About the health care coordination system, the instructor knows the students understand health care delivery when making statement "Collaboration is a big part of care coordination."
Collaboration is a massive a part of care coordination. while not the collaboration, there would be no care coordination. Patients inquiring for their has to be met doesn't collaborate care. Nurses don't do all the add care collaboration. Medical diagnoses are one little half that drives the requirement for care collaboration.
“The deliberate organization of patient care activities between 2 or additional participants (including the patient) concerned in an exceedingly patient's care to facilitate the suitable delivery of aid services.
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a nurse performs inspection and palpation of a client's knee and detects swelling. what is the appropriate test the nurse should perform next to determine the cause of the swelling?
The appropriate test the nurse should perform next to determine the cause of the swelling is the bulge test.
If swelling is detected in the knee, the nurse should perform the bulge test to determine if the swelling is due to an accumulation of fluid or soft-tissue swelling. The bulge test will help to detect small amounts of fluid in the knee. Ballottement is a knee test used to assess for the presence of large amounts of fluid in the knee. McMurray's test is useful to confirm a meniscal tear. Pain or clicking during the test is indicative of a torn meniscus of the knee. Range of motion is not useful in determining the cause of the swelling.
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when assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper cns functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs/alcohol, and:
when assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper CNS functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs/alcohol, and Significant life changes.
Behavior patterns that are disruptive and harmful to you and those around you are categorized as behavioral disorders. When these disorders are not treated, they can have an impact on adult life and make it difficult for you to maintain healthy relationships, a regular job, and other functions of a typical adult. These disorders are typically diagnosed and treated in early childhood.
The body's processing center is the central nervous system. The brain controls most bodily processes, including awareness, movement, thought, speech, and the five senses of sight, hearing, feeling, tasting, and smelling.
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impaired swallowing indicates the need for a: group of answer choices mechanically altered diet. low-sodium diet. fat-restricted diet. low-fiber diet.
Impaired swallowing indicates the need for a mechanically altered diet.
Dysphagia, or impaired swallowing, is a condition that makes it difficult to consume food or liquids without choking.
The throat's muscles and nerves are weakened as a result of this disorder.
Conversely, a mechanically changed diet is a unique form of food created for people with dysphagia or any other type of swallowing issue. This diet is made by adjusting the food's consistency.
For instance, swallowing aids such soft foods, purred foods, ground meat, etc.
Therefore, foods that are easy to swallow are included in mechanically changed diets.
Impaired swallowing may be a short-term or long-term problem, and it may be fatal. Dysphagia can affect people of any age, but older folks are more likely to develop it.
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the nurse is administering a dose of oral digoxin at 0800 on monday. the nurse will anticipate the effects of the digoxin dose to last until which time?
The nurse anticipates that the effects of the digoxin dosage will persist until 0800 on Thursday.
The nurse expects the digoxin dosage to last for between 8 hours on Thursday and 8 hours on Friday (3 to 4 days following administration).
Digoxin is used to treat heart failure, usually in conjunction with other medications. Additionally, Digoxin is used to treat a number of different types of irregular heartbeat (such as chronic atrial fibrillation). Treating heart failure may prolong the life of your heart and keep you able to walk and exercise. Treating an irregular heartbeat may also increase your ability to exercise. The medication class known as cardiac glycosides includes digoxin. It works by affecting certain minerals (sodium and potassium) in heart cells. The heart is less stressed as a result and is better equipped to maintain a regular, steady heartbeat.
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a 64 year old man comes to the office complaining of back in leg pain that is aggravated by walking. he tells you that the pain starts after he walks two blocks. he gets relief when he is sitting or when he is walking and leaning forward. physical exam reveals pain and decreased motion with backward bending of the lumbosacral spine. there is a negative straight leg raise test result and no neurological deficits. what is the most likely diagnosis?
They become inflexible, increasing your likelihood of developing a herniated disc, is the most likely diagnosis.
How do you live in pain?For relax, practice deep breathing or meditation. Become less stressed out, Increase the natural endorphins that come through exercise to relieve chronic pain, Reduce alcohol consumption, which can make sleep issues worse, Join an advocacy group, Avoid smoking.
