chloroplast is the part whose main job is to use energy from sunlight to make sugar in a plant cell.
A plastid or chloroplast is a membrane-bound organelle that primarily performs photosynthesis in plant and algal cells. While releasing oxygen from water in the cells, the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll absorbs energy from sunlight, transforms it, and stores it in the energy-storage molecules ATP and NADPH. The Calvin cycle is the mechanism by which organic molecules are produced from carbon dioxide using ATP and NADPH. Other tasks performed by chloroplasts in plants include the synthesis of fatty acids, amino acids, and the immunological response.
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The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus belongs to which domain? Eukarya Archaea Prokarya Protista Bacteria Question 14 (1.5 points) Listen The major ~driving force behind evolution that explains why organisms are more suited or adapted to their local environment is: natural selection. asexual reprocuction sexual reproduction; homeostasis; none 0f the above
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus belongs to Eukarya Bacteria. The major driving force behind evolution that explains why organisms are more suited or adapted to their local environment is natural selection.
What is Staphylococcus aureus?
Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive, spherically shaped bacterium that belongs to the Bacillota and is frequently found in the upper respiratory tract and on the skin. It belongs to eubacteria because they lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound cell organelles. They are microscopic and unicellular organisms.
What is natural selection?
Natural selection is the mechanism through which living creature populations adapt and change. It is an evolutionary mechanism. Organisms that are better adapted to their surroundings are more likely to survive and pass on the genes that helped them thrive. Species change and diverge as a result of this process.
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus belongs to Eukarya Bacteria. The major driving force behind evolution that explains why organisms are more suited or adapted to their local environment is natural selection.
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Part A Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? any sagittal plane except in the midline two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves transverse cut just above the knees any cul dividing' the body into anterior and posterior portions Submit Request Answer
A vertical cut that is off-center and divides the specimen's left and right halves unevenly is known as a parasagittal plane.
As long as they are not equal, it does not matter which side is bigger—the left or the right. Anatomy and physiology are filled with jargon, much like all other scientific fields.
The direction of human anatomy is slightly different. Humans prefer to align themselves vertically, but other animals tend to align themselves horizontally, therefore this isn't because of any differences in human structure. As shown in the figure below, the sagittal plane still divides humans into left and right halves but now runs vertically.
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Which repair process in E. coli uses visible light to repair thymine dimers? Which repair process in E. coli uses visible light to repair thymine dimers?
photoreactivation repair
nonhomologous end joining
homologous recombination (synthesis-dependent strand annealing)
base excision repair
nucleotide excision repair
The bonds created during pyrimidine dimerization are repair during photoreactivation using the enzyme photolyase. The photolyase repair mechanism in E. coli binds a thymine dimer created by UV light.
Two-strand DNA damage in Escherichia coli(E. coli), which is mostly created during replication on template DNA with one-strand damage, is repaired by recombination with a homologous undamaged duplex, often the sister chromosome. DNA repair from exposure to UV light may be repaired by E. coli, which are DNA repair enzymes. Both the activation of these enzymes and the actual DNA repair process depend on visible light .
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witch of the following statements regarding enzymes is NOT true
The statements regarding enzymes that is NOT true is option A. Enzymes increase the kinetic barrier.
Do enzymes affect the kinetics of a reaction?Enzymes, like other catalysts, don't change the substrate-product equilibrium position. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions, in contrast to chemical reactions that are not catalyzed, exhibit saturation kinetics.
Note that Proteins called enzymes aid in accelerating metabolism, or the chemical reactions in our bodies. Some substances are built, while others are deconstructed. Enzymes are a component of all life. Enzymes are produced by our bodies on their own.
Therefore, Instead of raising the kinetic barrier, enzymes lower it (the statement "Enzymes increase the kinetic barrier" is a false statement and is the correct answer choice here). Enzymes lower the activation energy (the claim that "Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the energy of activation" is accurate and correct), are not consumed in reactions, and have no impact on a reaction's thermodynamics.
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Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is NOT true?
A. Enzymes increase the kinetic barrier.
B. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the energy of activation.
