If silicon is a necessary mineral for humans, scientists are divided on the subject.
Which mineral is required for a healthy contraction of the muscle?Your body needs calcium to convey signals through the neurological system and to assist muscles and blood vessels contract and expand. In addition, calcium aids in the release of hormones and enzymes that have an impact on virtually every bodily process.
Which of the following mineral classifications includes significant minerals?Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sulfur, potassium, sodium, and chloride are the main minerals. The trace minerals are required, but in lesser amounts (less than 100 mg each day). Iron, iodine, zinc, fluoride, selenium, copper, chromium, manganese, and molybdenum are a few examples of trace minerals.
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Assume that blood is flowing from the coronary sinus to the lung capillaries. Place the anatomical labels in order of flow in the target boxes.Right ventricleRight ventriclePulmonary trunkPulmonary trunkTricuspid valveTricuspid valveMitral valveMitral valveLeft atriumLeft atriumPulmonary arteriesPulmonary arteriesRight atriumRight atriumPulmonary semilunar valve
The right order of the blood flow from the right side of the heart to the lung capillaries is- a)Right arteries , Mitral valve, Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Pulmonary trunk, Pulmonary artery. So, correct option is a.
A solid heart ordinarily pulsates somewhere in the range of 60 to 70 times each moment when you're very still. This rate can be higher or lower contingent upon your wellbeing and actual wellness. Competitors for the most part have a lower resting pulse, for instance. Your pulse rises when you move.
Right atrium: located at the top side of the heart
Mitral valve: detachment valve between the right chamber and the right ventricle.
Right ventricle: situated at the low side of the heart.
Pulmonary valve: isolating between the right ventricle and pneumonic corridor trunk
Pulmonary trunk: what isolates in two pneumonic supply routes (both ways)
Hence, correct order of blood flow is depicted in option a.
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(Complete question) is:
Assume that blood is flowing from the coronary sinus to the lung capillaries. Place the anatomical labels in order of flow in the target boxes.
a)Right arteries , Mitral valve, Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Pulmonary trunk, Pulmonary artery
b)Right arteries , Mitral valve, Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary trunk.
c)Right arteries , Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Mitral valve, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary trunk.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during mitosis?
Condensation → Nuclear membrane disassembly → Arrangement at equator → Centromere division → Segregation → Telophase is the correct sequence of events during mitosis.
During prophase, the chromosomes condense, the nucleolus disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down. The chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, the centromeres divide and during telophase, the chromosomes segregate and move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.Prophase is the first phase of mitosis. The chromosomes in the nucleus start to condense and become visible at this point.Prometaphase is the following phase. The nuclear envelope disintegrates at this time, and the chromosomes cling to the spindle fibres.Metaphase is the third phase. The chromosomes align on the metaphase plate in the centre of the cell during this time.Anaphase is the fourth phase of mitosis. The spindle fibres force the chromosomes apart at this stage, causing them to migrate to the opposing ends of the cell.Telophase is the final phase. Chromosomes have now reached the cell's poles, and the cell is beginning to divide into two daughter cells.To know more about mitosis check the below link:
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What sex cells are produced in meiosis?; Are sex cells produced by meiosis identical?; Are sex cells haploid or diploid?
Gametes, or sex cells, are created during meiosis. There are four haploid daughter cells formed during meiosis (containing half as many chromosomes as the parent cell).
A cell with a single set of chromosomes is called haploid. The number of chromosomes in sperm or egg cells, often known as gametes, is also referred to as haploid. In humans, gametes are haploid cells with 23 chromosomes—one of each chromosomal pair found in diplod cells—and are hence haploid. The haploid number, commonly known as n, is used to indicate the number of chromosomes in a single pair. n = 23 for people.
Half of the chromosomes found in somatic cells, or the body's typical diploid cells, are found in gametes. Meiosis, a type of cell division that cuts the number of chromosomes in a parent diploid cell in half, produces haploid gametes.
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Which of the following best describes a biological concern regarding the use of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing in humans?
A.The process was first discovered in bacteria and human cells cannot correctly interpret prokaryotic regulatory signals.
BThe modifications created by the process may result in unintended effects on non-target genes.
C. The presence of repeated sequences (STRs) within the human genome mean that the editing cannot be targeted to a specific location.
