This conduct is linked to bullying with psychological harassment .
What psychological factors underlie harassment?The feelings of the harassee are typically heightened by angry outbursts, tears, feelings of grief, loneliness, and hurt, that may be mistakenly interpreted by a management as excessive emotion. Long-term harassment can have negative repercussions on a person's physical, psychological, and social wellbeing.
What constitutes an effective harassment claim?Typically, for a harassment case to be successful, the harass must be so pervasive or severe that any sane person would view it as purposefully unfriendly or abusive in nature.
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a client who experienced serious and repeated traumas has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder after being rescued from an abuser. before caring for this client, the nurse should be prepared for:
Answer: wide variations in the personality that the client exhibits.
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according to the american diabetes association (ada) standards of medical care in diabetes, what is the preferred initial pharmacologic agent for most patients with type 2 diabetes?
According to the American Diabetes Association standards of medical care in diabetes, the preferred initial pharmacologic agent for type 2 diabetes is metformin.
Metformin is a medication that's generally used to treat type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes. It lowers the blood sugar level by improving the way the body handles insulin.
Metformin has several side effects, such as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. These effects usually go away over time, but one can reduce the side effects by taking the medicine with a meal. Make sure to avoid foods that can spike the blood sugar level while taking metformin, since it will increase the burden of the medicine.
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a brief, mild reduction in the oxygen supply to the brain occurring with changes in body position that may cause the patient to feel faint is called
Orthostatic hypotension is a brief, mild decrease in the brain's oxygenation that happens when the body is in a different position and may make the patient feel dizzy.
Orthostatic hypotension, or a dip in blood pressure, is what happens when you get up from a supine (lying down) position and stand upright. Orthostasis is described as low blood pressure (hypotension) that happens when a person stands up since the word "orthostasis" implies standing up.
There may be slight orthostatic hypotension. Episodes could be short. However, persistent orthostatic hypotension may be an indication of more significant issues. If you frequently feel dizzy when standing up, it's crucial to contact a healthcare professional.
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hamburgers and other ground meats are high-risk foods. what makes these foods particularly susceptible to causing food-borne illness? check all that apply.
All options apply as factors that makes these foods particularly susceptible to food-borne illness. So the correct options are A, B, C and D.
What factors makes these foods particularly susceptible to food-borne illness?
The factors that makes these foods particularly susceptible to food-borne illness are: Grinding mixes pathogens that are on the surface of the meat or poultry throughout the product, meat grinders are sources of pathogens that can be spread to the food if the grinder is not properly cleaned, under-cooking ground meat or poultry items fails to kill potentially harmful pathogens that may be residing in the middle of the food and grinding increases the surface area of the food, exposing more of the protein-rich tissues to microbes in the environment.
So for a more controlled consumption of these types of meat there must be a correct handling of hamburgers and ground meats.
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Hamburgers and other ground meats are high-risk foods. Which of the following factors makes these foods particularly susceptible to food-borne illness? (Check all that apply.
A: Grinding mixes pathogens that are on the surface of the meat or poultry throughout the product.
B: Meat grinders are sources of pathogens that can be spread to the food if the grinder is not properly cleaned.
C: Under-cooking ground meat or poultry items fails to kill potentially harmful pathogens that may be residing in the middle of the food.
D: Grinding increases the surface area of the food, exposing more of the protein-rich tissues to microbes in the environment.
which treatment would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a patient who developed itching, swelling, and a skin rash due to use of cleaning products?
The nurse would anticipate incorporating an antihistamine into the plan of care for a patient who developed itching, swelling, and a skin rash due to use of cleaning products.
Antihistamines are medications used to treat allergies, allergic rhinitis, the common cold, the flu, and other illnesses. Antihistamines are typically taken by people as a cheap, non-patented generic medication that can be purchased without a prescription and offers little adverse effects while relieving nasal congestion, sneezing, or hives brought on by allergies to pollen, dust mites, or animals.
Antihistamines are typically used as a temporary fix. Chronic allergies raise the risk of illnesses like asthma, sinusitis, and lower respiratory tract infections, which antihistamines may not be able to address. For individuals who want to utilize antihistamines for a longer period of time, consulting a doctor is advised.