C. Enzymes are not used up during reactions.
D. Enzymes do not affect the thermodynamics of a reaction.
what plant trait does dr. denison believe could increase drought tolerance and yields in crop plants in the face of climate change?
The plant trait that could increase drought tolerance and yields in crop plants are:
Plants that shut their stomata in the afternoon.Plants that are more selective in binding to CO₂ and rejecting O₂.In the case of the question above, Dr. Denison seems to want to produce plants that have increased drought tolerance as well as increased yields in crop plants because of climate change. There are two traits that can achieve these objectives, which are:
Plants that have the ability to shut their stomata in the afternoon.Afternoon hours have the highest evaporation rate in plants. Shutting stomata during the afternoon prevents water loss since most water is evaporated through the stomata.
More selective in plants. More specifically, better in binding to CO₂ and rejecting O₂.This can be achieved by producing plants with a rubisco enzyme.
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what is the best strategy that can be used to specifically target the mutant htt allele responsible for huntington disease without causing off-target effects? group of answer choices
The best strategy that can be used to specifically target the mutant HTT allele responsible for Huntington Disease without causing off-target effects is option C: make sure that no sequences in the genome are identical or too similar to the 20 bp sequence involved in base pairing between the sgRNA and the target site.
It is essential to distinguish mutant HTT from wild-type HTT, either at the enlarged CAG repeat itself or associated SNPs identified preferentially on the mutant HTT transcript, in order to selectively target mutant HTT for gene silencing or editing. Therefore, selective suppression of mutant HTT may offer greater tolerability and effectiveness during prolonged, potentially lifelong HTT suppressive therapy periods. Thus, option C marks the right answer.
Huntington's disease (HD) is brought on by mutated HTT, which has also been studied for its potential involvement in long-term memory storage. Due to the numerous polymorphisms of the gene, the protein's structure can vary depending on the quantity of glutamine residues that are present.
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Complete question is:
The following diagram shows the complex between an sgRNA and a target site in the genome where Cas9 cuts DNA at the indicated positions. The protospacer adjacent motif or PAM site (5'-NGG-3' on one strand; N is any base) needs to be present adjacent to the target site in order for Cas9-mediated cleavage to occur. One problem associated with CRISPR/Cas9 technology is off-target effects. Part of the reason is that single base-pair mismatches between the target site and the sgRNA in the 20 bp DNA/RNA hybrid do not prevent Cas9 cleavage of the target site. What strategy do you need to use in order to target the mutant Htt allele that causes Huntington disease without off-target effects?
a. Look for a unique target sequence in the Htt gene that lacks a PAM site nearby.
b. Use mutant Cas 9 enzyme with decreased target specificity.
c. Make sure that no sequences in the genome are identical or too similar to the 20 bp sequence involved in base pairing between the sgRNA and the target site.
d. Use multiple sgRNAs, each of which has one mismatch with the target sequence at different positions.
e. Design sgRNA that can base pair with several regions in the genome including the Htt gene locus to ensure efficient cleavage of the mutant allele.
releases hormones that increase the rate of cellular respiration throughout the body
The thyroid produces hormones that speed up cellular respiration all around the body.
What do hormones do to a girl?Female ovaries are specifically targeted by FSH and LH because they contain eggs that have been there from conception. The follicles begin producing estrogen, a separate hormone, as a result of the hormones. Hormone, FSH, and LH cause a girl's body to develop in order to get her ready for pregnancy.
What are female hormones called?Estrogens are a class of hormones that are essential for women's healthy sexual and reproductive development. They are steroid hormones as well. The majority the estrogen hormones are produced by a woman's ovaries, however minor amounts are also produced in modest amounts even by adrenal cortex and fat cells.
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List three ways innovation in the Gilded Age changed America
Answer:
bridges and canals, elevators and skyscrapers, trolley lines and subways.
Explanation:
Innovations of the Gilded Age helped usher in modern America. Urbanization and technological creativity led to many engineering advances such as bridges and canals, elevators and skyscrapers, trolley lines and subways.
correctly label the following external anatomy of the posterior heart
The picture following shows the anatomy of the human heart from the posterior view. The posterior means we see the human body from the back side, which means the human heart in this part. The most dominant part of the posterior of the heart is the left atrium.