D. The process may introduce viral sequences into the human genome leading to unwanted blood cell proliferation (leukemia).
CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing is a method to alter or change the human genome. Target genes are chosen and changed in this process. However, this modification may affect the non-targeted genes, and this is a serious biological concern.
DNA is altered by adding or removing a segment of the gene. In this method, the targeted genes produce a specified product. The product will not be produced if in case the non-targeted genes get affected. In spite of this, the modifications created by the process may result in unintended effects on non-target genes.
Therefore, the correct option is (B).
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As urbanization increases and natural soil surfaces are covered, the groundwater supply is reduced due to
increased evaporation and transpiration
decreased surface runoff
loss of recharge area
confinement of aquifers
capping of artesian wells
As urbanization increases and natural soil surfaces are covered, the groundwater supply is reduced due to increased evaporation and transpiration is Loss of recharge area.
As urbanization increases, the natural landscape is covered with non-renewable materials. As a result, the amount of water in the soil decreases due to increased evaporation and increases due to the decrease due to decreased surface runoff and increases due to increased runoff. ' up. Reduction by loss of recharge area. This process is only possible if there is low land, but when the urban area reduces the land as the area covers the house. The water should percolate from the surface of the soil and the water should not be. This soil is on the surface then the water cannot enter the water in the soil.
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The retinoblastoma (RB) protein serves as the guardian of the G1/S cell cycle checkpoint by inhibiting which molecule from activating transcription of genes necessary for DNA replication?
A. telomerase
B. E2F
C. reverse transcriptase
D. MAP kinase
B. E2F
The E2F molecule is prevented from triggering the transcription of the genes required for DNA replication by the retinoblastoma (RB) protein, which acts as the guardian of the G1/S cell cycle checkpoint.
A key player in the inhibition of the cell cycle and the development of tumors is the tumor suppressor protein Rb. It has been established that the Rb protein (pRb) is in charge of a crucial G1 checkpoint that prevents cell development and entry into the S phase. At the promoters of genes necessary for the advancement of the S phase and cell proliferation, RB binds to members of the E2F family. The G1/S cell cycle is halted by the binding of RB to E2F proteins, which either prevents the recruitment of transcriptional co-activators or attracts transcriptional co-repressors to these promoters.
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g describe how cell-cycle arrest, apoptosis, and senescence are the mechanisms by which p53 inhibits tumor formation.
Through the transactivation of its target genes, p53 induces cell cycle arrest and/or death in response to a number of cellular stressors, including energy stress and DNA damage.
The homo-tetramerization of functional p53 is mediated by its COOH-terminal oligomerization domain.
About 50% of all malignancies in people have mutations in the tumor suppressor gene TP53. In addition to its role in tumor suppression, p53 also has a significant impact on how both malignant and nontransformed cells react to various anticancer therapies, especially those that result in DNA damage.
Approximately 500 target genes are believed to be directly regulated by the homotetrameric transcription factor P53, which controls a variety of cellular functions such as cell cycle arrest, cell senescence, DNA repair, metabolic adaptability, and cell death. For a very long time, it was believed that the primary mechanism by which p53 suppresses tumor development is the production of apoptotic death in developing neoplastic cells. However, recent research has cast doubt on this idea, showing that gene-targeted mice exhibit notable differences from Trp53-deficient mice.
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under the terms of the secret treaty of san ildefonso in 1800 between france and spain, france regained title to the vast louisiana territory as part of napoleon's grand design to
under the terms of the secret treaty of san ildefonso in 1800 between france and spain, france regained title to the vast louisiana territory as part of napoleon's grand design to Build a great French empire in America
Napoleon Bonaparte established French hegemony over much of continental Europe at the start of the 19th century, establishing the First French Empire, officially the French Republic[b], then the French Empire (French: Empire Français; Latin: Imperium Francicum) after 1809, also known as Napoleonic France. It lasted for two brief periods: from 20 March 1815 to 7 July 1815, and from 18 May 1804 to 11 April 1814.
Despite having a colonial empire in other parts of the world since the early 17th century, France had remained a kingdom under the Bourbons and a republic following the French Revolution. To distinguish it from his nephew Napoleon III's restorationist Second Empire (1852–1870), historians refer to Napoleon's tenure as the First Empire. Some people refer to the First French Empire as a "Republican empire."
