Explanation:
The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patient's appointment
=A. eligibility
True or False: the confidential ipledge program pregnancy registry collects information on pregnancies that happen during isotretinoin treatment or within 1 month after the last dosE
Answer:
true
Explanation:
because the confidential ipledge program pregnancy registry collects information on pregnancies that happen during isotretinoin treatment or within 1 month after the last dose
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Manufacturers of dietary supplements must inform the FTC about negative health reports that may have resulted from the use of their products.
b. The FDA can recall a dietary supplements when there is evidence that it is harmful.
c. Medicinal herbs must undergo testing for safety and effectiveness by the FDA before they can be marketed.
d. The EPA regulates the labeling of dietary supplements.
"The FDA can recall a dietary supplements when there is evidence that it is harmful" is the correct statement.
Supplement Facts labels are attached to products sold as dietary supplements, and they contain the active components, the amount each serving (dose), and additional substances such as fillers, binders, and flavourings. The serving size is suggested by the manufacturer, but ones health care practitioner may determine that a different amount is much more suited for oneself.
In the United States, many adults and children use one or so more vitamins or even other nutritional supplements. Minerals, herbs or even other botanicals, amino acids, enzymes, and a variety of other compounds can be included in dietary supplements in addition to vitamins. Dietary supplements are available in a number of formats, including pills, capsules, gummies, powders, beverages, and energy bars. Vitamins D and B12 are popular supplements, as are minerals like calcium and iron, herbs like echinacea and garlic, and products such glucosamine, probiotics, or fish oils.
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Which of the following best describes how eligibility for a Health Insuring Corporation (HIC) is determined?
A. by preferred physician availability
B. by health history
C. by geographic boundaries
D. by household income
Answer:
C. by geographic boundaries is the answer.
Explanation:
The best way to describe how eligibility for a Health Insuring Corporation (HIC) is determined is by geographic boundaries.
Boundaries separate different regions of the Earth in geography. A physical boundary is a natural barrier that separates two or more areas. Oceans, cliffs, and valleys are examples of physical boundaries.
Choose from the following educational resources to teach physical boundaries to middle school students. Divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries are the three types of plate tectonic boundaries. This illustration depicts three types of plate boundaries: divergent, convergent, and transform. Image courtesy of the United States Geological Survey.
Political boundaries are just one example of a man-made boundary. Linguistic, economic, and social boundaries are examples of human-made boundaries. Linguistic boundaries form between areas where different languages are spoken. These boundaries frequently correspond to political boundaries.
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Objective information that can be detected by a person other that the affected person is which of the following? Sign Patients from different ______ may not be familiar with the medical examination and what to expect.
Objective information that can be detected by a person other than the affected person is signs.
A sign is a physical indication of a disease or condition that can be observed by others, such as a rash, a fever, or a limp. This information can be objectively observed, measured and recorded by a healthcare professional, whereas symptoms are feelings, sensations or experiences that are reported by the affected person.
Patients from different cultures may not be familiar with the medical examination and what to expect. This refers to how patients from different cultural backgrounds may have different beliefs, practices and customs that can affect their experience during the medical examination. This can also affect how they understand and interpret the medical information, and how they communicate their symptoms to the healthcare professional.
which of the following positive effects result from proper application of coaching counseling and mentoring
Proper application of coaching, counseling and mentoring can have several positive effects, including Improved performance and productivity, Increased job satisfaction, Improved communication and interpersonal skills, Improved decision-making, and Career development.
Improved performance and productivity: Coaching, counseling and mentoring can help individuals identify and overcome obstacles that are preventing them from achieving their goals, leading to improved performance and productivity.
Increased job satisfaction: Through coaching, counseling, and mentoring, individuals can gain a better understanding of their strengths and weaknesses and learn how to apply them in their work, leading to increased job satisfaction.
Improved communication and interpersonal skills: Coaching, counseling and mentoring can help individuals develop better communication and interpersonal skills, which are essential for success in any job.
Improved decision-making: Coaching, counseling, and mentoring can help individuals develop the critical thinking skills needed to make effective decisions.
Career development: Mentoring can help individuals develop the skills and knowledge needed to advance in their careers. It can also help individuals become more self-aware, allowing them to better understand their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors and make positive changes.
Increased self-awareness: coaching, counseling, and mentoring can help.
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The complete question is-
which of the following positive effects result from proper application of coaching counseling and mentoring?
a. Improved performance and productivity b. Increased job satisfaction c. Improved communication and interpersonal skills d. Improved decision-making e. Career development.