Blood circulation in the heart is following. Oxygenated blood comes to the heart via the left pulmonary veins, bringing oxygen and nutrients for the body, that go to the left atrium. Then pumped into the left ventricle. After that blood goes to the aorta to be distributed to every part of the body that needed it.
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QUESTION 5 Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? a.Natural killer cells b.T-cells c.B-cells d.Macrophages
Macrophages are not a lymphocyte. There are three primary kinds of lymphocytes: B cells, T-cells, and natural killer cells.
The T-cells, B-cells, and the natural killer (NK) cells are known as lymphocytes since they start from similar progenitor cells known as normal lymphoid progenitor cells. Lymphocytes are a sort of white platelet (or leukocyte). They assist a life form with battling diseases. They happen in a safe arrangement, everything being equal. In human grown-ups, lymphocytes make up about 20 to 40 percent of the complete number of white platelets. They are tracked down in the course and furthermore are packed in focal lymphoid organs and tissues, like the spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes, where the underlying safe reaction is probably going to happen.
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what are the three layers of connective tissue surrounding skeletal muscle? describe what each layer surrounds specifically.
There are three layers of connective tissue surrounding the skeletal muscle endomysium, which separates it from other muscle fibers. A fasciculus, a bundle of up to 150 fibers, is enclosed within the perimysium. The epimysium, a fibrous connective tissue fascia, covers the entire muscle.
Nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissue make up the muscles in the skeleton. There are three connective tissue layers: the minerals endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium. The groups of muscle fibers in the skeleton are called fascicles. Through the connective tissue, blood vessels and nerves branch out into the cell. Tendons or aponeuroses connect muscles to bones directly. Skeletal muscles control internal movement, generate heat, stabilize bones and joints, and maintain posture.
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name 2 major subdivision of the pns
An afferent (sensory) division and an efferent (motor) division are additional divisions of the peripheral nervous system.
Which two primary divisions of the PNS?Somatic and autonomic nervous systems are additional divisions of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system is connected to the skin and muscles and is responsible for conscious functions.
What divisions of PNS are there?The somatic system, the autonomic system, and the nerves make up the peripheral nervous system. There are two further divisions of the autonomic nervous system: sympathetic and parasympathetic. The peripheral nervous system's enteric nervous system is a separate component of this system.
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photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from
The majority of photosynthesis-capable species are photoautotrophs, which means they can use light energy to directly create food out of carbon dioxide and water.
Plants and other living things use a process called photosynthesis to convert light energy into chemical energy that can later be released through cellular respiration to power the organism's activities. The process of turning carbon dioxide and water into molecules of carbohydrates is known as photosynthesis, which is derived from the Greek words for "light" and "putting together." With some of this chemical energy, these molecules, including sugars and starches, are then stored. The majority of plants, algae, and cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs—animals that engage in photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is primarily responsible for generating and preserving the energy needed for life on Earth, as well as for a large portion of the oxygen present in the atmosphere.
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Complete question is:
what do photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from?
ardipthecus ramidus can be described as: a) possessing thin tooth enamel b) lacking any knuckle-walking adaptations c) human-like lower limb proportions d) lack of a canine diastema
Ardipthecus ramidus can be described as:
(D) lack of a canine diastema.
What is canine diastema?
Canine diastema is a void or opening between the canine and teeth next to it. It enables the upper and lower teeth to bite together by making room for the point of the opposing canine tooth that is projecting.
An australopithecine species called Ardipithecus ramidus lived 4.4 million years ago in the Afar area of Early Pliocene Ethiopia. Ramidus, as opposed to modern hominids, has evolved for both life in the trees (arboreality) and walking on two legs (bipedality).
This species could travel on all four limbs in trees and was a facultative biped that stood erect on the ground. The anatomy has very basic characteristics. Upper canines are evolved from Australopithecus afarensis and have a diamond form as opposed to the pointed shape seen in African apes.