Napoleon was crowned on 2 December 1804,[9] marking the end of the French Consulate and of the French First Republic, and on 18 May 1804, the French Sénat conservateur bestowed upon him the title Emperor of the French (Empereur des Français, pronounced [.poe de f.s]). The empire was still known as the "French empire " after his coronation until 1809. Through important victories in the War of the Third Coalition over Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain, and allies, particularly at the Battle of Austerlitz in 1805, the French Empire attained military dominance in continental Europe. [10] Before Napoleon's ultimate defeat at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815, French dominance was reaffirmed during the War of the Fourth Coalition at the Battles of Jena-Auerstedt in 1806 and the Battle of Friedland in 1807.
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on the difficulty of achieving differential privacy in practice: user-level guarantees in aggregate location data
On the difficulty of achieving differential privacy in practice: User-level safeguards in aggregated location data: Although large-scale human mobility data contains crucial information for understanding human behavior, it is also very sensitive.
In the work developed by Bassolas et al., we studied the structure of cities and their impact on urban livability using a highly aggregated mobility dataset. In order to protect privacy, random noise was added using an automated Laplace mechanism (ε, δ)-differential privacy, with ε =0.66 and δ =2.1×10−29. Where ε defines the noise intensity and δ represents the deviation from pure ε privacy. Differential privacy mathematically guarantees that a person, who observes the result of a differential private analysis, is likely to produce the same inference about one's private information or not, that person's private information is combined as input for the analysis
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What are the 7 HACCP principles
When creating HACCP plans that achieve the stated objective, seven fundamental concepts are used. Hazard analysis, CCP identification, setting critical limits, and monitoring protocols are some of these principles.
Why are the HACCP 7 principles crucial?The 7 HACCP principles therefore recognize these food production hygiene problems and take precautions to avoid them. HACCP works to eliminate risks throughout the production process rather than checking completed goods for the consequences of these hazards.
What HACCP tenet is the most crucial?Hazard assessment
The HACCP plan's most crucial principle is hazard analysis.At each stage of your production process, this crucial procedure identifies any potential biological, chemical, or physical dangers.
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What is the source of genetic material?; What is the source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms and in which stage does it happen?; What produces reproductive cells with half the genetic material of the parent organism?; What genes are inherited from father only?
In prophase I, chromosomes cross over; in metaphase I, chromosomes are randomly arranged; and in prophase II, gametes from different parents randomly fuse. These three processes are the principal causes of genetic variation resulting from sexual reproduction.
The source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms Asexual reproduction only requires the presence of one parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves the production of gametes or sex cells by two parent organisms. The possibility of genetic VARIATION among the progeny is one benefit of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction. However, CROSSING OVER, a process in meiosis, causes this genetic variation to happen during sexual reproduction. Sole sexually reproducing creatures undergo meiosis, the only division in which gametes are produced.Three separate processes—mutation, recombination, and gene immigration—are responsible for the genetic diversity. Evolution and genetic variety are propelled by mutation. Base substitutions (commonly known as point mutations), deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.
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Glacier Bay in Alaska is a fjord whose lowlands were covered by glacial ice until around 230 years ago. As the glacier retreated, it left behind sediment that was exposed to plant colonization; remarkably (and fortunately for generations of ecologists), the location of the tip of the retreating glacier has been frequently documented since the late 1700s. This means that scientists have been able to develop a detailed timeline of the changes in the plant community, or _____ in Glacier Bay over time.
A. niche diversification
B. niche divergence
C. competitive exclusion
D. ecological succession
E. None of the answer options is correct.
D. ecological succession
A thorough timeline of the ecological succession or changes in the plant community that have taken place in Glacier Bay over time has been created by experts.
The Little Ice Age, a geologically recent glacial advance towards the north, is responsible for Glacier Bay as it appears now. Around 1750, the Little Ice Age's size was at its greatest. The enormous glacier that formerly filled the bay has since retreated 65 miles to its entrance mouths. In addition to being a national park, a wilderness area, a biosphere reserve, and a world heritage site, Glacier Bay serves as a homeland and a living laboratory. It's a marine park where boating into inlets, coves, and secret ports will lead to wonderful adventure. A large glacier near Juneau, Alaska, has been moving forward for more than a century and is now positioned for accelerated retreat and the birth of a new fjord.
