaurs evolved from a common ancestor.

What are mosasaur fossils?

Mosasaurs were huge animals, and they needed to eat in order to sustain their huge size, the remains of mosasaur stomachs which contain food like fish, sharks, cephalopods, birds, and even other mosasaurs.

In the case of the mosasaurs described above, the similarities in their fossils is a suggestion that they all evolved from a common ancestor that lived in the distant past.

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the type of shock that results from trauma in which there is blood loss is called:
a. distributive b. hypovolemic c. cardiogenic d. obstructive.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

The answer to this is hypovolemic

what are the two primary curvatures seen in the vertebral column of a fetus?

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The two primary curvatures seen in the vertebral column of a fetus are the thoracic and sacral curvatures.

The thoracic curvature is present in the upper part of the spine, while the sacral curvature is present in the lower part of the spine. These curvatures develop during fetal development and are important for maintaining balance and stability in the body. A excessive bend in the spine causes an unnatural rounding of the upper back, which is known as kyphosis. When there is a significant curve, the condition is also referred to as hunchback or roundback. Although it can happen at any age, kyphosis is frequently seen in adolescents. Kyphosis often poses few complications and does not need to be treated. On rare occasions, a patient may have to perform exercises or wear a back brace to strengthen their spine and improve their posture. But in extreme situations, kyphosis can be uncomfortable, result in considerable spinal deformity, and impair breathing. Surgery may be necessary for patients with severe kyphosis to assist lessen the excessive spinal curve and alleviate their symptoms.

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which of the following is most responsible for the production of the glomerular filtrate? a. diffusion b. active transport
c. glomerular capillary blood pressure
d. facilitated diffusion

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The process most responsible for the production of glomerular filtrate is c. glomerular capillary blood pressure. Glomerular filtration occurs in the kidneys within the renal corpuscle, which contains a network of capillaries called the glomerulus.

Blood pressure within these glomerular capillaries forces water, ions, and small molecules out of the blood and into the Bowman's capsule, forming the glomerular filtrate.

This process is not primarily driven by diffusion (a), active transport (b), or facilitated diffusion (d), as these mechanisms focus on the movement of specific molecules across a membrane. Instead, glomerular capillary blood pressure allows for the bulk flow of fluid and small solutes across the capillary walls, acting as a passive, non-selective filtration process.

This initial filtration step is crucial for the kidneys to maintain proper blood composition, regulate electrolyte balance, and remove waste products from the body. Hence, c is the correct option.

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amy prefers recognition tests to recall tests. which type of test would amy like the best?

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Amy would prefer recognition tests over recall tests since recognition tests require individuals to identify previously learned information from a list of options, while recall tests require individuals to retrieve information from memory without any prompts.

Recognition tests provide cues or options to choose from, which can aid in the retrieval of information and reduce the demands on memory. For example, multiple-choice questions are a form of recognition test. In contrast, recall tests require individuals to generate an answer without any prompts or cues, which can be more difficult and requires more effortful retrieval from memory. Examples of recall tests include fill-in-the-blank questions or essay questions.

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Which of the following statements about the absorption of photons by pigment molecules is true? A) Photons raise electrons in pigments to the ground state. B) Excitation of the electrons is a very stable state. C) The release of energy by the excited electron can be as heat, light, or fluorescence. D) It takes several minutes for the pigment electrons to become excited.

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The release of energy by the excited electron can appear as heat, light, or fluorescence, which is the true statement regarding the absorption of photons by pigment molecules. Here option C is the correct answer.

The absorption of photons by pigment molecules is a fundamental process in photosynthesis, vision, and other biological processes. When a pigment molecule absorbs a photon, it excites an electron from its ground state to a higher energy level. This process is known as photoexcitation and leads to a temporarily unstable state of the pigment molecule. Therefore, statement A is false.