The discovery of Ardipithecus closes one of the last significant gaps in the history of humanity. It demonstrates that the last animal that humans and chimpanzees had in common was not even biologically similar to chimps.
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Which of the following happens as electrons pass down the Electron Transport Chain?
A. Energy from the moving electrons transports H^+ ions into the intermembrane space.
B. Carbon dioxide is released.
C. Energy from H+ ions crossing back into the matrix causes ATP synthase to make ATP.
D. Water is produced.
As electrons are passed down the electron transport chain to the final electron acceptor, energy from the moving electrons transports hydrogen ions into the inter membrane space.
Which of the following happens as electrons pass down the electron transport chain?As electrons are passed down the chain, they move from a higher to a lower energy level, releasing energy. Some of the energy is used to pump H +start superscript, plus, end superscript ions, moving them out of the matrix and into the intermembrane space. This pumping establishes an electrochemical gradient.
How are the electrons passed through the electron transport chain?Each electron donor will pass electrons to an acceptor of higher redox potential, which in turn donates these electrons to another acceptor, a process that continues down the series until electrons are passed to oxygen, the terminal electron acceptor in the chain. To oxygen, the final electron acceptor in the chain, electrons are transferred.
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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
The trp operon, for instance, is a repressible operon with five structural genes. E. coli does not need to synthesis tryptophan if it is already present in the environment; the trp operon is turned off. However, the switch governing the operon is activated when tryptophan availability is low.
In E. coli, the trp operon controls the expression of genes that code for the enzymes needed to synthesise the amino acid tryptophan. A repressible operon is the trp operon. The trp repressor protein suppresses trp when tryptophan is not present in the environment. Rna polymerase can thus attach to the start. to start transcribed transcription.Your inherited genes affect many traits, including the colour of your skin and hair. Emma's mother, who may have two genes—one for brown hair and one for red haircould have given her the red hair gene. If her father possesses two genes for the hue, she might get red hair.Your genes carry instructions that control the development and operation of your cells. the starting point Your genes carry instructions that control the development and operation of your cells. Cells serve as the body's building blocks. Your body is made up of billions of cells that work together to produce each part. The structures that keep genes in place are called chromosomes.
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5. if 5.0 w of 290 nm uv light is absorbed by dna in your skin during a tanning parlor session lasting 1 hour (3600 seconds), and if the quantum yield for producing thymine dimers (major cause of skin cancer) is 0.0001, what would be the number of moles of thymine dimers produced?
If the quantum yield for producing thymine dimers (major cause of skin cancer) is 0.0001, then the number of moles of thymine dimers produced is 1.2 * 10^-9 moles.
How to calculate the number of moles of thymine dimers produced?The mole is defined as the amount of substance that contains as many as elementary entities as there are atoms in exactly 12g of carbon-12. Mole is also the SI unit for the amount of substance.
Energy E = n * h * c / λ
Where E = 5w = 5J/s
n = no of molecules
h = planck's constant (6.6 * [tex]10^{-34}[/tex])
c = 3 * [tex]10^{8}[/tex](from literature)
λ = 290 * [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] (wavelength)
So, now let's use the formula
5 = [tex]\frac{n * 6.6 * 10^{-34} * 3 * 10^{8} }{290 * 10{-9} }[/tex]
n = 7.323 * [tex]10^{18}[/tex]
Moles of photon = 7.323 * 10^18 / Na
Na = 6.023 * 10^23 atoms (from literature)
= [tex]\frac{7.323*10^{18} }{6.023*10^{23} }[/tex]
= 1.22 * [tex]10^{-5[/tex]
Now, using the quantum yield formula
Quantum yield = moles of thymine dimer produced / moles of photon absorbed
0.0001 = moles of thymine dimer produced / 1.22 * [tex]10^{-5[/tex]
moles of thymine dimers produced = 0.0001 * 1.22 * [tex]10^{-5[/tex]
= 1.2 * [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] moles
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what prevents further rearrangement of ig heavy chain gene segments in a pre-b cell once a productive heavy chain rearrangement has occurred?
pre-B cells generate a productive allele, they assemble a pre-B cell receptor complex, which signals their differentiation into pre-B cells and clonal expansion.