What does pain do to a person?The brain undergoes chemical and physical changes in reaction. Along with this, the body experiences changes like a faster heartbeat, blood flowing to the muscles first, and other stress-related reactions.
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which intervention will a nurse expect to implement in a patient newly diagnosed with an oral candida infection in the mouth and throat
Teach the patient how to take nystatin with an oral candida infection in the mouth and throat.
How do you get Candida infection?In the body, including the mouth, esophagus, gut, and vagina, Candida often exists without creating any issues. If vaginal conditions change to favor Candida growth, an infection may result. Infections may be more likely to occur as a result of factors such as hormones, medications, or immune system abnormalities.
Is Candida a serious infection?An infection known as invasive candidiasis is brought on by a yeast called Candida, which is a form of fungus. Invasive candidiasis is a dangerous illness that can affect the blood, heart, brains, eyes, bone, and other regions of the body, unlike vaginal "yeast infections" or Candida diseases in the mouth and throat (commonly known as "thrush").
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a client in need of long-term anti-inflammatory medication has been tried on nsaid and nsaid combination therapy with anti-ulcer medications, but continues to have recurring gi ulcerations. the treating physician discusses the possibility of switching to a different nsaid known as celecoxib (celebrex), a cyclooxygenase-2 (cox-2) inhibitor. what is the health care practitioner aware of when educating the client about the rationale for switching medications?
The COX-2 inhibitors have the potential to cause fewer gastric problems and pose less risk of GI bleeding.
Do COX-2 inhibitors cause GI bleeding?
Patients taking warfarin concomitantly with selective COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of hospitalization for upper GI hemorrhage. The risk appears similar to that of patients simultaneously taking warfarin and nonselective NSAIDs.
What is the advantage of cyclooxygenase 2 COX-2 inhibitors over other NSAIDs?
COX-2 selective inhibitors were developed to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration caused by non-selective NSAIDs. By selectively inhibiting COX-2 they reduced the risk of upper gastrointestinal bleeding associated with other NSAIDs.
Is Celebrex a COX-1 or COX-2 inhibitor?
Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a COX-2 enzyme inhibitor and has emerged as a preferred therapeutic agent for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as compared to other NSAIDs.
Thus, COX-2 inhibitors are used to reduce gastric problems and pose less risk of GI bleeding.
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which patient is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid? a healthy, poorly-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using protein as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using fat as his primary source of energy.
b. A healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid.
What is metabolic acidosis?
The buildup of acid in the body due to kidney disease or kidney failure is called metabolic acidosis. When your body fluids contain too much acid, it means that your body is either not getting rid of enough acid, is making too much acid, or cannot balance the acid in your body.
What happens when acid builds up in your body?
Metabolic acidosis itself causes rapid and deep breathing as your body tries to compensate for it. Confusion or lethargy may also occur. Severe metabolic acidosis can lead to shock or death.
How do carbohydrates affect the metabolic rate?
Studies have suggested that low-carbohydrate diets increase your metabolism compared to high-carbohydrate diets, which may help you lose more weight.
Thus, a healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid.
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william is 47 years old and suffers from hypertension. what other health problem is william at risk for as a consequence of his hypertension?
William, who is 47 years old and has hypertension, is ill. As a result of his hypertension, William also runs the risk of developing kidney disease.
Hypertension is another name for high blood pressure. Serious health issues like heart disease, stroke, and occasionally even death can result from it. Blood pressure is the amount of pressure that a person's blood exerts against the walls of their blood vessels. This pressure is determined by the blood vascular resistance and the amount of effort the heart must accomplish.
Hypertension is a major factor in cardiovascular disease, including stroke, heart attack, heart failure, and aneurysm. Controlling blood pressure is essential for staying healthy and reducing the likelihood of contracting these serious diseases. A change in lifestyle is the most popular and efficient treatment for hypertension. According to current recommendations, everyone, even those with hypertension, should exercise for at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity or 75 minutes a week of high-intensity activity. Most individuals will benefit from strength training at least twice a week in addition to 150 minutes of exercise. Every week, people should exercise at least five days.
Specific drugs can be used by individuals to treat hypertension. Doctors frequently advise starting with a low dose. Typically, antihypertensive medicines only cause modest adverse effects. In order to control their blood pressure, patients with hypertension may eventually need to take two or more medications from trusted source.