Excitation of the electrons is not very stable, and the excited electrons quickly return to their ground state, releasing the absorbed energy. The release of power by the excited electron can occur in various forms such as heat, fluorescence, or light emission. The type of energy release depends on the specific properties of the pigment molecule and the surrounding environment. Therefore, statement B is also false, and statement C is true.

The time required for the pigment electrons to become excited is concise, typically on the order of femtoseconds ([tex]10^{-15[/tex] seconds) or picoseconds ([tex]10^{-12[/tex] seconds). Therefore, statement D is false.

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blood cell formation is completed by red bone marrow and is a function of the skeletal system. T/F

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True, blood cell formation, also known as hematopoiesis, is completed by red bone marrow and is a function of the skeletal system

Blood cell formation, also known as hematopoiesis, is indeed completed by red bone marrow. However, it is not a function of the skeletal system. Rather, it is a function of the circulatory system.

The circulatory system includes the bone marrow, but it also includes other organs such as the spleen and liver, which also play a role in blood cell formation.

Therefore, the correct statement would be: Blood cell formation is completed by red bone marrow, but it is not a function of the skeletal system.

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thinking about photosynthesis - what is a benefit to humans that might come from biomass absorption of carbon dioxide that wouldn't come from factories liquifying and storing it? select all that apply.

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Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria use sunlight to synthesize food with the help of carbon dioxide, water, and other nutrients. One of the benefits of photosynthesis is that it helps to absorb and store carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change.

Biomass absorption of carbon dioxide has several benefits to humans that cannot be achieved by factories liquifying and storing it. Some of these benefits include:
1. Renewable energy: Biomass, which refers to organic matter such as wood, crop residue, and animal waste, can be used as a source of renewable energy. When biomass is burned, it releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. However, if new biomass is grown to replace the burned biomass, the net carbon dioxide emissions are zero, making it a carbon-neutral energy source. 2. Carbon sequestration: When biomass is grown, it absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and stores it in its tissues. This process, known as carbon sequestration, can help to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and mitigate the effects of climate change.

3. Improved air quality: Burning fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas releases pollutants into the air, contributing to poor air quality and respiratory problems. Using biomass as a source of energy can help to reduce the amount of fossil fuels burned, improving air quality and human health. 4. Sustainable agriculture: Biomass can be used as a fertilizer or soil amendment, improving soil health and reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers that can contribute to water pollution and other environmental problems.



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scientific knowledge is durable, but it is also open to change. an example is the way in which organisms are classified. at one time, the kingdom was the highest level of classification. today, the highest level of classification is the domain. one domain used in classification is eukarya. why would scientist feel the need to add another level of classification within eukarya? responses

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To improve precision and reflect our expanding understanding of evolutionary links, scientists may feel the need to introduce another level of classification within the domain of Eukarya.

Protists, fungi, plants, and animals are all included in the domain Eukarya of creatures. The discovery of diverse lineages and relationships within Eukarya is a result of new insights into the genetic, biochemical, and structural properties of organisms that emerge as the study advances. Supergroups or subdomains are examples of additional categorization levels that can be added, giving researchers a more sophisticated framework for classifying and analyzing these creatures. This makes it possible for a more accurate picture of their evolutionary history and connections, allowing researchers to draw useful conclusions and forecast the future.

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abiotic components of an ecosystem include a. only animal life b. only plant life c. living components only d. nonliving components only e. both living and nonliving components

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The abiotic components of an ecosystem include:

D. Nonliving components only

Abiotic components are the nonliving factors that influence and shape an ecosystem. These can include temperature, sunlight, water, air, soil, and minerals. They play a crucial role in the functioning and dynamics of the ecosystem.  

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the _______________ perspective uses the human body as an analogy for how society operates.

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The functionalist perspective uses the human body as an analogy for how society operates. To give a long answer, functionalists view society as a complex system made up of interdependent parts that work together to maintain stability and order.

They see society as being similar to the human body in that just as the organs and systems in the body work together to keep the body functioning properly, the different institutions and social structures in society work together to maintain social equilibrium. For example, functionalists believe that institutions like the family, education system, and government all have specific functions and roles that contribute to the overall health and stability of society.