Pre-B cell receptor signals are also thought to contribute to allelic exclusion by preventing other IgHs. Immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) is the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody (immunoglobulin). In the human genome, the IgH gene loci are found on the chromosome. Thus, signaling the completion of a productive rearrangement, the synthesis of an immunoglobulin heavy or light chain and its assembly into a receptor (either the pre-B cell receptor or IgM) leads to the continuation of maturation of the B cell and ultimately arrest of further rearrangements.
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what is a clone? what is a clone? an exact copy of a dna, cell, or organism any animal that contains recombinant dna a protein produced by a recombinant bacterium any cell that contains recombinant dna
Clone is a cell or group of cells that is genetically identical to its ancestor cell or group of cells.
In general, DNA cloning is considered as the process of making multiple and also the identical copies of specific DNA. This takes place with the help of DNA cloning procedure, the gene or any DNA fragment of interest like the disease resistance gene, is first inserted into a circular piece of DNA called a plasmid. Then they are transformed into the host cell genome.
Hence, Cloning is considered as a process through which a genetic identical copy of the cell or organism is generated. Cloning happens all the time in nature.
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the digestive system can be thought of as a long tube with how many openings? a.) 1 b.) 3 c.) 2 d.) 4
The digestive system can be thought of as a long tube with 2 major openings that is mouth and anus, which suggests that option C is the right answer.
Digestive system is the organ system in the body which produces enzymes and other juices to digest the food that we take in. These enzymes break the complex particles into smaller ones. The first opening of digestive system comes form the mouth itself while the next opening goes towards the anus. Alimentary canal, mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine etc. are the main parts of digestive system. Millions of microscopic finger-like projections called villi line the inside of the small intestine.
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label each step with the appropriate description.
Because the sodium potassium pump operates via an active transport mechanism,
ATP is required for it to function. Active transport is best shown by the sodium potassium pump.
There are numerous binding sites on the sodium potassium pump. 3. Na+ binding sites and two K+ binding sites •
After binding of three Na+ ions to the carrier protein, an ATP is split, releasing a phosphate group. This phosphate attaches to the outside of the carrier protein, causing it to change shape.
• Protein shape changes result in the release of three Na+ ions into the interstitial fluid.
• When two potassium ions bind within the carrier protein, the shape changes again. One additional phosphate group is released here.
• Finally, the potassium molecule K+ ions are discharged into the environment.
• Finally, potassium ions (K+ ions) are discharged into the cytosol. The carrier returns to its original form, completing the cycle.
Thus, for every 3Na+ ions that leave the cell, 2K+ ions enter.
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Full Question :
Label Each Step With The Appropriate Description. Potassium Ions Released Into Cytosol. Inter Cyton Plasma Membrane ATP Dinding
layer of connective tissue that surrounds an individual muscle fiber
Endomysium is the layer of connective tissue that surrounds an individual muscle fibers.
A complex network of connective tissue called the endomysium surrounds each individual muscle fiber, housing the arteries, nerves, and proteoglycan matrix necessary for metabolic and ion exchange. Each individual muscle fiber, or muscle cell, is sheathed in the thin layer of areolar connective tissue known as the endomysium, or within the muscle.
Nerves and capillaries are also present. The sarcolemma covers the cell membrane of the muscle fiber. The tiniest and deepest part of muscular connective tissue is called endomysium. The excitement and subsequent contraction of a muscle fiber depend on the exchange of calcium, sodium, and potassium, all of which are supported by this thin layer.
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the presence of spiracles in insects means that insects are able to:what is one of the primary reasons given for why there are very few fossils from the earliest (pre-ediacaran fauna) animals? the area covered with water was much smaller than present day; therefore, there were fewer places for fossilization to occur on the ocean floor. the earliest animals were distributed in high oxygen environments and decomposition occurred too rapidly for fossilization to occur. the earliest animals were small and soft-bodied and did not have body parts that could be fossilized easily. the area covered by land, where early animals lived, was small; therefore, there were fewer opportunities for sedimentary rocks to form fossils.
