The process of breath on cold day is called as the condensation process of the process.
We name it water vapor. When wet air cools off, the water vapor withinside the air can alternate from a fueloline to a liquid, ensuing in endless tiny droplets of waterEvery day a median individual breathes in round 14,000 litres of air, and with each breath, we launch a small quantity of water vapour.
Over a day, this builds as much as round 400g of water vapour created. People who're lively will breathe out extra because of better inner temperature dew factor, air can not maintain water vapor; whilst air is cooled past dew factor water vapor turns to liquid shape, the bodily technique called condensation. It is that this liquid shape of your breath – minuscule droplets of water – that creates the fleeting, misty cloud we see whilst inhaling air.
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10.a few members of a population have reached a favorable habitat containing few predators and unlimited resources, but their population growth rate is slower than that of the parent population.
The possible answer for this statement is genetic makeup and allee effect. Both these terms are part of population ecology and plays an important role.
These founders' genetic make-up could not be as advantageous as that of the parent group. Parents as a group It might still be in the prospective portion of its growth curve and not be reliant only on factors that depend on density. The allee effect might be at play; there aren't enough individuals of the population around to support successful reproduction. An Allee effect is a favorable correlation between population size and absolute average individual fitness during a specific time period. A critical population size below which the population cannot persist may result from such a positive correlation, but it is not always the case. Allee effects that result in critical population sizes are known as strong effects, whilst those that do not are known as weak effects.
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In which of the following body sites would the mere presence of microbes indicate an infection?
a. bladder
b. stomach
c. lungs
d. skin
e. blood
In healthy conditions, blood is sterile and lacks a typical microbiome. Microbes in the blood would suggest an infection if they were present.
Which of the locations listed below would you anticipate locating typical microbiota?Where on the body would you anticipate finding communities of healthy microbes? Skin, eyes, nose, throat (upper respiratory system), mouth, large intestine, urine, and reproductive systems are body parts having populations of the normal microbiota.
Where on the human body can microorganisms be found?Almost every area of the human body is home to microbes, which can be found on the skin, in the gut, and even up the nose. Microorganisms can occasionally make people sick, but most of the time they coexist peacefully with their human hosts and perform crucial tasks required for human existence.
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blood flow is largely regulated at a tissue level. which of the following could be said regarding this process?
Answer is B: Vasodilation will be regulated by a high amount of CO2 in the tissues to remove it and deliver more O2. Vasoconstriction, the opposite of what is needed to treat acidemia, is what ADH produces.
Where in the circulatory system is blood flow largely controlled?The level of the arterioles and feed arteries is where blood flow is regulated. The largest pressure drop is found between the conduit arteries and capillaries, according to comprehensive micropuncture observations in numerous blood vessels across the systemic vasculature.
What controls the veins' blood flow?The capillaries' arteriolar lumen controls blood flow via them. The smallest veins, called venules, which take blood from capillaries. They participate in the exchange of nutrients and oxygen for water-based products.
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which of the following characteristics best support using yeast cells instead of bacterial cells to express mammalian proteins via cloning?
The characteristics that best support using yeast cells to express mammalian proteins via cloning instead of bacterial cells is that they are eukaryotic cells.
Protein production is a process to generate a certain protein by the manipulation of gene expression in an organism. For mammals, the host that's generally used for protein production is yeasts.
Yeasts are unicellular eukaryotic microbes that are easy to be manipulated genetically. They have similar synthetic machinery to the native human source cells in many ways. They are also quick and relatively cheap to grow and process. The species that are generally used are S. cerevisiae or Pichia pastoris as they allow stable and lasting production.
The question above seems incomplete, but most likely the completed version is as follows:
Which of the following characteristics best support using yeast cells instead of bacterial cells to express mammalian proteins via cloning?
They easily form colonies.
They can grow on solid or liquid media.
They do not have plasmids.
They are eukaryotic cells.