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after a normal labor and birth, a client is discharged from the hospital 12 hours later. when the community health nurse makes a home visit 2 days later, which finding would alert the nurse to the need for further intervention?
The nurse to the need for further intervention Frequent scant voiding.
Infrequent or insufficient voiding may be a sign of infection and is not a normal finding on the second postpartum day. Lochia serosa, a firm fundus below the umbilicus, and milk filling the breasts are expected findings.
All nurses should know that immediate skin-to-skin contact is the best way for a newborn and mother to bond. Healthy newborns should be placed in skin to skin contact with the mother until the first round of breastfeeding is established.
First stage nursing care focuses on assessment of the client's vital signs, contractions, and cervical change, as well as assessment of the fetal well-being.
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a clinical trial is planned to compare an experimental medication designed to lower blood pressure to a placebo. before starting the trial, a pilot study is conducted involving seven participants. the objective of the study is to assess how systolic blood pressures
For 95% CI alpha=0.05 hence the critical value with 9 degrees of freedom is t = 2.262
Hence 95%CI=D(bar)±sD/√n
= -0.9±(2.262*4.408/√10)
= -0.9±3.154
Hence lower bound = -0.9-3.154=-4.054
Upper bound = -0.9+3.154 = 2.254
95% CI = (-4.054,2.254)
Due to a variety of environmental and psychological factors, the first blood pressure reading is almost always higher than the second reading. These factors include white coat syndrome stress and a full bladder. After the first measurement waits 1-3 minutes before taking another measurement. If your monitor doesn't track blood pressure readings or heart rate make a note of them. Fluctuations in blood pressure in either direction can be a symptom of another problem called autonomic dysfunction.
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what is the most important way in which the nurse can reduce the risk for infection in a patient with a cvad that has a gauze dressing?
A gauze dressing of CVAD should be changed as needed and every 48 hours. This lowers the patient's risk of infection.
A central line is a small, soft, flexible tube also known as a central venous access device (CVAD). The vein leading to your heart is where this lengthy tube, also known as a catheter, is inserted. The other end of the CVAD catheter either emerges just below the skin's surface or is positioned immediately there.
Gauze dressings composed of cotton, rayon, and polyester woven and nonwoven fibers offer some level of defense against bacterial infection. With the aid of their fibers, some sterile gauze pads can be utilized to collect liquids and exudates from an open wound.
Gauze can be used to a variety of wounds to clean, compress, scrub, cover, and secure them. While an open or loose weave is preferable for absorbency or drainage, tightly woven gauze is excellent for added strength or increased protection.
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tom lost 14 pounds in one week. was this weight loss from fat loss? why or why not? (3pt) his friend ricky is trying to lose the same amount of weight in one week. what recommendations do you have for ricky? include at least three specific and practical recommendations for healthy weight loss. (1pt per recommendation). how long should he at least take to lose 14 pounds without risk? (2pt)
No, Tom's weight loss was not from fat loss. To lose weight safely, Ricky should aim to lose no more than 2 pounds per week. Recommendations for healthy weight loss include reducing calorie intake, increasing physical activity, and tracking progress.
What is fat?
Fat is typically defined as any ester of fatty acids, or a combination of such compounds, most frequently those that occur in living things or in food, in the fields of nutrition, biology, and chemistry. Triglycerides, or triple esters of glycerol, are the primary building blocks of vegetable oils and fatty tissue in animals. The term is frequently used to refer specifically to these triglycerides, excluding oils in the process. The word can also be used more broadly to refer to any biologically relevant substance made of carbon, hydrogen, or oxygen that is soluble in non-polar solvents but insoluble in water. In this sense, the term would also refer to other types of compounds such as mono- and diglycerides in addition to triglycerides.
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which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when providing care to a client who is diagnosed with left-sided heart failure? select all that apply. dyspnea hepatomegaly fatigue ascites crackles noted on lung auscultation
When providing treatment to a client diagnosed with left-sided heart failure, the nurse should be prepared for dyspnea, fatigue, and Crackles on lung auscultation. Clinical symptoms like fatigue frequently accompany heart failure.