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the nurse, providing postprocedural care for a client scheduled for a cardiac catheterization, will plan to implement which intervention to manage the risk for a common adverse effect of the procedure?
To reduce the danger of a common side effect of the procedure, the nurse will execute direct pressure to arterial access site intervention for a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization.
The most frequent side effect is bleeding, and the most serious bleeding for cardiac catheterization happens at the arterial access site. The medication infusion and heparin should be stopped if bleeding occurs and cannot be managed with pressure. Either eptifibatide or tirofiban will likely be utilized during the procedure; preventing bleeding after a cardiac catheterization would not be its intended function.
We can therefore conclude that the nurse will perform direct pressure to arterial access site intervention for a client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization in order to lessen the risk of a common side effect of the procedure.
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Complete Question
The nurse, providing postprocedural care for a client scheduled for cardiac catheterization, will plan to implement which intervention to manage the risk of a common adverse effect of the procedure.
A. Initiation of cardiac pulmonary resuscitation
B. Direct pressure to arterial access site
C. Administration of intravenous heparin
D. Intravenous administration of either eptifibatide or tirofiban
a client asks the nurse whether the client needs to alter any of the client's activities because the client is taking lithium carbonate. which response would be most appropriate?
The most appropriate response is to increase the salt intake slowly as it helps one to perspire heavily.
Lithium carbonate is used to treat bipolar disorder.
It is a mood stabilizing and calming effect in individuals
one should not increase or decrease the salt intake, as it may affect.
as, less salt can make your lithium levels rise, while increasing your salt intake can cause it to fall.
if you intake less sodium diet (salt), best to avoid a low-sodium (low-salt) diet as it can increase the levels of lithium in your blood and also increase the level of Na intake.
Patient should also take some precautions before taking lithium like,
1. A patient with liver, heart damage should not intake lithium carbonate
2. one who is breastfeeding should avoid.
3. Problem with thyroid function
4. or, taking any other medicines.
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health disparities are unequal burdens of disease morbidity and mortality rates experienced by racial and ethnic groups. these disparities are often exacerbated by:
Health discrepancies are frequently made worse by prejudice, stereotyping, and bias.
A particular type of health difference that is closely linked with social, economic, and/or environmental disadvantage. Health and medical disparities have existed for more than 200 years. According to the evidence, efforts to eliminate health disparities among racial and ethnic minorities have not made much headway in recent years. Diverse and intricate factors contribute to racial and ethnic inequality.
Health disparities are discrepancies that socially disadvantaged populations encounter in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunity to reach optimal health. These differences are preventable.
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the nurse cares for a client of a different cultural background. what is the best way for the nurse to provide culturally competent care to the client?
The nurse should plan and implement care that would be sensitive to the client from a different cultural background.
The delivery of culturally competent nursing care means that care is planned and delivered in a manner that is sensitive to the needs of individuals, families, and groups from different backgrounds. cultural diversity in society. To provide culturally appropriate care, nurses do not need to ask clients to explain why they believe.
Assuring clients that their cultural preferences will be respected is the act of dismissing and assuming the behavior of others rather than actively creating culturally competent interventions in the care plan. squirrel. Referring customers to other customers assumes that customers from similar cultural backgrounds will share interests and desire to interact with each other. Making such an assumption is not a culturally authoritative approach.
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the nurse is caring for a 77-year-old patient with diarrhea. what would be especially important to monitor this patient for?
A nurse is caring for a 77-year-old diarrhea patient. Dehydration is especially important for monitoring this patient.
What is Diarrhea? Also, how is it diagnosed?Loose, watery, and possibly more frequent bowel movements – are common problems. They may appear alone or accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and weight loss.Fortunately, diarrhea is usually short-lived, lasting only a few days.Blood counts, electrolyte measurements, and renal function tests help indicate the severity of diarrhea. Stool test: Your doctor may recommend a stool test to determine if bacteria or parasites are causing your diarrhea.What are you monitoring for dehydration?Assessment for clinical signs of dehydration include thirst, weight loss, dry mucous membranes, sunken eyes, decreased skin fullness, increased capillary filling time, hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and weak and thin peripheral pulses.
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how would the use of the roy adaptation model assist the nurse in planning the continuation of care for sgt. johns?