When contacting emergency medical services, you need to be prepared to answer which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Reason for the call
-Specific location
-Condition of the victim(s)
-First aid provided
-Telephone number
-Number of victims
-Caller's name
When contacting emergency medical services, you need to be prepared to answer the following questions:
reason for the call, Specific location, Condition of the victim(s),Telephone number, number of victims, Caller's name.
It is important to provide emergency services with clear and accurate information so that they can respond quickly and effectively. Providing the reason for the call, such as chest pain or difficulty breathing, will help emergency services determine the type of resources they need to send. Giving the specific location, including the address and any landmarks, will help emergency services locate you quickly.
Providing information about the condition of the victim(s), including any symptoms or injuries, will help emergency services determine the severity of the situation and how to proceed. It is also important to provide your telephone number and the number of victims involved in the emergency, as well as your name, so that emergency services can confirm the call.
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you see that the food handler you assigned to prepare the salad has a small cut on her hand. you should:
Firstly, small cut should be covered with impermeable bandage and a single use glove before returning to work.
Still, simply putting on gloves or putting on a girth isn't enough to cover your guests, If there's a small cut or an open crack on hand. rather, do both. After you bind the crack, put a glove on top of it. This is called a double hedge, and it'll help impurity. Precaution must be there in such cases. Cut can carry harmful bacteria so proper covering of cut is needed.
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Dr. Sita is unable to determine a clear diagnosis for her patient's severe headaches. She creates a list of probable
causes such as stress, diet, and concussion. Dr. Sita's approach is known as
O problem specific solution.
O differential diagnosis.
O problem-solving process.
O evidence-based medicine.
Answer:
B. differential diagnosis.
Explanation:
What's differential diagnosis?
the process of differentiating between two or more conditions which share similar signs or symptoms.
which of the following area(s) of a neuron typically receive(s) input (aka chemical neural signal) from other neurons?
Neurons communicate with one another at junctions called synapses.
Action potentials, a type of electrical event, and chemical neurotransmitters are two ways that neurons can communicate with one another. An action potential leads neuron A to release a chemical neurotransmitter at the connection (synapse) between the two neurons. The neurotransmitter has the ability to stimulate or inhibit neuron B's ability to fire its own action potential. A neuron's ability to produce an action potential in an undamaged brain depends on the ratio of hundreds of excitatory and inhibitory inputs. Essentially electrical devices, neurons are. The cell membrane, which forms the partition between a cell's interior and exterior, contains numerous channels that permit positive or negative ions to enter and exit the cell.
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Declining death rates due to increased food production and improved medical care while birth rates remain high is characteristic of the __
Answer:
transitional is the correct answer.
Explanation:
True or False. Men feel the impact of alcohol faster than women do.
Please answer it correctly and asap please
Answer:
False
Explanation:
According to the national institute on alcohol abuse and alcoholism, women are more likely to feel the impact of alcohol faster than a man would.
A number of diagnostic tests have been ordered for K. From the tests listed, which would be used to diagnose dementia? Mental status examinations Toxicology screen Mini-Mental State Examination Electrocardiogram Electroencephalogram Complete metabolic panel Complete blood count with differential Thyroid function tests ______ Colonoscopy Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test Serum B12 level ______ Bleeding time Human immunodeficiency virus screening Liver function tests Vision and hearing evaluation Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
To support an Alzheimer's diagnosis or rule out other probable causes of symptoms, utilize brain scans including such computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positron emission tomography (PET).
Inquire with the person suffering symptoms, as well as a friend or family member about overall health, prescription and over-the-counter medication usage, nutrition, previous medical issues, capacity to carry out daily tasks, and changes in behaviour and personality. Perform memory, problem-solving, attention, counting, & language tests.
Order blood, urine, as well as other regular medical tests to rule out other potential reasons of the condition. A psychiatric assessment should be performed to identify whether depression or perhaps another mental health disorder is causing and contributing to a person's symptoms. Measure the amounts of proteins linked with Alzheimer's and similar dementias in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collected by a spinal tap.
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which of the following nursing diagnoses is the most appropriate for an immobilized client on complete bed rest who has a blood calcium level of 9.9 mg/dl and a urinary ph of 9.9?
A urine pH test measures the level of acid in urine. Alternative Names: pH - urine.
who has a blood calcium level of 9.9 mg/dl and a urinary ph of 9.9?