Fatigue, dyspnea, swelling ankles, and exercise intolerance are common symptoms of congestive heart failure, as are symptoms related to the underlying cause.
Although it is a common symptom in the general population, particularly in individuals with pulmonary disease, dyspnea is an often-presenting symptom of heart failure.
Thus, it follows that a nurse should be prepared for the clinical symptoms of a patient with left-sided heart failure including dyspnea, fatigue, and crackles on lung auscultation.
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a client is admitted for an amniocentesis. initial assessment findings include 16 weeks' gestation, vital signs within normal limits, hemoglobin 12.2 g/dl (122 g/l), hematocrit 35% (0.35), and type o-negative blood. which action would the nurse complete first after amniocentesis has been completed?
The first thing a nurse does following an amniocentesis is measure the baby's heart rate and compares it to the pre-procedure baseline.
Amniocentesis: What is it?Amniocentesis is indeed a test that may be recommended to you during pregnancy to determine whether your unborn child has a chromosomal or genetic disorder like Down syndrome, Edwards syndrome, or Patau's syndrome. It includes taking a small cell sample in amniotic fluid, the liquid that surrounds the womb of the developing child, and testing them.
What is the process of amniocentesis?A little sample of amniotic fluid is removed during an amniocentesis operation for testing. That's the fluid that a pregnant woman's fetus is enclosed in. The amniotic fluid shields the fetus from harm and is transparent and pale yellow in color. provides infection protection.
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stridor occurs in an upper respiratory disorder termed: a.asthma b.diphtheria c.epistaxis d.pneumonia e.croup
Stridor is a symptom of the upper respiratory illness known as croup. Croup is an infection of a upper respiratory tract that prevents breathing and results in the recognizable barking cough.
What is croup?An upper airway illness known as croup makes breathing difficult and results in a distinctive barking cough. The swelling surrounding the larynx, trachea, and bronchial tubes causes the cough and other symptoms of croup, as well as other signs and symptoms (bronchi).
How does croup start?Viruses, most frequently the parainfluenza virus, are typically to blame for croup. Infected respiratory droplets that are coughed up sneezed into the air could expose your youngster to a virus. On toys and other surfaces, virus particles in such droplets might also persist.
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which of the following disorders/conditions can be diagnosed based on the x-ray below? select one: a. cystitis b. ureterectasis c. pyelonephritis d. horseshoe kidney
Disorders/conditions can be diagnosed based on the x-ray below b. Ureterectasis.
A medical expert determines a analysis with the aid of interviewing you approximately your records of signs. from time to time a health practitioner would require a couple of clinical exams to rule out feasible bodily illnesses, but we can not examine intellectual fitness itself through blood exams or different biometric data.
The diagnostic manner no longer best paves the way for treatment, however additionally functions as a sort of remedy itself. both behavioral and bodily issues can respond to diagnosis properly used as a healing tool.
Analysis” is a novel phrase which means the identification of an infection or sickness through a affected person's symptoms. It took numerous diagnoses before his citizens reached the right end. “Diagnose” can also be used as a verb, which means to differentiate or to indentify through prognosis.
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the nurse sees an order for a lidocaine 5% patch. what use is approved for by the us food and drug administration for this patch?
It is primarily used to relieve neuropathic pain (pain in the nerves), particularly in sensitive-to-touch areas.
What is neuropathic pain?In particular to being effective in treating Post Herpetic Neuralgia, lidocaine 5% patches have also been found to be effective in treating other neuropathic pain problems.
Lidocaine is a topical, non-addictive pain reliever that blocks pain receptors beneath the skin.
Therefore, currently available lidocaine patches only absorb medicine into the skin and provide it to the area of discomfort, relieving neuropathic pain approved by US food and drug administration.
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what are the most common causes of traumatic brain injuries (tbis) in the united states? select all that apply.
Falls, , and car accidents are the main reasons for TBI-related fatalities. Injuries sustained in motor vehicle accidents (17%) and falls (35%), respectively, are the main causes of non-fatal TBI in the US.