Describe how the nursing actions helped to promote Sgt. John's revised self-concept under the guidance of Roy's Theory. The Roy Adaptation Model helps the nurse plan the continuation of Sgt.
A six-step process from Roy's theory is applied in nursing practice. Assessment, intervention, goal-setting, nursing diagnosis, stimuli evaluation, and character evaluation are among the steps. Nursing is a profession in the health care industry that focuses on providing care to people so they can achieve, maintain, or regain optimal health and quality of Roy's Theory. Depending on their method of patient care, level of education, and area of practice, nurses can be distinguished from other healthcare professionals. With varying degrees of prescription authority, nurses work in a wide range of specialties.
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A tired, stressed nurse complains about being part of the "sandwich generation. " what does that phrase mean?.
The Sandwich generation is defined as those in their forties and fifties who are under pressure to support both elderly parents and increasing children.
The sandwich generation is so-called because they are essentially "sandwiched" between the need to care for their elderly parents, who may be unwell, unable to do different jobs, or in need of financial assistance, and their offspring, who lack adequate, physically, and emotional support.
Growing lifespans and having children at a later age have contribute to the sandwich generation phenomena, since there is more cultural acceptability for grown kids to live at home or return home, as with boomerang kids.
Therefore, this phrase means Supporting both elderly parents and adult children.
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a client admitted with digitalis toxicity has been taking the same dose for more than 20 years. the family asks the nurse how someone can develop a toxic level while taking the usual dose. how would the nurse respond?
Digoxin toxicity can develop both over prolonged therapy and following an overdose. Even though the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can still happen.
What are the main cause of digitalis toxicity?Hypokalemia, a side effect of diuretic medication, is the most frequent cause of digoxin poisoning. Another typical reason for toxicity in the younger group is dosing mistakes.
Toxic conditions include neurological issues, anorexia, and nausea and vomiting. Additionally, it may cause deadly arrhythmias.
Therefore, Numerous circumstances, including as hypo- or hyperthyroidism, can affect the toxicity of digoxin.
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the nurse is preparing to explain what a co-occurring disorder is to the family of an adolescent client diagnosed with bipolar disorder and daily marijuana use. what information is most important for the family to understand about the complexity of a co-occurring disorder?
Co-occurring disorders (CODs) are undertreated illnesses that have serious effects on the people who have them as well as their families. Between 30% and 45% of adolescents and young adults with mental health disorders and 65% or more of children and teenagers have a co-occurring substance use disorder.
What are the co-occurring disorders that are most frequently diagnosed?Five disorders that co-occur most frequently
Generalized anxiety disorder (type 1) (GAD)
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, number two
Stress Disorder, number three
Clinical Depression (#4)
5. Bipolar illness.
What is the most effective method of assessing co-occurring disorders?Tools for Co-Occurring Disorders Assessment
Index of Addiction Severity (ASI). Identification Test Use Disorder. Form III for Mental Health Screening. Scale of Columbia Severity Rating
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what are two ways to tell if bleeding is life-threatening? select all that apply. volume spread flow range quality
That is oozing blood from the wound. continuously flowing blood from the wound. The ground is covered in blood.
Half a can of soda worth of blood loss is considered to be life-threatening in an adult. Even though it may be relatively less severe, bleeding can nonetheless be fatal in children and infants. Take quick action if blood is squirting, pooling, or streaming continuously. The person's activities are considerably hampered by the disease and/or treatment's moderate to severe side effects. The individual's condition is anticipated to deteriorate gradually. Their illness is in its latter stages or is about to.
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at 10-weeks gestation, a high-risk multiparous client with a family history of down syndrome is admitted for observation following a chorionic villi sampling (cvs) procedure. what assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
At 10-weeks gestation, a high-risk multiparous client with a family history of down syndrome is admitted for observation following a chorionic villi sampling (cvs) procedure therefore the assessment finding which requires immediate intervention is uterine cramping and is denoted as option A.
What is Uterine cramping?This is referred to as the process in which the uterus contracts to help expel its lining and is common during the menstrual period in which the hormone known as prostaglandins triggers it.
Since we are dealing with a pregnant individual then the assessment finding which will require immediate intervention is uterine cramping so as to prevent the expulsion of the content of the uterus lining such as the fetus thereby making option A the most approrpiate choice.