They argue that if any of these institutions were to fail or malfunction, it would have a negative impact on society as a whole, much like a malfunctioning organ can harm the body. In essence, functionalists see society as a living organism that is constantly adapting and evolving to maintain balance and order.

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why is it harder to generate a second action potential during the relative refractory period

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The relative refractory period occurs immediately after the absolute refractory period in the process of generating an action potential.

During the absolute refractory period, no stimulus can generate a second action potential. During the relative refractory period, a stronger-than-normal stimulus can generate a second action potential. However, it is harder to generate a second action potential during this period because the membrane potential is not fully repolarized yet. Therefore, a greater depolarizing stimulus is required to reach the threshold potential for the generation of a second action potential. This period lasts until the membrane potential returns to its resting state, allowing for easier generation of subsequent action potentials.


During the relative refractory period, it is harder to generate a second action potential due to partial recovery of a neuron's membrane potential. In this phase, the neuron's ion channels are transitioning back to their resting state after an initial action potential. The voltage-gated sodium channels are still partially inactivated, while potassium channels remain open for a longer time, leading to a more negative membrane potential. To initiate a second action potential, a stronger stimulus is required to overcome the increased threshold. This ensures that the neuron does not continuously fire action potentials, allowing for appropriate signal transmission and preventing neuronal fatigue.

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the tiny flap of tissue that keeps food from entering the trachea is called the

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The tiny flap of tissue that keeps food from entering the trachea is called the epiglottis. An explanation for this is that the epiglottis is a small, cartilaginous structure located at the base of the tongue

which is responsible for preventing food and liquid from entering the airways during swallowing. When we swallow, the epiglottis closes off the opening to the trachea, which allows food and liquid to pass down the esophagus and into the stomach. Without this important mechanism, food and liquid could enter the lungs, leading to choking and The tiny flap of tissue that keeps food from entering the trachea is called the epiglottis.
The epiglottis is a small, flexible piece of cartilage located at the base of the tongue. When you swallow, the epiglottis covers the entrance to the trachea (windpipe), preventing food and liquids from entering the airway and directing them into the esophagus (food pipe) instead. This helps protect your lungs from foreign particles and ensures that you can breathe safely while eating and drinking.

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3. With the elimination of wolves from the ecosystem, how was the population of plants (producers) indirectly affected? Predict what would happen to the wolf and elk populations if there was a drought that caused many of the plant species to dry up and/or die.

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The elimination of wolves from the ecosystem indirectly affected the population of plants (producers) by causing an increase in the population of herbivores, such as elk, that feed on plants.

Without wolves to control their numbers, the elk population would grow, leading to overgrazing and depletion of the plant population. This would cause a decline in overall plant diversity and productivity, negatively impacting the ecosystem.

If a drought caused many of the plant species to dry up and/or die, the elk population would likely experience a decline due to a lack of available food resources. As a result, the wolf population would also decline because their primary food source, the elk, would become scarce. In this scenario, both wolf and elk populations would suffer, and the ecosystem's balance would be further disrupted.

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cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
T/F

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The statement is incorrect. Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one beat) by the heart rate, not systolic blood pressure.

I apologize for my previous response. The statement is incorrect. Cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute) is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one beat) by the heart rate (the number of beats per minute), not systolic blood pressure. The formula for cardiac output is CO = SV x HR. Systolic blood pressure is a measure of the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and is not directly related to cardiac output.

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___________ can be defined as neurons that communicate only with other neurons.

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Interneurons can be defined as neurons that communicate only with other neurons.

Interneurons, also known as association neurons, are found in the central nervous system (CNS) and play a crucial role in integrating and processing sensory information. They receive inputs from sensory neurons and communicate with other interneurons and motor neurons to generate appropriate responses. Unlike sensory neurons and motor neurons, interneurons do not directly interact with the external environment or control muscle movement. Instead, they help to process and relay information within the CNS, allowing for complex behaviors and responses to stimuli.