What kind of traumatic brain damage occurs most frequently?One of the most prevalent types of TBI is concussion. A hit to the head or a sudden movement of the head or body, such as during a vehicle accident or sports injury, can result in a concussion. Since they are typically not fatal, concussions are frequently referred to as "mild TBIs."
a fall and slide that breaks the skull. an automobile collision in which the skull is broken or penetrated.
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a client presents to the ed reporting left flank pain and lower abdominal pain. the pain is severe, sharp, stabbing, and colicky in nature. the client has also experienced nausea and emesis. the nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
The Rovsing's sign is when you palpate the left abdominal quadrant and the patient complains of pain in the right lower quadrant.
What is lower abdominal pain?The pain is severe, sharp having pain in the lower abdomen which is colicky in nature.
This indicates that the customer could have appendicitis, the inflammation in the appendix is called appendicitis.
Therefore, right and lower stomach discomfort, fever, nausea, reduced appetite, and vomiting are among the symptoms of Rovsing's sign.
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states conduct annual telephone surveys of residents as part of this evaluation to pinpoint behaviors that increase risk for chronic disease including diet, physical activity, smoking, and drug and alcohol use. what is the name of the tool used?
States conduct annual telephone surveys of residents as part of this evaluation to pinpoint behaviors that increase the risk for chronic disease including diet, physical activity, smoking, and drug and alcohol use. Use of electronic health records (EHRs).
chronic diseases are described extensively as conditions that ultimate 1 12 months or extra and require ongoing medical interest or restrict sports of daily residing or each. continual sicknesses consisting of heart sickness, most cancers, and diabetes are the leading causes of loss of life and disability in the u.s.a
Chronic illnesses are lengthy-lasting conditions that typically may be managed but are now not cured. human beings living with persistent ailments often should manipulate daily symptoms that have an effect on their great of existence, and enjoy acute fitness troubles and complications that can shorten their life expectancy.
Persistent illnesses - together with heart disorders, most cancers, diabetes, stroke, and arthritis - are the leading reasons for disability and death in new york state and at some stage in the united states.
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the nurse is monitoring an infant with a congenital heart disease closely for signs of heart failure. which early sign should the nurse be most concerned about?
The nurse is monitoring an infant with a congenital heart disease closely for signs of heart failure. which early sign should the nurse be most concerned about Tachycardia.
Congenital heart sickness is a popular term for a range of birth defects that affect the regular manner the heart works. The term "congenital" way the condition is gift from start. Congenital coronary heart ailment is one of the maximum common forms of birth defect, affecting nearly 1 in 100 infants born in the uk.
Several genetic health conditions that a toddler inherits from 1 or each mother and father can motive congenital coronary heart disease. it is also recognised that certain kinds of congenital coronary heart disease run in families. Down's syndrome is the most extensively-known genetic condition which could cause congenital coronary heart ailment.
As hospital treatment and remedy have stepped forward, babies and youngsters with congenital coronary heart defects (CHDs) are residing longer and healthier lives. most are now dwelling into adulthood. Ongoing, appropriate hospital therapy can help youngsters and adults with a CHD live as wholesome as feasible.
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a nurse is discussing targeted testing for latent tuberculosis infection (ltbi) with a group of nursing students. the nurse mentions that testing should be focused on groups considered to be at high risk for infection. which group is considered high risk?
A variety of types of groups can be at high risk for the infection of latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI). These people may be the victim of: homelessness, HIV infection, immigrants high TB rates, previous exposure to an infected individual, use of injectable drugs, pre-existing diabetes mellitus, etc.
LTBI is the condition where there is persistent immune response due to the stimulation of the microbe Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Here the microbe remains present inside the body in inactive state without making the host sick.
Diabetes mellitus is the condition where the body cells are not able to use the blood glucose efficiently. It is also called the type II diabetes.
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a woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun. is it likely that her children have inherited this cancer from her?
No, because the only mutations that can be passed on to the following generation are those that affect gametes.
What symptoms indicate skin cancer caused by sun exposure?Melanoma warning signs include: a sizable spot of brownish color with darker specks. a mole that bleeds or changes in size, color, or texture. a tiny lesion with an irregular border and areas that are pink, red, white, blue, or blue-black in color.