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The options are:
A. Uterine cramping.
B. Intermittent nausea.
C. Systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg.
D. Abdominal tenderness.
a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced damage to the parietal lobes of the brain. the nurse anticipates that the client is most likely to have difficulty with what activity?
Using the theories of parietal lobes, we got that the if a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced damage to the parietal lobes of the brain, the nurse anticipates that the client is most likely to have difficulty in calculating math problems.
The parietal lobes can be divided into the two functional regions. One involves sensation and perception and other is concerned with integrating sensory input, primarily with visual system. The first function integrates sensory information to form the single perception (cognition). The second function constructs the spatial coordinate system to represent the world around us. Individuals with the damage to the parietal lobes often show striking deficits, such as the abnormalities in body image and spatial relations (Kandel, Schwartz & Jessel, 1991).
Hence, a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced damage to the parietal lobes of the brain. the nurse anticipates that the client is most likely to have difficulty with calculating math problems.
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(Complete question) is:
a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced damage to the parietal lobes of the brain. the nurse anticipates that the client is most likely to have difficulty with what activity?
when developing the discharge teaching plan for a child with chronic renal failure and the family, the nurse should emphasize restriction of which nutrient?
The nurse should emphasize restriction of Phosphorus.
What is chronic renal failure ?A decline in the kidneys' capacity to filter waste and fluid from the blood characterizes chronic renal failure. It is chronic, which means that it takes a long time to develop and cannot be reversed. The illness is also frequently referred to as chronic renal disease (CKD)The senior population is more likely to have CKD. However, 30% of CKD patients over the age of 65 maintain stable illness, whereas younger patients with CKD often have increasing loss of renal function. End-stage renal disease and cardiovascular disease are both more likely to develop in people with CKD (ESRD). In the US, kidney disease is the ninth leading cause of death.The different stages of CKD form a continuum. The stages of CKD are classified as follows [3] : Kidney damage with normal or increased GFR (>90 mL/min/1.73 m 2) Mild reduction in GFR (60-89 mL/min/1.73 m 2) Moderate reduction in GFR (45-59 mL/min/1.73 m 2) Moderate reduction in GFR (30-44 mL/min/1.73 m 2) Severe reduction in GFR (15-29 mL/min/1.73 m 2) Kidney failure (GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73 m 2 or dialysis)Learn more about Chronic renal failure refer :
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with aortic stenosis. the client is prescribed digoxin. what is the rationale for the medication?
The clinical manifestation that will be the rationale for the medication is left ventricular dysfunction.
What is aortic stenosis?Aortic stenosis is defined as condition where by there is narrowing of the large vessels leaving the heart called the aorta.
This affects the heart as it causes it to over work in order to provide blood to the whole body.
The medication used for the treatment of aortic stenosis is the use of digoxin which is prescribed to prevent heart failure.
The narrowing of the aorta would lead to left ventricular dysfunction which causes left ventricular heart failure, therefore digoxin should be used for treatment.
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b. if the best-case round-trip message transit time is 124 msec (0.124 sec), what is the error of the clock on the client?
According to the given condition, there is no error from the client end, but the time taken is the number of network hops done by the
server
.
Round trip time (RTT) is the duration from when a
browser
sends a request to another server and waits for the response. It is measured in milliseconds. RTT is typically measured using a ping sound — a command-line tool that bounces a request off a server and calculates the time taken to reach a user device. Actual RTT may be higher than that measured by the ping due to server throttling and network congestion.
There are few factors that affect the RTT such as
distance
- the length of a signal to travel correlates with the time taken for a request to reach a server and a response to reach a browser.
Transmission
medium – the medium used to route a signal (e.g., copper wire, fiber optic cables) can impact how quickly a request is received by a server and routed back to a user
Network
hops - the intermediate route the server takes time to cover is known as network hops.
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characteristics of the dash diet include which of the following? a. rich in fruits and vegetables b. low-fat dairy products c. low in saturated fat d. low in carbohydrates are. low in cholesterol f. high in omega-6 fatty acids g. low in total fat
A DASH diet is high in fruits, whole grains, and vegetables. Dairy products with no or little fat, fish, poultry, beans, and nuts are all included.
