The outcome which indicates that teaching has been effective is the patient refuses to get eyebrow pierced with girl friends.
The patient refuses to get her eyebrows pierced in front of her pals, indicating that the education against body piercings and tattoos was effective. Having a tattoo or piercing in a specific bodily place implies that education was ineffective.
Anybody thinking about getting a tattoo or getting a body piercing should be informed of the hazards if necessary measures and aftercare are not taken. Major skin, blood, and bone infections, hepatitis C, and other long-term problems are among the hazards.
Environmental protection authorities have indicated that tattoos are extremely carcinogenic. Heavy metals, specifically cadmium, lead, mercury, antimony, beryllium, and arsenic, are linked to cancer, neurological illnesses, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disease, lungs, kidneys, liver, endocrine disease, and bone disease.
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negative health outcomes in both men and women such as breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia, alzheimer's have been associated with: multiple choice question. sleeping for 10 hours per night. going to bed after midnight. sleep deprivation and sleep disorders. taking one or more naps during the day.
Sleep patterns have been linked to a number of detrimental health effects, such as breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia, and Alzheimer's.
Breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia, and Alzheimer's disease are just a few of the unfavourable health consequences linked to poor sleep patterns. While sleeping for 10 hours every night or going to bed after midnight might disturb the body's normal sleep-wake cycle and have a detrimental effect on general health, sleep deprivation and sleep disorders have been related to an increased chance of acquiring certain health issues. Taking one or more naps throughout the day might also alter how well you sleep at night, which can have a variety of detrimental effects on your health. Therefore, it's critical to emphasise appropriate sleep practises, such as keeping a regular sleep schedule, reducing coffee and alcohol use, and establishing a cosy sleeping environment, in order to avoid these detrimental health effects.
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negative health outcomes in both men and women such as breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia, alzheimer's have been associated with: multiple choice question. sleeping for 10 hours per night. going to bed after midnight. sleep deprivation and sleep disorders. taking one or more naps during the day. What are some negative health outcomes that have been associated with sleep habits?
Sleep pattern cause various health issues in both men and women such as breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia ,so the proper sleep position is necessary.
Breast cancer, prostate cancer, dementia, and Alzheimer's disease are just a few of the unfavourable health consequences linked to poor sleep patterns.
Breast cancer is cancer in the women breast that forms in the cells of the breasts. As skin cancer is most common in women, breast cancer is also one of the most common cancer diagnosed in women in the United States. Breast cancer can occur in both men and women, but it is most commonly seen in women.
Prostate cancer is cancer that occurs in the prostate in the human . The prostate is a gland which is small walnut-shaped gland in males that produces the seminal fluid that nourishes and transports sperm. Prostate cancer is one of the most common types of cancer that is commonly seen in mens.
Dementia is not particular disease name but it is a common term for the impaired ability to remember, think, or make decisions that interferes with doing everyday activities. Alzheimer's disease is the most common type of dementia. Dementia mostly affects older adults, it is not a part of normal aging.
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which term best describes the pattern of occurrence of the three diseases noted below in a single area?
The term that best describes the pattern of occurrence of the three diseases noted below in a single area is sporadic.
Sporadic illness is a phrase used in epidemiology to describe a disease that occurs infrequently, haphazardly, irregularly, or intermittently from time to time in a few isolated sites with no identifiable temporal or geographical pattern, as opposed to a clear epidemic or endemic pattern. The incidents are so rare and so far apart in time and space that there is little or no link between them. They also lack a discernible common source of infection.
Tetanus, rabies, and plague are examples of occasional illnesses in the United States. Although the tetanus-causing bacterium Clostridium tetani is prevalent in soil across the United States, tetanus infections are extremely rare and occur in isolated regions because most people have received vaccines or cleaned wounds properly.
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what is the most common means of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
The physician's discharge summary includes the final diagnoses of: (1) coronary artery disease, (2) hypertension, and (3) benign prostatic hypertrophy. The coder notes in the patient's laboratory reports hat the patient has an elevated cholesterol level and an elevated psa positive finding. Should the coder code the elevated cholesterol level and an elevated psa positive finding? why?
The coder should code the elevated cholesterol level and an elevated PSA positive finding as they are relevant and documented lab results that support the final diagnoses and provide additional information about the patient's health status.
Elevated cholesterol levels are commonly associated with coronary artery disease, which is one of the patient's final diagnoses, and an elevated PSA level can be an indication of benign prostatic hypertrophy, which is another diagnosis the patient has received. Documenting these laboratory findings provides a more complete picture of the patient's health status and can be important for ensuring accurate coding and billing for the services provided to the patient.
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a nurse is developing a plan of care for a client to meet the client's self-actualization needs. the nurse would focus on which area as most important?
The nurse would focus on Emphasizing the client's strengths as most important.