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Which statement is true? a.Hair color and IQ are examples of Mendelian traits. b.Mendelian traits follows a normal distribution. c.Mendelian traits are controlled by multiple genes. d.Mendelian traits cannot be shown on a bell curve.
A bell curve cannot depict Mendelian characteristics. Mendelian qualities are traits that are genetically determined by a single gene with two alleles.
Option d is correct.
What do Mendelian traits entail?Mendelian qualities are those that adhere to Mendel's principles of only having two potential gene variants (1 dominant, 1 recessive). There aren't many instances of this in humans. 1. Find out your phenotype (observable trait) and potential genotype(s) using the table below (a pair or pairs of alleles).
Is the type of hair a Mendelian trait?Just a few Mendelian characteristics that are inherited from our parents are freckles and dimples. Your hair and eye color, however, are not Mendelian characteristics, and their background is a little bit more convoluted.
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in operant conditioning, reinforcement stimuli induce higher activity in the nucleus accumbens due to the release of______from neurons in the mesolimbic and mesocortical systems
in operant conditioning, reinforcement stimuli induce higher activity in the nucleus accumbens due to the release of dopamine from neurons in the mesolimbic and mesocortical systems
Dopamine is sent to the nucleus accumbens and amygdala via the VTA via the mesolimbic pathway. The nucleus accumbens is a structure that may be located in the ventral medial region of the striatum and is thought to have an impact on the placebo effect, desire, and reward. An essential limbic system component that is linked to emotion is the amygdala. Diseases like addiction and depression are impacted by the mesolimbic pathway.
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(true or false) carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both enzymes involved in respiration.
Carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both together enzymes involved in respiration. The given statement is false.
Carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme found in red blood cells, gastric mucosa, pancreatic cells, and renal tubules that catalyzes the conversion of carbon dioxide (CO2) to carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic anhydrase plays an important role in respiration by affecting the transport of CO2 in the blood. The enzyme also works on the formation of hydrochloric acid through the stomach. Carbaminohemoglobin is a compound of hemoglobin and carbon dioxide and is one of the forms in which carbon dioxide appears in the blood. Carbaminohemoglobin releases carbon dioxide in the lungs, where Pco 2 is lower.
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Which of the following can cause extensive damage well after the ground shaking associated with an earthquake stops?
a. Tsunami
b. Fire
c. Flooding from subsidence or failure of dams
All of these are extensive damage well after the ground shaking associated with an earthquake stops.
Water waves known as tsunamis are brought on by the abrupt vertical shift of a sizable portion of the ocean floor following an underwater earthquake. Tidal waves are frequently used to refer to tsunamis, but this word is inaccurate. Tsunamis are not brought on by the Moon and Sun's tidal action, in contrast to normal ocean tides.In the exothermic chemical process of combustion, fire is the rapid oxidation of a substance (the fuel), releasing heat, light, and different reaction products. Flames are created at a specific stage of the combustion reaction known as the ignition point. The part of the fire that can be seen is the flame.Failure of a landslide dam can cause devastating flooding downstream. However, there are few laboratories experimental studies and little field observation of such flooding will reduce earthquake.To know more about earthquake check the below link:
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Which three of the following are advantages to the use of rapid, miniature systems to characterize infectious microbes?
They are inexpensive.
They are readily adapted to analysis by computer.
They require little training to inoculate and interpret.
They require significant incubation space.
They can identify all known bacterial pathogens.
The ones that are advantages of the use of rapid, miniature systems to characterize infectious microbes are:
They require little training to inoculate and interpret.They are readily adapted to an analysis by computer.They are inexpensive.Infectious microbes are microorganisms that have the potential to cause infection and disease in the host's body. The infection occurs when these microorganisms enter the host's body and begin to multiply. There are several categories of these microbes, such as:
BacteriaChlamydia organismsRickettsiasMycoplasmaVirusFungiParasitesTo characterize and find out which microorganism is inhibiting a host's body and causing diseases, one thing that's typically done is using a rapid, miniature system. In this system, the microorganism is inspected to be characterized and identified.