For teenagers and young adults, it is normal to have calcium levels up into the mid to high 10's (in mg/dl). For adults over about age 40, the calcium level should generally be in the 9.3 to 9.9 mg/dl range. High calcium levels almost always indicate parathyroid disease.At UCLA, the normal range for blood calcium level is 8.6 to 10.3 mg/dL. In order to maintain a normal calcium level, the body uses hormones to regulate blood calcium levels.Hypercalcemia is usually a result of overactive parathyroid glands. These four tiny glands are situated in the neck, near the thyroid gland. Other causes of hypercalcemia include cancer, certain other medical disorders, some medications, and taking too much of calcium and vitamin D supplements.To learn more about calcium refers to:
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the belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits which of the following etiological theories?
The belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits in supernatural, somatogenic, and psychogenic etiological theories, i.e. option D. All of the above.
Many psychologists, like Boyer, had advanced the theory claiming supernatural beliefs originated only via society and therefore that religious concepts are prevalent as they defy the brain's perception of reality, which in turn renders them simpler to recall.
Somatogenic theories pinpoint physiological dysfunctions brought on by disease, genetics, brain injury, or other mental imbalances. Psychogenic theories emphasise unpleasant or traumatic events, unhelpful learnt connections and cognitive distortions, or erroneous perceptions.
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The belief that negative or false interpretations of stressful events is responsible for the development of anxiety related disorders fits which of the following etiological theories?
A. supernatural
B. somatogenic
C. psychogenic
D. All of the above
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The school dietitian is required to include all of the MyPlate food groups in each day’s student lunches. Please select the only menu below that meets that requirement.
1. Stir-fry with rice and veggies; milk
2. chicken fingers, rice, applesauce, carrot sticks, milk
3. grilled-cheese sandwich, fruit cup, milk
4. fish fillet, ketchup, apple slices, french fries, fruit juice
The right response, according to the statement, is a grilled cheese sandwich, a fruit cup, and milk.
What is the job of a dietitian?Customers receive advice on wholesome eating practices and nutritional concerns from dietitians and nutritionists. Experts in using food and nutrition to promote health and treat disease include dietitians and nutritionists. They organize and carry out food industry fastfood activities to promote healthy living.
A doctor or a dietitian?It's a popular misperception that strategists and dietician are the same person. In actuality, dietary doctors, often known as dietitians, are medical professionals who specialize in the field of nutritional science. They also try to prevent diseases by modifying and adjusting diets.
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Sleepwalking occurs in stage _____ sleep, whereas nightmares occur in stage _____ sleep. a. N1; N2 c. N2; N1 b. R; N3 d. N3; R
Stage N3 sleep (R&K stages 3/4) is REM sleeping occur is when nightmares happen.
The correct statement is D.
How often does sleepwalking happen?Most frequently, deep, non-REM sleep, also known as N3 sleep, or early in the night is when sleepwalking (somnambulism) takes place. Compared to older persons, sleepwalking is far more common in young adults and children. Age-related decline in N3 sleep is the reason of this. Sleepwalking frequently occurs in families.
What does place when someone sleepwalks?Simple or sophisticated acts that a person performs while largely still asleep can be among the sleepwalking symptoms. An individual may well have unfocused, glassy eyes and a blank expression while experiencing an episode. They typically respond very little and speak incoherently.
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Dr. Kilbey is studying the impact of exosystems on human development. Which of these would she be most interested in examining? a. family and peer groups b.medical centers and religious institutions c. the development of the skeletal structure in children d. cultural values and economic processes
Dr. Kilbey is researching the impact of exosystems on human development, and the group she is most interested in studying is A. family and peer groups.
What is the definition of research?
This refers to the scientific method's systematic investigation of a phenomenon in order to learn more about it.
As a result, we can see that Dr. Kilbey is researching the impact of exosystems on human development, and the group she is most interested in studying is A. family and peer groups.
This is because it would demonstrate how ecosystems aid in the development of family members and peers.
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Researchers report a reduction in mortality rates by 7-19% by eliminating even one serving of _____________ from your diet every day.
Answer:
Red meat
Explanation:
i believe
Answer:
Researchers report a reduction in mortality rates by 7-19% by eliminating even one serving of red meats from your diet every day.
benefits of biopharmaceuticals
Answer:
Biopharmaceuticals are employed in the production of vaccines, blood and blood components, allergenic for allergy treatment, body cells and tissues, live cells utilized in cell treatments, gene therapies, and recombinant therapeutic proteins.
Hope this helps <3
Explanation:
Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with exception of:
Avascularity
Reasonable low concentration of class I antigens
An essential absence of Class II antigens
Eccentrically place grafts
Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with exception o Eccentrically place grafts.