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Determine the order of genes along a chromosome based on the following recombinationfrequencies: AB, 8 map units; AC, 28 map units; AD, 25 map units; BC, 20 map units; BD, 33 map unitsA. A-C-D-BB. C-D-B-AC. D-A-B-CD. B-A-C-D
the order of genes along a chromosome based on the following recombination frequencies: AB, 8 map units; AC, 28 map units; AD, 25 map units; BC, 20 map units; BD, 33 map units c . C. D-A-B-C
Recombination frequency is defined as the frequency of a single chromosomal crossover between two genes during meiosis.
The recombination frequency, which evaluates the genetic linkage used to produce a genetic linkage map, determines the order of entrance for each gene.
Recombination frequency is a heritable trait that could be altered by a few genes.
The frequency of recombination between any two genes in every organism has a numerical value, and this value must be between 0% and 50%.
Genes that are "unlinked" have a 50% recombination frequency and are found on different (non-homologous) chromosomes.
Genes that are relatively close to one another on the same chromosome are said to be "tightly connected" because their recombination frequency is almost zero.
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arrange the steps in a growth factor signaling pathway that promotes cell division in the correct order. start with the first step at the top.
The steps in a growth factor signaling pathway that promotes cell division is activation , transduction , transcription and cell division .
1. A growth factor binds to and activates a receptor.
2. The activation of an intracellular signal transduction system.
3. The nucleus activates transcription factors.
4. Cell division-promoting genes are translated.
Cell division is controlled not only by extracellular mitogens but also by intracellular mechanisms that can limit cell proliferation. Many animal precursor cells, for example, divide a limited number of times before they stop and terminally differentiate into permanently arrested, specialized cells. Although the stopping mechanisms are poorly understood, a progressive increase in CKI proteins probably contributes in some cases.
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this kettle lake formed 14,000 years ago when a glacier that covered the surrounding area melted. initially devoid of animal life, overtime the lake was colonized by invertebrates and other animals. if you are a researcher, based on the background information, hypothesize how mutation, natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow may have affected populations that colonized the lake.
Genetic drift is the arbitrary change in the population's frequency of a gene variation that already exists. Gene variations may totally vanish glacier due to genetic drift, invertebrates which would limit genetic diversity.
When the glacier melted, species that can withstand cold climates and water would have been more prevalent, and many lake creatures would Genetic drift have gained beneficial mutations that would have helped them live better in the lake natural selection. The temperature must have been gradually increasing, which would have resulted in the selection of invertebrates that can withstand a specific amount of heat. Genetic drift would have caused certain organisms that relocated to this new lake to potentially experience founders effect and bottleneck effect. If the lake was accessible to different ecosystems, then other populations of species would have colonized the lake, adding allelic frequency of features, which would have changed the allelic diversity of their characters.
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_____ are involved in the movement of the cell a) cilia b)flagella c) centrioles d)intermediate filaments e both a and b are correct.
The movement of the cell involves both the cilia and the flagella.
Cell organelles called cilia and flagella are physically identical but differ in length and purpose. While flagella are found in bacteria and sperm cells, cilia are found in creatures like paramecium. Flagella are longer and less numerous than cilia.
The most prevalent organelles for movement in unicellular organisms are cilia and flagella. Cilia-equipped organisms can move more quickly and effectively. The respiratory system and fallopian tubes of the human body contain motile cilia. where, respectively, they assist the flow of eggs from the ovary to the uterus and clear mucus out of the airways. Primary cilia or sensory cilia are other names for non-motile cilia. As sensory organelles, they serve. Flagella are structures that resemble hairs and protrude from the surface of cells. They support prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells' ability to move.
Hence, flagella and cilia are external structure present over cell.
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match the correct definition with the pattern of natural selection. items (3 items) (drag and drop into the appropriate area below) extreme phenotypes have advantage over intermediate phenotypes.one extreme phenotype has advantage over other phenotypes.intermediate phenotype has advantage over both extremes.