While episodes of extremely painful sunburns, typically before the age of 18, can lead to melanoma later in life, cumulative sun exposure primarily causes basal cell and squamous cell skin cancer. Repeated exposure to X-rays, burn or disease scars, and occupational exposure to specific chemicals are other, less frequent causes.
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a nurse initiates acute care for an elders' unit in a medical facility. which factor should the nurse include when teaching the nursing staff about delivering medications to the older adults on the unit?
A nurse initiates acute care for an elderly unit in a medical facility. the factor should the nurse include when teaching the nursing staff about delivering medications to the older adults on the unit?"I am trying to lose weight on the Grapefruit Diet.
The remedy is another phrase you may use for medicine. They mean the identical element. An antiviral drug is the only government-accepted medicinal drug for COVID-19. A pill is a small, rounded item that consists of a medicinal drug.
A prescription consists of all the records, non-public details, and commands that a pharmacy desires in order to know what remedy to dispense. medication describes the drug(s) and/or clinical appliance(s) used to deal with or save scientific situations.
People should purchase merchandise classified as 'pharmacy drug treatments' ( P ) however simplest from a pharmacy and within the presence of a pharmacist. these drugs, also called 'pharmacy-only medicines', aren't typically displayed on open shelves. A rectangular field enclosing the letter P appears on the packaging of pharmacy medicines.
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the nurse is caring for a 72 year old client taking gabapentin (neurontin) for bipolar disorder. because of this client's age, the nurse would establish which nursing diagnosis related to the drug's common adverse effects?
The nurse is concerned about a 72-year antique purchaser taking gabapentin (Neurontin) for bipolar disease because of this consumer's age, the nurse could set up a risk for Falls
Commonplace adverse outcomes of gabapentin (Neurontin) consist of CNS depression which includes dizziness and drowsiness. because of this consumer's age, those consequences might also growth the chance of falls. alternatives 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect. The drug isn't recognized to purpose dehydration (fluid extent deficit) or constipation or impair the capacity to communicate.
An extensively normal definition is “an unplanned descent to the floor with or without injury to the patient.” The nursing diagnosis for the risk of falls is “multiplied susceptibility to falling which can motivate bodily harm.
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a client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. how should the nurse respond?
The nurse said that client would experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles when the client had been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy.
The nurse should explain to the patient that muscular dystrophy results in symmetrical, gradual muscle atrophy that has neither neurological nor sensory abnormalities. The disease's mixed form often develops between the ages of 30 and 50 and advances quickly, degrading all voluntary muscles. The customer explicitly asked the nurse this question, so the nurse should respond rather than just directing the patient to the doctor.
A modest impairment is brought on by the gradual loss of arm and pelvic muscle power caused by limb-girdle muscular dystrophy. Muscular dystrophy that slowly progresses and is often benign typically manifests before the age of 10. It is known as facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy.
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a client seeks medical attention for an acute onset of severe thirst, polyuria, muscle weakness, nausea, and bone pain. which health history information will the nurse report to the health care provider?
A client seeks medical attention for an acute onset of severe thirst, polyuria, muscle weakness, nausea, and bone pain. health history information will the nurse report to the health care provider Clients report nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
An "Acute Onset of a Pre-current condition" is an unexpected and unexpected outbreak or recurrence of a Pre-existing circumstance(s) that takes place spontaneously and without enhanced caution, both within the shape of physician recommendations or signs of brief length is unexpectedly revolutionary and calls for instant care.
Acute illnesses typically develop unexpectedly and close a quick time, regularly only a few days or weeks. continual situations develop slowly and may get worse over an extended time frame—months to years.
Unexpected onset signs and symptoms are signs and symptoms that broaden speedily. They can also be called quick-onset signs and symptoms or acute signs and symptoms.
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a client has been living with an internal, fixed-rate pacemaker. when checking the client's readings on a cardiac monitor the nurse notices an absence of spikes. what should the nurse do?
Using the theories of pacemaker, we got that double check the monitoring equipment is the action which nurse should do for a client that has been living with an internal, fixed-rate pacemaker.