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All the following characterize neurosecretory cells except that they group of answer choices O release hormones into the blood. O affect specific target cells or organs. O release neurotransmitters at synapses. O also are called neuroendocrine cells. O release hormones from axon terminals.
All the following characterize neurosecretory cells except that they affect specific target cells or organs. Neurosecretory cells typically have two or three long dendrites, which also contain large dilations and a very high density of hormone-containing vesicles.
Large magnocellular neurosecretory cells, also known as neuroendocrine cells, are found in the para ventricular and supra optic nuclei of the hypothalamus. Of the two nuclei, the circular nucleus is larger and more prevalent in accessory cell groups. Only a small number of magnocellular neurosecretory cells can make both oxytocin and vasopressin, despite the fact that there are two different types of these cells. These cells are electrically excitable neuroendocrine neurons that create action potentials in response to afferent input. In the cells that make vasopressin, the AVP gene, a molecular outcome of circadian pathways, creates vasopressin.
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most motor fibers of cranial nerves begin in which of the following? multiple choice question. cerebral cortex
The Abducens nerve is largely a motor nerve. The cranial nerves has sensory and motor functions. The fundamental role of the vestibulocochlear nerve is solely sensory. Determine the cranial nerve's Roman numeral using the actions of balance and hearing.
The trigeminal nerve (CN 5) and the pons are connected to the brainstem by the trigeminal nerve (CN 5), and the abducent (CN 6), facial (CN 7), vestibulocochlear (CN 8), glossopharyngeal (CN 9) and vagus nerves are connected to the brainstem by the abducent (CN 6), facial (CN
The third, fourth, sixth, and twelveth cranial nerves are all solely motor. The third cranial nerve is known as the oculomotor. Four of the six muscles that move the eye are supplied by it. Additionally, it provides the muscles that raise the eyelids, focus the lens, and contract the pupil.
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The tough outer layer of a seed is called the
a. nut.
b. seed coat.
c. fruit. d. embryo wall.
Plants can respond to changing environmental conditions by the use of which chemicals?
a. hormones
b. enzymes
c. pigments d. sugars
A seed that is dispersed to an area far away from the parent plant might face less
a. germination.
b. alternation.
c. pollination.
d. competition.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all plants?
a. produce seeds
b. are eukaryotic
c. have cell walls
d. are multicellular
Seeds dispersed by animals typically are contained in
a. thin coatings that are easily digested.
b. fleshy, nutritious fruits.
c. lightweight structure
d. unripened ovaries.
Answer:
b. seed coat.
a. hormones
d. competition.
a. produce seeds
b. fleshy, nutritious fruits.
Which of these species typically has a mortality rate that remains fairly constant over an individual's life span?
Robins have a generally steady death rate over the course of their lifespan.
Because they give their young more time and attention than other species, K-selected species have such a low biotic potential but just a high survival rate. In animals with a large number of young, the majority of whom pass away very young in life, Type III survival curves are observed. Type III survivorship curves are seen in a variety of species, including plants, oysters, and sea urchins. One illustration is how individuals of a group compete for scarce food. Density-independent variables impact per capita rate of growth independent of density of population. Natural catastrophes like forest fires are examples. Robins have a generally steady death rate over the course of their lifespan. A given growth cycle or time period's mortality rate, which is reported as a percentage, tracks the number of fatalities in your animal population.
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The secondary response in the B cell response occurs when memory cells bind to
Answer:
the antigen or similar antigens will respond.
Explanation:
Cell cycle checkpoints are an important feature of a dividing cell to reduce errors that can occur in various stages of the cell cycle. Loss of Rb, an important part of the G1-S transition checkpoint, can result in uncontrolled cell cycle progression and cancer. All of the following would mimic loss of Rb except:
Constitutively active G1-CDK Constitutively active ERK Constitutively active E2F Constitutively active Myc Constitutively active Ras GTPase activating protein
Loss of Rb, an important part of the G1-S transition checkpoint, can result in uncontrolled cell cycle progression and cancer. All of the following would mimic loss of Rb except constitutively active Ras GTPase activating protein. Correct answer: letter E.