The primary germ layers spiracles in insects (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm) are established when the zygote develops through a number of developmental stages in animals.
What is one of the main explanations presented as to why the oldest fossils are so scarce?Why are there so few fossils of the oldest (pre-Ediacaran fauna) animals? What is one of the main explanations given? The EARLIEST animals had SOFT bodies and lacked the necessary body parts that could be preserved as fossils via mineralization.
why was it thought that the earliest animals did not leave behind petrified bones?Why is it assumed that the earliest animals left no fossilized bones behind? Due to the lack of bones in early creatures, no fossilized bones have ever been found. They search for flat regions, cayons, trails, footprints, and anything else that has been abandoned.
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which of the following statements correctly characterizes intestinal peristalsis? a. peristalsis results from sequential contraction and relaxation of circular and longitudinal muscle layers within the muscularis externa. b. small intestinal peristalsis occurs more frequently and is more easily identifiable with sonography, as compared to large intestinal peristalsis. c. large intestinal peristalsis is characterized by infrequent, forceful, yet short-lived mass movements of colonic contents. d. all of the above e. none of the above
The muscularis external's circular and longitudinal muscle layers contract and relax one after the other, producing peristalsis.
Food is moved through the digestive tract by a sequence of wave-like muscle contractions called peristalsis. The process begins in the esophagus, where powerful waves of smooth muscle transport balls of swallowed food to the stomach. The food is then broken down into a liquid substance called chyme there, where peristalsis proceeds. It may be simpler to see the wave-like action if you stretch out a segment of intestine. The chyme is mixed and shifted back and forth by the action. As a result, nutrients can be absorbed by the bloodstream through the small intestine's walls. Peristalsis in the large intestine aids in the absorption of water from undigested food into the blood stream.
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explain how the addition of acetyl groups to histones leads to a weaker association of dna in nucleosomes.
The ionic contact between phosphate and the lysine side chain is prevented by acetylation of the lysine side chain, which also reduces the interaction between the histone and the DNA.
What is histones ?
The protein known as a histone helps chromosomes maintain their structural integrity. A lengthy DNA molecule found within each chromosome needs to fit within the cell nucleus. The DNA does this by encircling assemblies of histone proteins, giving the chromosome a more streamlined form. In the control of gene expression, histones also have a part to play.
A nucleosome, which can be made up of eight histone proteins, is a possible configuration. When DNA is wound around a nucleosome, it resembles a small spool. Thus, histones are crucial in ensuring that the genome is well-organized and encased within a cell. Histone proteins can also be labelled in ways similar to open or closed business signs, which is another intriguing feature.
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failure to cite a compete reference for your claim is called a) proof surragate, b) hasty generalization, c) ancedotal exvidence, d) biased generization
The correct option is D : Biased generization, failure to cite a compete reference for your claim is called Biased generization
Citations also indicate that you have done the correct research work and that you've read acceptable books for your task. Failure to cite simply indicates that you are claiming that the entire document and all of its material as yours and, if that's accurate, it's plagiarism.
Anytime you copy and paste verbatim from a source and do not give the source credit it is plagiarism.
If you do copy and paste a piece word for word, you must put the content in quotes (i.e. " ") marks and provide credit to the author. This is termed a direct quotation.
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if 1000 f2 offspring resulted from self-pollination of the f1 generation, how many of them would be expected to have red axial flowers?
As it is a dihybrid cross, the F2 generation, will have offsprings in the ratio of 9:3:3:1. The dominant phenotype is red and axial, therefore the dominant phenotypes are in the frequency 9/16. So, the total number of such offsprings are (9/16) × 1000 = 562.5 ≈ 562
What is dihybrid cross?A dihybrid cross is a breeding experiment between two organisms which are identical hybrids for two traits. A dihybrid cross is a cross between two organisms, with both being heterozygous for two different traits.
What is self pollination?In this process, the pollen grains transfer from the stigma of the same or genetically similar flower. Self pollination can be observed in the legumes such as orchids, sunflowers, peas, peanuts, oats, peaches, potatoes, wheat and others.