Natural selection can result in microevolution (change in allele frequencies), with the population's abundance of fitness-increasing alleles rising.extreme phenotypes have advantage over intermediate phenotypes
The term "phenotype" refers to a collection of an organism's outwardly apparent traits or attributes. It is derived from the Ancient Greek terms "phan," which means "to appear, display, or shine," and "tpos," which means "mark, type." The expression alludes to an organism's morphology, or physical form and structure, as well as to its physiological and biochemical traits, behavior, and the results of that behavior. The two main factors that determine an organism's phenotype are its genotype, or how its genetic code is expressed, and the influence of its environment. Both factors might interact, which would have a further effect on phenotype. A species is said to as "polymorphic" if it has two or more different phenotypes coexisting in the same population. Labrador Retrievers' coloring is a well-known instance of polymorphism
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the sequence of diagrams below represents some events in a reproductive process. to regulate similar events in human reproduction, what adaptations are required? select one: a. the removal of all enzymes from the cells in stage 7 b. the presence of genes and chemicals in each cell in stages 1 to 7 c. an increase in the number of genes in each cell in stages 3 to 5 d. the elimination of mutations from cells after stage 5
In order to control analogous processes in human reproduction, genes and substances must be present in each cell from stages 1 to 7.
Giving birth to children who are similar to their parents is the process of reproduction. As we all know, human reproduction is a sexual process that requires internal fertilization during sexual activity.
Gametes are an organism’s reproductive cells. They are additionally known as sex cells. Sperm refers to male gametes, whilst ova or egg cells refer to female gametes.
The scrotum, testicles, epididymis, vas deferens, prostate, and seminal vesicles are all parts of the male reproductive system. The uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix, and ovary are the main components of a woman's internal reproductive system.
Therefore option B is the correct answer.
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Native autotroph species Of grassland (at least three)
Native heterotroph species of grassland (at least three)
Invasive species (at least one) of grassland
Endangered species (at least one) of grassland Briefly explain why this species is endangered.
Habitat loss is the main reason for this species endangered.
What is the reasons why the species becomes endangered?The fundamental reason of increasing extinction rates is habitat loss. Other factors include habitat changes, economic over exploitation of animals, the introduction of hazardous nonnative species, pollution, and disease transmission.
Due to persistent cross-country travel, hundreds of miles of unauthorized roads and trails are added to the national forests and grasslands each year. More erosion, water deterioration, and habitat devastation are occurring.
Invading species also boost nitrogen cycle rates in forests and grasslands; but, as with carbon, higher cycling rates are not always sustainable and may result in longer-term changes in species composition, disturbance regimes, indirect impacts of diseases and invasive animals, and environmental damage.
Grasslands are under threat from habitat loss caused by human activities such as unsustainable agriculture practices, overgrazing, and crop removal.
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how many different kinds of gametes (with respect to the traits listed) could be produced by the individual described below: an individual with the genotype bbff
only one kind of gamete could be produced for an individual with the genotype bbff through the process independent assortment
Different chromosomes segregate independently of one another as cells divide during meiosis. Homologous chromosomes are distributed to daughter cells at random. This is referred to as independent assortment. Gametes with distinctive chromosomal arrangements are the consequence. After meiosis, a gamete will contain 23 chromosomes, but due to independent assortment, each gamete will have one of a large number of chromosome combinations.
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Select all answers that apply to crossing over in meiosis.Select one or more:A. Occurs in ProphaseB. Non sister chromatids exchange DNA segmentsC. Homologous chromosomes physically connectD. Is a source of genetic variation in offspring
The correct options are B (Non-sister chromatids exchange DNA segments), C (Homologous chromosomes physically connect), and D (Is a source of genetic information of chromosomes to crossing over in meiosis.
In meiosis I, crossing over takes place during prophase I. It entails the exchange of genes across homologous non-sister chromatids, enabling the admixture of new, recombinant chromosomes containing both mother and paternal genetic material. When chromosomes of the same kind are paired together during meiosis, a biological event called crossing over takes place. Parts of the chromosome can be exchanged when two chromosomes, one from the mother and one from the father, line up. The same genes may be present on the two chromosomes in different versions.
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For the following gene, which type of regulatory sequence has likely been deleted in mutant 1?