Constitutively active Ras GTPase activating protein would not mimic loss of Rb, because it would not directly result in uncontrolled cell cycle progression.
What is Retinoblastoma (RB)?Rb is an important tumor suppressor protein that works to inhibit cell cycle progression by preventing the activation of E2F transcription factors. Constitutively active Ras GTPase activating protein would not directly interfere with the Rb-E2F pathway, which is necessary for uncontrolled cell cycle progression and cancer.
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How were Lamarck's and Darwin's ideas similar?; What was different about Darwin's theory evolution compared to Lamarck's theory?; How did Jean Baptiste Lamarck influence Darwin?; What were the two main points of Lamarck's theory of evolution?
Unlike Darwin, Lamarck thought that living things progressed in an upward direction, from dead materials through simple to more sophisticated forms, eventually leading to human "perfection." Lamarck maintained that extinctions did not result in the extinction of species. Instead, they evolved into different species.
In terms of how they defined evolution, both Lamarck and Darwin thought that living things, such as animals and plants, change over time to become more adapted to their environments.
Lamarck's Theory has two main claims. Two major claims about adaptation were made by Lamarck's theory of evolution: simple to complex. Lamarck asserted that as organisms evolve, they become more complex and specialized. Nature is pure.
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in the citric acid cycle also called the krebs cycle atp molecules are produced by
In the citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation is produced, process where electron transfer from the citric acid cycle's energy precursors leads to the phosphorylation of ADP produces ATP molecules.
While some ATP is produced by the Krebs cycle's GTP, the majority of ATP produced during aerobic respiration originates through oxidative phosphorylation. The electron transport chain that powers this process and finally results in the production of 38 molecules of ATP is fed by the NADH and FADH produced during the Krebs cycle.
The second stage of cellular respiration is called the Krebs cycle. It takes place in the cell's mitochondria. The Krebs cycle results in the production of 2 ATP molecules. The citric acid cycle was discovered by British biochemist Sir Hans Adolf Krebs (1900–1981). (Krebs cycle). In 1953, he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology. The citric acid cycle in eukaryotic cells uses one molecule of acetyl CoA to produce three NADH, one FADH2, two CO2, and three H+.
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What is happening on section B of the graph? Justify your reasoning. Include a term to
describe this part of the graph.
Answer:
Based on the graph, it appears that section B represents a period of exponential growth. In this section of the graph, the rate of change of the data is increasing at a faster rate. This is indicated by the steep slope of the line and the fact that the line is getting farther away from the horizontal axis as it moves to the right.
Exponential growth is a pattern of growth that occurs when a quantity increases by a fixed percentage over a certain period of time. It is often represented by a curve that starts out relatively flat, but then becomes increasingly steep as it approaches the vertical axis. Exponential growth can be seen in many real-world situations, such as the growth of a population or the spread of a disease.
Explanation:
What percentage of cytosine If thymine is 15%?; Is 15% of the bases in a DNA molecule are adenine what percentage is cytosine?; What percentage of the sample is made up of cytosine C?; What percentage of DNA is made up of cytosine?
The concentration of these four bases will equal 100% when combined, in this instance, 15% of Thymine and 15% of Adenine will equal 30%. Guanine and cytosine make up the remaining 70%, or 35% guanine and 35% cytosine.
Adenine bases make up precisely 15% of a DNA sample if thymine bases make up 15% of the sample. This is based on Chargaff's rule, which states that adenine and thymine levels, cytosine and guanine ratios, and purine and pyrimidine stoichiometry should all be 1:1 in an organism's DNA. By joining with guanine to create base pairs, cytosine is crucial in the formation of the genetic code contained in both DNA and RNA.
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which of the following is an example of a disease, caused by a virus transmitted by means of bodily fluids, that devastates the immune system?