Pacemaker should be checked periodically to assess battery and find out how the wires are working. Be sure to keep the pacemaker checkup appointments. At such appointments:
Your doctor will make sure the medications are working and that you’re taking them properly.You can ask questions and voice any of the concerns you may have about the living with your pacemaker. Make sure you and your caregiver understand what your doctor actually says. It’s a good idea to take notes.Your doctor will use the special analyzer to reveal the battery’s strength. This diagnostic tool can reveal the weak battery before you notice any changes.Hence, for a client who has been living with an internal, fixed-rate pacemaker. when checking the client's readings on a cardiac monitor the nurse notices an absence of spikes, the nurse should double check the monitoring equipment.
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in underdeveloped and developing countries, what is the current status of mortality rates from heart disease and stroke, and why?
They are increasing as people's lifestyles resemble those of wealthy nations.
What is the impact of Cardiovascular disease?Cardiovascular disease (CVD) has emerged as a common cause of morbidity and a major factor in death in most nations as the twentieth century comes to a close. The CVD epidemic's emergence and current reduction in wealthy nations has been well-documented. The reduction in CVD mortality rates (including deaths from coronary heart disease and stroke) that has been seen in almost all industrialized nations can be attributed to the identification of major risk factors through population-based studies and effective control strategies combining community education and targeted management of high risk individuals. According to estimates, CVD-related mortality decreased between 1965 and 1990 by about 50% in Australia, Canada, France, and the United States, and by 60% in Japan.
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as a first-year nursing student, you are assigned to care for a dying patient. to best prepare you for this assignment, you will want to:
The nursing student should compare this experience to the death of his/her family member and then take care of the dying patient.
The care for dying patients can be given by comfort care in palliative care that addresses physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and spiritual needs. The goal is to give patients autonomy, access to information, and choice. Remember that comfort care can be provided in a hospital, nursing home, or private home.
According to ELNEC (2010), the nurse's role includes three things:
(1) the nurse must support the grieving process by how to evaluate the deceased;
(2) nurses should assist patients with grieving problems and concerns;
(3) nurses to assist survivors.
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a client has an inhalation injury. the nurse would prepare to assist with which tests specific to this injury?
Studies to evaluate pulmonary function should be conducted in individuals who are at risk for inhalation damage, despite the fact that the preliminary results may appear deceptively normal. These consist of a chest radiograph and an arterial blood gas (ABG).
How are you going to rate the burn injury?Your healthcare practitioner will thoroughly examine the wound during the burn examination. The estimated proportion of the total body surface area (TBSA) that has been burnt will also be calculated by him or her. Your provider could obtain this estimate using a technique called as the.
Hourly urine output is the best single sign of sufficient fluid resuscitation in serious burn patients. A Foley catheter should be inserted to track urine output when an IV access is established and fluids are started.
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a client is participating in a therapy group and focuses on viewing all team members as equally important in helping the clients meet their goals. the nurse is implementing which therapeutic approach?
The use of milieu therapy aids clients in achieving their objectives.
When providing emergency care for a client, what is most crucial for the nurse to evaluate?Justification: The evaluation of a client's physical health, potential for injury to oneself or others, and potential for harm to others comes first in the nursing assessment of a client in a crisis state.
Which of the following strategies would be most effective in stopping a problem before it starts?Be aware of the warning signals of a crisis. When a crisis is in its early stages, clients are frequently quite motivated to work on enhancing their coping mechanisms.
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the nurse is working with a 50-year-old client admitted for a major depressive episode. the client has remained isolated and withdrawn since admission and is reluctant to speak. which therapeutic communication skill is most likely to encourage the client to verbalize the client's feeling
Active listening, stillness, concentration, asking open-ended questions, clarification, exploration, paraphrasing, reflecting, restating, giving leads, summarizing, acknowledging, and offering oneself are examples of therapeutic communication practices.
What treatment of major depressive episode?A major depressive episode is a two-week or longer period of time during which a person exhibits certain severe depressive symptoms.
A strong ability to communicate with patients, families, and other team members. Safety and clinical effectiveness depend on open and honest communication between team members.
Therefore, It is also critical for patients and their families, who commonly experience overwhelming feelings when dealing with illness or hospitalization.
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