What does DASH DIET stand for?The DASH diet is high in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, reduced dairy products, and lean protein yet low in sodium. Dietary Strategies to Stop High blood pressure is known as DASH. The diet was initially developed to assist in reducing excessive blood pressure.
The DASH diet includes what foods?This strategy suggests: eating whole grains, fruit, and veggies. Dairy products with no or low fat, fish, poultry, legumes, nuts, & vegetable oils are a few examples. restricting the consumption of foods high in calories, such as high fat, whole-fat dairy products, or tropical oils including coconut, palm kernel, & palm oils.
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an 20-year-old primipara is getting ready to go home. she had a second-degree episiotomy with repair. she confides in the nurse that she is afraid to go to her postpartum checkup because she is afraid to have the stitches removed. which reply by the nurse is best?
20-year-old primipara is getting ready to go home. she had a second-degree episiotomy with repair Anticipatory Guidance.
Multipara refers to a female who has had or more possible pregnancies. This term is used irrespective of whether or not the infant is born alive. The pregnancy ought to closing as a minimum 20 weeks for it to be considered a possible being pregnant. Primipara describes a lady who has had one viable being pregnant.
A lady who has by no means carried a pregnancy past 20 weeks is nulliparous and is referred to as a nullipara or para zero. A lady who has given birth as soon as is primiparous and is called a primipara or primip. A female who has given start , three, or four times is multiparous and is referred to as a multip.
“Nulliparous” is a fancy medical phrase used to describe a lady who hasn't given birth to a child. It would not always imply that she's in no way been pregnant — a person who's had a miscarriage, stillbirth, or non-compulsory abortion but has in no way given delivery to a live baby remains known as nulliparous.
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an order is written for cyclosporine 5 mg/kg iv. how many milliliters of a 50 ml bag containing 100 mg of cyclosporine per milliliter should be administered to a 165 pound liver transplant patient? (answer must be numeric; no units or commas.)
A patient receiving a transplant who weighs 165 pounds should be given 3.75 milliliters of the a 50 ml package containing 100 mg or cyclophosphamide per milliliter.
What is patient or patience?Like a word, "patience" is the capacity to wait patiently or put up with adversity for a long period of time without being upset or angry. The plural version of the term "patient," however—"patients"—designates a person that receives medical attention.
What type of person is patient?Here are a few indicators that you are dealing with a patient person: Instead of moving forward without the complete knowledge, support, or resources they require, they would choose to wait for them. They have the capacity to reflect and slow down during work.
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a nurse has successfully completed a difficult and complex task that the manager delegated. what is the manager's best action?
A nurse who a nurse has successfully completed a difficult and complex task that the manager delegated. The manager's best action is either to get the solutions for the issues that have been created.
What is the role of a nurse in the medical institution ?The role of a nurse in a medical institution is to nurse the patients.
In case the manager is not able to do the duties he is supposed to do then in this case, the staff can do the duties and the duties can be performed with the official notice to the hospital staff.
The life of a patient or sometimes some of the actions are supposed to be happened when the actions are not being portrayed by the officials that are supposed to take the actions.
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the nurse has chosen the deltoid site to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. what size needle would the nurse use?
The nurse has chosen the deltoid site to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. the nurse should use a needle of length usually 1"–1½", 22–25 gauge
An intramuscular injection may be a method utilized to provide medicine deep into the muscles. This permits the medicine to be absorbed into the aaa quickly. Intramuscular infusions may be utilized rather than intravenous infusions since a few drugs are bothering to veins or because an appropriate vein cannot be located. They may be utilized rather than verbal conveyance since a few drugs are crushed by the digestive system after you swallow them. Intramuscular infusions are ingested more quicker than subcutaneous infusions. This is often because muscle tissue encompasses a more prominent blood supply than the tissue fair beneath your skin. Muscle tissue can moreover hold a bigger volume of pharmaceuticals than subcutaneous tissue.
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when assessing a client with cellulitis of the right leg, which finding should the nurse expect to observe?
Answer:
Red, swollen skin with inflammation spreading to surrounding tissues.
Explanation: Cellulitis, an inflammation of soft tissues, can extend to surrounding tissues. The skin becomes reddened, warm, swollen, and sometimes painful. The skin wouldn't be cold, pale, or necrotic.