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A plant of genotype А в b is testcrossed with a b a b If the two loci are 10 m.u. apart, what proportion of progeny will be AB/ab?

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The proportion of progeny with AB/ab genotype resulting from the testcross between AaBb and aabb, with the two loci 10 m.u. apart, will be 10%.

In a testcross between AaBb (А в b) and aabb (a b a b), the two loci being 10 m.u. apart indicates a 10% chance of recombination during gamete formation. For each gamete produced by AaBb, the possibilities are AB, Ab, aB, and ab.

When crossed with aabb, these gametes will produce the following progeny genotypes: AaBb, Aabb, aaBb, and aabb. Since we are interested in the proportion of progeny with the AB/ab genotype (AaBb), we need to consider the recombinant frequency of 10%. Therefore, 10% of the progeny from this testcross will have the AB/ab genotype (AaBb).

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of the total solar energy reaching the earth, ________ percent is fixed by photosynthesis.

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Approximately 1 percent of the total solar energy reaching the earth is fixed by photosynthesis.

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms convert light energy into chemical energy, which can be stored in the form of organic compounds such as glucose. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells and requires sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide. However, not all of the solar energy that reaches the earth is available for photosynthesis because some of it is reflected or absorbed by the atmosphere and the earth's surface. Therefore, only a small fraction of the total solar energy is actually used by plants for photosynthesis.

In conclusion, only about 1 percent of the total solar energy reaching the earth is fixed by photosynthesis due to the limitations of this process and the amount of available sunlight.


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in each gamete following telophase ii, how many copies of each gene is/are present?

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In each gamete following telophase II, there is typically one copy of each gene present.

Telophase II is the final stage of meiosis II, where the chromosomes have already undergone separation in anaphase II. During telophase II, the chromosomes decondense, and the nuclear envelope reforms around the separated sets of chromosomes. At this point, each gamete (sperm or egg cell) will contain half the number of chromosomes compared to the parent cell.

During meiosis, the genetic material undergoes recombination and crossing over in prophase I, followed by separation of homologous chromosomes in anaphase I and sister chromatids in anaphase II. This segregation process ensures that each gamete receives a random assortment of chromosomes.

Since each gene is located on a specific chromosome, and homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I, the resulting gametes will typically have one copy of each gene. This is because the homologous chromosomes carry the same genes, albeit potentially with different alleles.

Following telophase II of meiosis, each gamete contains one copy of each gene. This ensures genetic diversity and contributes to the formation of unique offspring during sexual reproduction.

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elephants are considered sacred by many asians and have been used in numerous of religious ceremonies. because elephants are related to religious rituals, the species has been protected. this is an example of a(n):

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This is an example of cultural conservation.  Cultural conservation is the protection and preservation of cultural heritage, which includes traditions, beliefs, and practices that are important to a particular community.

In this case, the cultural heritage involves the use of elephants in religious ceremonies, which has led to the protection of the species. By preserving the cultural practices that involve elephants, conservation efforts can be more effective in ensuring the survival of the species. Elephants are considered sacred by many Asians and have been used in numerous religious ceremonies. Because elephants are related to religious rituals, the species has been protected. This is an example of a(n):This is an example of a cultural factor in conservation. In this case, the cultural beliefs and practices of many Asians have led to the protection of elephants due to their significance in religious ceremonies. By valuing elephants as sacred, these communities contribute to the conservation of the species.

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In the rat dissection lab, we saw that the ______ is ________ and the ________ is _________ if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat

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In the rat dissection lab, the liver is visible and the diaphragm is situated if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat.


When dissecting a rat and observing its ventral side, you will notice different organs. One of the most prominent organs visible is the liver, which is a large, reddish-brown organ located in the upper part of the abdominal cavity. The liver serves multiple functions, such as detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

The diaphragm, on the other hand, is a thin, muscular sheet situated below the lungs and liver, separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the respiratory process by contracting and expanding to facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs.