One illness that completely destroys the immune system is HIV, which is brought on by a virus that is spread by body fluids.
What is an illness, exactly?Any adverse variation from an organism's normal structural or physiological condition, typically accompanied by a few symptoms or signs and distinct from physical damage in nature. A sick creature frequently shows indications or indicators that point toward its aberrant condition.
What triggers illness?The five classes of pathogenic organisms include viruses, bacteria, fungus, protozoa, & helminths (worms). Typically considered parasitic, protozoa & nematodes are the focus of the field of parasitology, while microbiology studies hiv, bacteria, and fungus.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the chemiosmotic coupling between mitochondrial ATP synthesis and electron flow through the respiratory chain?
a. Inhibition of electron flow inhibits mitochondrial ATP synthesis, and inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis inhibits electron flow.
b. Inhibition of electron flow does not inhibit mitochondrial ATP synthesis, and inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis does not inhibit electron flow.
c. Inhibition of electron flow inhibits mitochondrial ATP synthesis, but inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis does not inhibit electron flow.
d. Inhibition of electron flow does not inhibit mitochondrial ATP synthesis, but inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis inhibits electron flow.
Inhibition of electron flow inhibits mitochondrial ATP synthesis, and inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis inhibits electron flow. The difference in hydrogen ion concentration between the matrix of actively respiring mitochondria and the intermembrane space is the foundation of the chemiosmotic coupling mechanism.
The potential energy of the proton gradient that has formed between the inter-membrane space and matrix of the mitochondria is the immediate energy source that propels ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation. The pumping of protons that occurs along with the exchange of electrons is what produces the hydrogen ion gradient.
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A population of 1,000 birds exists on a small Pacific island. some of the birds are yellow, a characteristic determined by a recessive allele. The others are Green, characteristic determined by a dominant allele. A hurricane on the island kills most of the birds from this population. Only ten remain, and those birds all have yellow feathers. Which of the following statements is true? a. The hurricane has caused a population bottleneck and a loss of genetic diversity. b. This situation illustrates the effect of a mutation event. c. Assuming that no new birds come to the island and no mutations occur, future generations of this population will contain both green and yellow birds. d. There has been no change in allele frequency.
a. The hurricane has caused a population bottleneck and a loss of genetic diversity.
Dominant traits are always expressed when the connected allele is dominant, even if only one copy of the dominant trait exists. Recessive traits are expressed only if both the connected alleles are recessive. If one of the alleles is dominant, then the associated characteristic is less likely to manifest.Dominant alleles show their effect even if the individual only has one copy of the allele (also known as being heterozygous?). For example, the allele for brown eyes is dominant, therefore you only need one copy of the 'brown eye' allele to have brown eyes (although, with two copies you will still have brown eyes).Individuals inherit two versions of each gene, known as alleles, from each parent. In the case of a recessive trait, the alleles of the trait-causing gene are the same, and both (recessive) alleles must be present to express the trait. A recessive allele does not produce a trait at all when only one copy is present.
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So recently my baby turtle seems to have died i still have him im not sure if hes really dead or not how do i know if hes dead and do turtles have muscle memory?
Answer:
I'm sorry to hear about your turtle. It can be difficult to determine if a turtle is dead or just inactive, as they are known to have periods of inactivity. Here are some signs that may indicate that your turtle has passed away:
Lack of movement: If your turtle is not moving or responding to stimuli, it could be a sign that they have passed away.
Lack of respiration: You can check for signs of respiration by gently placing your hand near the turtle's nostrils and watching for any movement of the chest or abdomen. If you do not see any movement, it could be a sign that the turtle has stopped breathing.
Lack of reflexes: If you gently pinch the skin on the turtle's leg and do not get a reflexive response, it could be a sign that the turtle has passed away.
It is important to note that turtles can go into a state of torpor, where they become inactive and their bodily functions slow down significantly. This can sometimes be mistaken for death, so it is always best to consult with a veterinarian if you are concerned about the health of your turtle.