The quality of life is significantly impacted by visual loss or impairment. The mechanical equilibrium between intraocular pressure (IOP) and internal stresses of corneal tissue determines the shape and optical characteristics of the cornea. This mechanical equilibrium can be disturbed by procedures like refractive surgery and diseases like Keratoconus, which reduce visual acuity. Refractive procedures are used to alter the corneal surface's curvature and optical power. Despite advancements in surgery over the past few decades (radial keratotomy, photorefractive keratotomy, or laser in situ keratomileusis), the outcomes of surgery are still unpredictable.
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nutrition labels are governed by which agency?responsesthe recommended daily allowances (rda)the recommended daily allowances (rda)the united states department of agriculture (usda)the united states department of agriculture (usda)the national label act of 1999the national label act of 1999the united foundation of nutrients (ufn)
The Department of Agriculture of the United States (USDA). The motivation behind the government's requirement of the nutrition fact. 1999, the Department Of Agriculture (USDA), and the national label.
Who oversees the nutritional labels?
Drug and Administration (FDA)
The Drug Enforcement Agency (FDA) is in charge of making sure that foods marketed in the US are wholesome, safe, and labeled correctly. Both domestically produced foods and those imported from other countries fall under this category.
Which governmental body demands nutritional data?
A Nutrition Facts label of packaged drinks and food has been changed by the American United states Food And drug (FDA). Based on new nutrition research, current scientific knowledge, and public feedback, FDA is requiring modifications to a Nutrition Facts label.
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T/F a nutrition claim that appears in a newspaper is usually a confirmed, and therefore reliable, finding.
It is untrue that a dietary claim made in a newspaper is typically supported by reliable research.
If a nutrition claim has any of the following characteristics, it is likely false: it is being made by an advertiser who is being paid to make claims. Every meal in your family has always included rice, as it has done for generations. Three types of claims that are outlined by law and/or FDA regulations are permitted to be used on food and dietary supplement labels: health claims, nutrition content claims, and structure/function claims.
However, there are a few quick and simple ways to spot a trustworthy source:
1. The author is a Professional Dietitian (PD) or Registered Dietitian (RD) (PDt).
2. Peer review has been done on the article.
3. The text includes a list of information sources.
4. No products are being promoted in the article.
5. The claims made in the article don't seem "too good to be true."
6. There are no grammatical errors in the text.
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Under what conditions is it appropriate to recontact the individual who provided the biological specimen?
Conditions is appropriate to recontract the individual provided the biological specimen Original signed consent documents include provisions for reconstructing subjects.
One of the fundamental moral and legal prerequisites for research involving human participants is informed permission. Numerous laws and standards, including the Nuremberg Code, Helsinki Declaration, Belmont Report, Common Rule, and others mandate that study participants (or the subjects' legal representative) make a voluntarily, informed decision to participate in research. 1-5 The moral precept of respect for autonomy, which asserts the biological specimen that the sensible people have the freedom to make choices and conduct actions that represent their beliefs and preferences, is the foundation of informed consent. 6 While the majority of regulations and standards also call for adequately recorded informed permission, informed consent entails much more than simply signing a piece of paper: The researcher and the research subject communicate constantly during the process.
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A person with a specific phobia experiences extreme distress in response to a particular stimulus or situation. How does a person who has a specific phobia respond to the stimuli differently than someone with agoraphobia?
People who have specific phobias will typically go out of their way to avoid the phobic stimulus; for example, someone who has agoraphobia may follow a specific path each day to stay away from the thing they are afraid of.
Individuals who experience severe dread or anxiety when exposed to particular things or circumstances are given the DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th ed.) diagnostic of specific phobia. Specific phobias, a subtype of anxiety disorder, can develop in response to a variety of triggers, including animals and medical procedures.
A deep, ongoing fear of a thing or circumstance that causes anxiety symptoms is what is known as a specific phobia. The anticipation of the stimulus's existence can also cause symptoms to manifest.
The implications on lifestyle, relationships, and employment may change depending on the type of phobia a person has. When compared to someone who has a complex phobia like agoraphobia, someone who is scared of snakes is less likely to encounter their phobic stimulus on a daily basis. As a result, their phobia won't have as big of an influence on their life.
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What causes release of the Hypothalamus?
which of the following is not a macronutrient? question 1 options: vitamins carbohydrates fats proteins
Vitamins are not macronutrients.
Macronutrients are the nutrients we need in larger amounts that give us with energy in other words, fat, protein and carbohydrate. Micronutrients are substantially vitamins and minerals, and are inversely important but consumed in veritably small quantities. We generally get our micronutrients along with macronutrients.