Mutant Deletion Region % Transcription
WT None 100%
1 1-200 150%
2 250-400 100%
3 500-800 50%
4 950-1100 0%
The main regulatory sequences that are present in genes are Enhancers, Promoters, and suppressors.
The Promoter is a small DNA sequence on a gene, where the RNA (ribonucleic acid) polymerase enzyme can bind for the transcription of that gene. The prokaryotes have a -10 region (TATA box), as their promoter region, whereas the eukaryotes have -35 and – 10 regions as promoters. So, it does not have any effect on the level of gene expression. Enhancers are the DNA sequences, which enhance the gene expression; they are present above the promoter region. Thus, the removal of promoters cannot induce gene expression. Silencers are the DNA regions present below or above the promoter regions; they mostly silence or decrease the level of gene expression. Thus, the removal of silencer regulatory regions results in the over-expression of the genes.
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defensins are small antimicrobial, positively charged peptides that assemble in microbial membranes, forming channels that kill the microbes.which of the following would most likely cause defensins to attack host cells? choose one:a. overproduction of neutrophil extracellular traps (nets) by the host's neutrophilsb. production of antibodies that recognize host cell antigens (autoantibodies) by the hostc. host cell mutation that causes the cell to accumulate negative charges internallyd. binding of defensin to toll-like receptors on host cells
In biological membranes, phospholipids, glycolipids, and sterols are the three main lipid kinds. Two fatty acid chains connected to glycerol and a phosphate group make up phospholipids.
What does a virus' host cell entail?As intracellular parasites, viruses are dependent on their host cells for energy, the tools for macromolecular synthesis, and the work surfaces for genome replication and particle assembly. Viruses have developed a wide range of techniques for taking advantage of typical host cell processes as a result of this dependency.
What purpose do host cells serve?A live cell that houses and provides sustenance for an alien creature is called a host cell. Two organisms are considered to have a close biological relationship when they coexist and do so for an extended period of time.
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In meiosis, a chromosome carrying an inversion Ο cannot pair with a normal homologous chromosome. Ο can pair only with a chromosome carrying the same inversion. Ο can pair only with a chromosome carrying a different inversion. Ο can pair with a normal homologous chromosome; one of the chromosomes forms a loop. Ο can pair with any nonhomologous chromosome.
A chromosome with an inversion can pair with a homologous chromosome during meiosis, and one of the chromosomes creates a loop.
A unique variety of mutation known as an inversion involves the 180-degree flipping of a segment of chromosomal DNA. A chromosome must have two breaks for an inversion to happen; after the region between the breaks inverts, the ends of the region rejoin the remainder of the chromosome. Contrary to pericentric inversions, which do contain a centromere, paracentric inversions do not have a centromere in the inverted region.
Hence, inversion pair of homologous chromosome create loop.
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a short homozygous pea plant (tt) is crossed with a tall heterozygous pea plant (tt). what is the probability that the offspring will be tall? (fill out the punnett square in order to determine the probability)
If a short homozygous pea plant (tt) is crossed with a tall heterozygous pea plant (Tt), then the probability that the offspring will be tall is calculated to be 50%.
Since a short homozygous pea plant is crossed with a tall heterozygous pea plant therefore the Punnett square to determine the probability can be given as follows;
t t
T Tt Tt
t tt tt
Therefore according to this Punnett square 2 out of 4 pea plants will be tall. Now the probability that the offspring will be tall can be calculated as follows;
probability = 2 / 4 × 100
probability = 0.5 × 100
probability = 50%
Therefore the probability that the offspring will be tall is 50% and the probability that the offspring will be short is also 50%.
Although a part of your question is incorrect, you might be referring to this question:
A short homozygous pea plant (tt) is crossed with a tall heterozygous pea plant (Tt). What is the probability that the offspring will be tall? (fill out the Punnett square in order to determine the probability)
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What is the codon for AAT?; What is the codon code for DNA?; What is the mRNA codon for alanine?; What is the mRNA of AAA?
Asparagine is the codon for AAT .Asparagine is an α-amino acid that is used in the biosynthesis of proteins.It is a polar, aliphatic amino acid because it has a -amino group, -carboxylic acid group, and side chain carboxamide. In humans, it is not necessary, therefore the body may produce it on its own.