As for muscle memory, it is not clear if turtles have the same type of muscle memory as humans. However, it is known that turtles can learn through repetition and can remember certain behaviors and patterns.
Which animal is likely to have the highest basal metabolic rate (oxygen consumption per unit body mass)? A. Gray wolf B. Pygmy mouse c. Sperm whale D. Desert cottontail rabbit E. Flying squirrel
The animal with the highest basal metabolic rate is probably the sperm whale (oxygen consumption per unit body mass)
What is body mass ?
Weight in kilograms (or pounds) divided by height in meters squared yields the Body Mass Index (BMI) of a person (or feet). High levels of body fat may be indicated by a high BMI. Although BMI does not make a body fat or health diagnosis for an individual, it does screen for weight categories that may cause issues with one's health.
BMI's significance
A mathematician from Belgium named Lambert Adolphe Jacques Quetelet created the BMI in the 1830s. A different name for it is the Quetelet index.
With the help of BMI, you may roughly estimate your level of overall health as well as your chance of contracting long-term diseases including high blood pressure, heart disease, type 2 diabetes, osteoarthritis, gallstones, and so forth.
A highly muscular person can have a high BMI without any danger to their health.
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Given the DNA strand below,
transcribe and translate it.
TACAAGCCTACT
Which of the following is a method that geneticists use to determine if an individual has chromosome abnormalities?
karyotype of the individual’s chromosomes
DNA fingerprinting of the individual
X-ray of the individual
examination of the meiosis process of the chromosomes
Answer:
The karyotype of the individual’s chromosomes
Explanation:
fill in the genotypes of the individuals whose genotypes can be deduced. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets. labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes, some heterozygotes exhibit a phenotype. Due to partial dominance, neither allele is totally dominant over the other in this case.
How does one determine a genotype?A Punnett square can be used to ascertain a genotype. If you're working in a more sophisticated lab, you can identify the genotypes present using analytical techniques like PCR analysis and nucleic acid hybridization.
Which letter is assigned to the genotype, and how is that determined?Genotype is a term used to describe an organism's genes; it is represented by two letters for a single trait. An allele's dominant form is denoted by a capital letter, and its recessive form is denoted by a lowercase letter.
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The student can describe the basic characteristics of fungi including their nutrition, reproduction, structure, classification and their importance in soil ecology and medicine. True or False
yes. the students can easily explain about the basic characteristics of fungi including their nutrition, reproduction, structure, classification and their importance in soil ecology and medicine
Because fungi are eukaryotic organisms, they have real nuclei that are surrounded by membranes. These organisms lack blood vessels. They have no vascular system. Cell barriers exist in fungi. For fungus, there is no embryonic stage.They divide with the use of spores. Spores can be either sexual or asexual. Sporangiospores, Aplanospores, Zoospores, Conidia, and other asexual spores include Oospores, Zygospores, Ascospores, and Basidiospores.
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Need this asp
Nucleotides contain sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. Which of the following is a nitrogen base? (1 point)
A. ribose
B. tyrosine
C. deoxyribose
D. guanine
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Guanine is a nitrogen base
Circle plots show changes in cancer genomes vs. the reference genome. Use the circle plot below to answer the following question.
Which tumor has more inversions?
Tumor 1
The plot's outer circle represents the reference genome, and the inner circle shows the modifications made to the cancer genome. The storyline may depict cancer.
Which genome serves as the human genome's reference?A human genome reference sequence is a recognized representation of the human genome sequence that scientists use as a benchmark when evaluating DNA sequences produced for their research.
A reference sequence is defined.Genomic DNA, transcripts, and proteins are all included in the Reference Sequencing (RefSeq) collection, which offers a thorough, integrated, non-redundant sequence resource. RefSeq sequences serve as the basis for investigations on health, function, and diversity.
As a result, reference genomes are invaluable to scientists since they serve as a model.
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