Any of several organic substances that are necessary in small amounts for normal health and growth in advanced forms of beast life called vitamins.
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Find, to the nearest tenth of an hour, how long it takes for half of the drug dose to be left in the body.
Half of the medication dose is retained in the body for 3.1 hours, or the closest tenth of an hour.
What is referred to as medicine?
What Do Drugs Do? Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid in the disease diagnosis. Modern medicine has made it possible for doctors to both save and cure many ailments. Nowadays, there are numerous sources for drugs.
Contrast between medication and medicine.
Medicine can also be referred to as medication. Both have the same meaning. The sole medicine for COVID-19 that the government has approved is an antiviral. A tablet is a compact, spherical piece of medication.
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Phytochemicals may be "guardians of our health," but the safety of consuming concentrated extracts is unknown. "The protective benefits of a phytochemical-rich diet are best obtained from frequent consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grain products"—by whole plant foods. The food industry has different ideas, though. Soon, there may be phytochemical-fortified bacon, martinis, and ice cream, says an article in the journal Food Technology. If they can find just the right mix of plant compounds, it "is not inconceivable that foods that once contributed to illness and disease may be reconstructed…to offer significant health benefits."
False: Phytochemicals may protect human health, with concentrated extracts offering benefits over entire foods in terms of protection.
Phytochemicals are particular chemical compounds that are derived from plants and may have therapeutic benefits for various illnesses and ailments. In conclusion, it is False to say that phytochemicals may be our body's watchdogs because their concentrated extracts offer greater health benefits than whole foods. entire question. The safety of ingesting concentrated extracts that offer protective effects superior to whole foods may make phytochemicals the guardians of human health. False or True. False: Phytochemicals may protect human health, with concentrated extracts offering benefits over entire foods in terms of protection. Specific nutrients known as phytochemicals are present in meals with a plant origin and are not classified as vitamins or minerals, making them a novel type of nutrient.
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if an author wanted to really be able to claim that watching TV CAUSES problems for children, how could they design their study to figure this out?
The author could design a study with a control group and an experimental group.
What are the side effects of watching TV in children?
1. Decreased physical activity: Too much time spent in front of a television can lead to decreased physical activity, which can contribute to health problems like obesity.
2. Attention problems: Watching too much television has been linked to attention problems in children.
3. Negative impact on learning: Excessive TV viewing can have a negative impact on a child’s ability to learn and concentrate.
4. Poor eating habits: Studies have shown that children who watch a lot of television are more likely to eat unhealthy snacks and have poor eating habits.
The control group would not watch TV, while the experimental group would watch TV for a certain amount of time each day. Both groups would then be monitored and tested for physical, social, and emotional wellbeing over a period of time. This would allow the author to determine whether watching TV has a negative effect on children's health, and if so, to what degree.
Hence, control group and an experimental group is used by the author to design the study.
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social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status.
True, social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status.
The health of individuals and communities is impacted by a variety of variables. The circumstances and environment a person lives in determine whether they are healthy or not. To a large extent, factors like where we live, the quality of our environment, our genetics, our income and education level, and our relationships with friends and family all have significant effects on health, while factors like access to and use of health care services—which are more frequently thought of—often have less of an effect.
The range of personal, social, economic and environmental factors that influence health status are known as determinants of health.
Policy-making
Health outcomes for individuals and populations are impacted by local, state, and federal policies. By lowering the number of persons who use tobacco products, increasing tobacco sales taxes, for instance, can enhance population health. Unfavorable conditions can be brought on by poor policies and programs, bad governance, and unjust economic arrangements.
Social Elements
The conditions of the environment in which people are born, live, learn, play, work, and age are reflected in the social and physical determinants of health. They have an effect on a variety of health, functional, and quality-of-life outcomes and are also referred to as social determinants of health. They stand for societal and physical settings, political and economic systems, and access to healthcare services. People's health, wellbeing, and quality of life are significantly impacted by social determinants of health (SDOH).
Medical Services
Health can be impacted by both the availability of healthcare services and their standard of care. Lack of availability, excessive expense, lack of insurance coverage, and poor linguistic access are all obstacles to receiving healthcare. The inability to obtain preventive services, delays in receiving the proper care, and avoidable hospitalizations are all caused by these hurdles to accessing health services.
Individual Behavior
Individual behaviors, such as nutrition, exercise, and the use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs, also have an impact on health outcomes.
Genetics and Biology
Certain biological and genetic factors have a greater impact on some populations than others. Age, sex, inherited diseases, and genetic make-up are a few biological and genetic determinants of health.
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