A codon is a DNA or RNA sequence of three nucleotides (a trinucleotide) that forms a unit of genomic information encoding a particular amino acid or signaling the termination of protein synthesis (stop signals). There are 64 different codons: 61 specify amino acids and 3 are used as stop signals.
For alanine, mRNA codons are GCU, GCC, GCG, and GCA.
The template strand of DNA has AAA sequence, which will be transcribed to mRNA as UUU.
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HELP If I breed a short fur, Ff female with a short fur, Ff male, then I will expect to see
Assuming complete dominance for fur length, if I breed a short fur, Ff female with a short fur, Ff male, then I will expect to see 75% of the progeny with a short fur (FF + Ff) and 25% of the progeny with a long fur (ff).
To answer this question, we will assume complete dominance.
What is complete dominance?
Complete dominance is an inheritance pattern that characterizes because, when together in heterozygous individuals, one of the alleles hides the expression of the other one. The expression of the second allele is inhibited by the presence of the first allele.
This pattern results in two possible phenotypes when considering diallelic genes.
Dominant phenotype ⇒ homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals, Recessive phenotype ⇒ homozygous recessive individuals. .In the exposed example,
Cross:
Parentals) Ff x Ff
Gametes) F f F f
Punnett square) F f
F FF Ff
f Ff ff
F1)
1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be FF.2/4 = 50% of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous.1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be ff. 75% of the progeny is expected to have short fur (FF + Ff)25% of the progeny is expected to have long fur (only ff)If I breed a short fur, Ff female with a short fur, Ff male, then I will expect to see 75% of the progeny with a short fur (FF + Ff) and 25% of the progeny with a long fur (ff).
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drag each phrase to the appropriate bin depending on whether it describes the synthesis of the leading strand, the synthesis of the lagging strand, or the synthesis of both strands. mastering biology
Depending on whether a sentence explains the synthesis of the leading strand, the lagging strand, or the synthesis of both strands, move it to the appropriate bin. understanding biology
Synthesis of the leading strand is distinct from synthesis of the trailing strand because DNA polymerase III can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of a new DNA strand and because the two parental DNA strands are antiparallel.
At the replication origin, a single RNA primer is used to continually create the leading strand. The leading strand's 3' end is extended by DNA pol III so that it can grow toward the replication fork.
The lagging strand, on the other hand, is created in segments, each with a unique RNA primer. Pol DNA
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In the spinocerebellar pathway, sensory information travels to the cerebellum along __________ and __________ neurons.
In the spinocerebellar pathway, sensory information travels to the cerebellum along Primary and secondary neurons. The cell body of the primary neuron is housed in the dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve or, if the sensation is in the head or neck, the ganglia of the trigeminal or cranial nerves. The secondary neuron acts as a relay and is located in either the spinal cord or the brainstem.
The spinocerebellar pathway is the pathway by which sensory information travels from the periphery of the body to the cerebellum. This pathway involves two types of neurons: afferent and efferent.
1. Afferent neurons: These are sensory neurons that carry nerve impulses from the periphery of the body to the central nervous system (CNS). The afferent neurons of the spinocerebellar pathway start in the muscle spindles and joint receptors of the skeletal muscles and joints. These receptors detect changes in the muscle tension and joint position and send signals to the CNS.
2. Efferent neurons: These are motor neurons that carry nerve impulses from the CNS to the periphery of the body. The efferent neurons of the spinocerebellar pathway start in the cerebellum and end at the skeletal muscles and joints. These neurons carry signals from the cerebellum to the skeletal muscles and joints to control movement.
Thus, the spinocerebellar pathway involves afferent and efferent neurons that carry sensory information from the periphery of the body to the cerebellum and then to the skeletal muscles and joints to control movement.
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if sexual stimulation is continued after the excitement phase, the sexual response cycle moves into the where arousal is sustained and increased.
The peak of the sexual response cycle is known as an orgasm. It usually only lasts a few seconds and is the shortest of the phases. This stage is characterized by the onset of involuntary muscle contractions.
The vaginal walls' capillaries widen and their blood flow increases during excitement. When fluid seeps through the semipermeable membranes of the vaginal walls, it produces lubrication as a result of vasocongestion in the tissues surrounding the vagina.
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