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an abnormal communication between an artery and a vein is abbreviated as a (n)

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An abnormal communication between an artery and a vein is abbreviated as an arteriovenous fistula (AV fistula). It is a connection that forms between an artery and a vein, bypassing the capillary system.

This can occur naturally in certain parts of the body, such as in the liver or the brain, but can also be caused by injury or surgical intervention. In some cases, an AV fistula may be created intentionally as part of a medical treatment, such as for dialysis or to improve blood flow in a limb. However, an AV fistula can also be a pathological condition that requires medical attention and treatment.

what is intervention?

In general, an intervention refers to an action taken to improve a situation or to prevent a problem from getting worse. The term intervention is used in a variety of fields, including medicine, psychology, social work, education, and politics.

In medicine, an intervention refers to a medical procedure or treatment that is performed to prevent, cure, or manage a health condition. Examples of medical interventions include surgery, chemotherapy, medication, physical therapy, and lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise.

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the pharynx is an enlargement at the top of the trachea that houses the vocal cords. T/F

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The given statement "The pharynx is an enlargement at the top of the trachea that houses the vocal cords" is False because it confuses the pharynx with the larynx.

The pharynx is a muscular funnel-shaped structure that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the esophagus and larynx, playing a role in both the respiratory and digestive systems. It is divided into three sections: nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

On the other hand, the larynx is an enlargement at the top of the trachea that houses the vocal cords. It is a cartilaginous structure also known as the voice box. The larynx is responsible for sound production and the protection of the trachea during swallowing.

Vocal cords, or vocal folds, are located within the larynx and vibrate to produce sound as air passes through them. The pitch and volume of the sound can be altered by adjusting the tension and length of the vocal cords. In summary, the statement is false as it inaccurately describes the pharynx. The correct structure housing the vocal cords is the larynx.

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Which of the following is characteristic of the phylum Platyhelminthes?
-They are dorsoventrally flattened.
-They are all parasitic.
-They typically reproduce asexually.
-They are radially symmetrical.
-They are diploblastic.

Answers

The characteristic of the phylum Platyhelminthes is that they are dorsoventrally flattened. This means that their bodies are flattened from top to bottom, making them look like a ribbon or a flattened leaf.

This adaptation allows them to live in tight spaces, such as inside their hosts if they are parasitic. Although not all members of the phylum Platyhelminthes are parasitic, some are, such as tapeworms. Parasitic flatworms can cause diseases in humans, such as schistosomiasis. They do not typically reproduce asexually; rather, they reproduce sexually by fertilizing eggs internally.

Platyhelminthes are not radially symmetrical; they have bilateral symmetry, meaning that their bodies can be divided into mirror images along a central line. Additionally, they are not diploblastic, which means they do not have only two germ layers in their embryonic development. Instead, they have three germ layers, making them triploblastic.

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how was bird-of-prey population homeostasis affected by ddt? 2. why do ddt and other chlorinated hydrocarbons affect predators at the tops of food chains more so than herbivores or plants

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The bird-of-prey population homeostasis was significantly affected by the pesticide DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane). DDT was widely used in the mid-20th century for pest control, including targeting insects like mosquitoes. However, DDT has been found to have detrimental effects on bird populations, especially birds of prey like eagles, falcons, and ospreys.

DDT is persistent in the environment and accumulates in the fatty tissues of organisms. Birds of prey are particularly vulnerable because they are high up in the food chain and consume smaller organisms that may have ingested DDT or absorbed it through contaminated prey. As DDT accumulates in their bodies, it can cause thinning of eggshells, leading to reduced reproductive success. The thin eggshells are more likely to break during incubation, resulting in lower hatching rates and decreased population numbers. DDT and other chlorinated hydrocarbons affect predators at the tops of food chains more than herbivores or plants due to a process known as biomagnification or bioaccumulation. These substances have low water solubility and high lipid solubility, meaning they tend to accumulate and persist in fatty tissues.

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