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If 1000 f2 offspring resulted from self-pollination of the f1 generation, 562 of them would be expected to have red axial flowers.
What is dihybrid cross?
In a genetics experiment known as a dihybrid cross, the phenotypes of two genes are tracked by the mating of individuals who have multiple alleles at those gene loci. The majority of sexually reproducing organisms possess two copies of each gene, enabling them to harbor two distinct alleles.
The red and terminal flowers on the F1 individuals are heterozygous in nature. The F2 generation will have offspring in the ratio of 9:3:3:1 because it is a dihybrid cross. The frequency 9/16 contains the dominant phenotypes. Therefore, the total number of such descendants is (9/16)*1000=562.
Therefore the f1 generation, 562 of them would be expected to have red axial flowers.
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The chart describes four objects experiencing one or more frictional forces. A 1-column table labeled object with entries a bike being ridden down a hill, a sled going down a snowy hill, a braked motorcycle skidding, an elephant standing still. Which statement explains the type of friction acting on each object? The bike has rolling friction, the sled and the motorcycle have sliding friction, and the elephant has static friction. The bike and sled have sliding friction, and the motorcycle and elephant have static friction. The bike has static friction, the sled and elephant have sliding friction, and the motorcycle has rolling friction. The bike and motorcycle have rolling friction, the sled has static friction, and the elephant has sliding friction.
The statement that explains the type of friction acting on each object is option a. The bike has rolling friction, the sled and the motorcycle have sliding friction, and the elephant has static friction.
The rider and every part of the bike are drawn toward the earth by gravity, as it is with all masses. There are ground reaction forces with both horizontal and vertical components at each tire contact patch. The vertical elements largely oppose the pull of gravity.
Note that Gravity, the ground, friction, rolling resistance, and air resistance are the bike's main external forces.
Since the force that holds an object at rest is called static friction. The definition of static friction is: The resistance people feel when they attempt to move a stationary object across a surface without actually causing any relative motion between their body and the surface they are moving the object across.
Therefore, in the case above, the sled has static friction, the sled and motorcycle have rolling friction, and the elephant has sliding friction.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
i got it right on the test hope this helps
Label each element involved in bacterial transcription in the figure. Transcription Start site Am"TJI RTATTA IGACA n,nnond TATAAT
RTge each element labelled are RNA Polymerase is the enzyme that produces the mRNA molecule (similar to DNA polymerase produced a brand new DNA molecule for the duration of DNA replication).
Prokaryotes use the equal RNA polymerase to transcribe all in their genes. In E. coli, the polymerase consists of 5 polypeptide subunits. Bacteria have a single cell RNA polymerase (RNAP), whose 'holoenzyme' shape has 5 subunits: copies of the quite small α-subunit (every approximately 36 kDa), one replica every of massive β- and β′-subunits (151 kDa and a hundred and fifty five kDa, respectively), and one replica of the σ-subunit, additionally known as the 'sigma factor.
Bacterial multisubunit DNA-based RNA polymerase (RNAP) is the important thing enzyme of gene expression and a goal of regulation. It is liable for the synthesis of all RNAs withinside the cellular the use of ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs) substrates.
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what would be the result of a cytosine base being substituted for a thymine base in a dna segment during dna replication? (1 point) responses the entire segment of dna would be affected. the entire segment of dna would be affected. the sequence could code for the wrong amino acid during translation. the sequence could code for the wrong amino acid during translation. there would be no effect on the dna. there would be no effect on the dna., the cytosine base would pair with adenine when the dna was replicated.
The sequence could code for the incorrect amino acid during translation if a cytosine base is changed to a thymine base in a DNA segment during DNA replication. The right response in this case is option C.
A base substitution in a DNA sequence during replication compromises the genetic information in the area where the change took place. The base replaced is also transcribed along with the genetic information from DNA into RNA during transcription. Adenine instead of guanine is transcriptionally transcribed if cytosine is replaced with thymine.
Due to the substituted base, the incorrect amino acids may wind up being translated during the translation of the genetic instructions, resulting in a defective protein.
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