A nursing care plan chronicles the process of recognizing a patient's requirements and supporting holistic care, which is generally done in five steps. A care plan ensures that nurses, patients, and other healthcare providers work together.
The care plan explains why a person is getting care (their evaluated health or care requirements), their medical history, personal information, expected and hoped-for results, and, of course, what care and support will be provided to them, how, when, and by whom. Care plans are essential in the management of a patient. They clearly outline guidelines as well as the nurse's role in patient care and assist them in developing and implementing a strong plan of action. This enables nurses to deliver concentrated care while not forgetting critical measures.
The complete question is:
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client to meet the client's self-actualization needs. The nurse would focus on which area as most important?
1) Emphasizing the client's strengths2) Addressing the client's problems3) Reducing fear4) Promoting socializationTo learn more about Nursing Care Plan, here
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which minimum educational degree must be obtained for a nursing student to further study to initiate and conduct research in the field of forensics
The minimum educational requirement for a nurse to start and carry out forensics related research is a doctor of philosophy in nursing.
A Ph.D. nurse is a person who has acquired a doctorate in philosophy in nursing. A doctorate is the highest degree that a nurse can acquire. Of course, in order to become Ph.D. nurses, nurses must complete a Ph.D. in nursing degree, which normally requires 4–6 years to complete.
An aspiring Ph.D. nurse needs to be passionate about conducting medical research or teaching nursing students. As many Ph.D. nurses go on to oversee and mentor other nurses, whether they are employed in administration, scientific research, or education, strong leadership skills are also essential.
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a nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes who has had a myocardial infarction (mi) and is reporting nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, and substernal chest pain. which is the priority intervention?
The priority intervention for a client with type 2 diabetes who is reporting nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, and substernal chest pain is to control the pain and to support breathing and oxygenation.
Myocardial infarction, often shortened as MI, is the main cause of death in people who suffers from type 2 diabetes. MI itself is a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle, often called a heart attack. It happens when one or more areas of the heart muscle don't get enough oxygen because of the blockage.
People with type 2 diabetes have a higher chance to experience a heart attack. They also generally have worse outcomes compared to people without diabetes.
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kailee suffered a severe viral infection during her fourth month of pregnancy that caused her baby to be born with an abnormal heart valve. in this instance, the virus was clearly a
Kailee suffered a severe viral infection during her fourth month of pregnancy that caused her baby to be born with an abnormal heart valve. in this instance, the virus was clearly a abnormality in heart valve.
Viral infections during gestation can beget a wide range of abnormalities in the baby, depending on the inflexibility of the infection and the timing of the exposure. Depending on the type of contagion, it can affect any organ or system of the baby, including the heart. In this case, the contagion caused abnormalities in the baby's heart
valve which can beget serious complications. Treatment for these types of abnormalities may involve surgery or other interventions. It's important for pregnant women to exercise good hygiene and take preventative measures to reduce their threat of infection and implicit complications.
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a nurse who provides care in diverse settings is aware that ciprofloxacin in among the more commonly-prescribed antibiotics. in which clients would the use of oral or parenteral ciprofloxacin require caution or be contraindicated? select all that apply.
Clients who use ciprofloxacin and need special attention are clients who are currently taking stomach acid-lowering drugs.
What is ciprofloxacin?Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic to treat various diseases caused by bacterial infections, such as pneumonia, gonorrhea, urinary tract infections, prostate infections, or eye and ear infections. This drug can also be used to treat anthrax and bubonic plague.
Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone class of antibiotics. This drug works by inhibiting the enzymes topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase which are needed by bacteria to reproduce themselves. That way, bacteria cannot reproduce and it is easier for the immune system to eradicate.
But when using it, you need to pay attention to a number of things, one of which is people who are taking ciprofoxacin and are currently taking stomach acid-lowering drugs.
Your question is not complete, maybe the meaning of your question is:
a nurse who provides care in diverse settings is aware that ciprofloxacin in among the more commonly-prescribed antibiotics. in which clients would the use of oral or parenteral ciprofloxacin require caution or be contraindicated? select all that apply.
Currently taking stomach acid-lowering drugs.Are taking diabetes-lowering drugsLearn more about effect of pregnancy on potential use of ciprofloxacin here :
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mary, a 24 year old college student, received her first and only hpv vaccine at the age of 14. what is true regarding receiving subsequent hpv vaccines?
Mary may complete the series regardless of vaccine manufacturer available is true regarding receiving subsequent HPV vaccines.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccinations are vaccines that protect against infection with certain strains of the human papillomavirus. There are HPV vaccines available that protect against two, four, or nine distinct types of HPV. All HPV vaccinations protect against at least HPV types 16 and 18, which are responsible for the majority of cervical cancer cases. There is strong evidence that vaccination of a substantial proportion of a community reduces HPV infection rates, with herd immunity playing a role.
HPV vaccines, along with other preventive measures, are recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) as part of regular immunizations in all countries. Vaccinating a big percentage of the population may assist the unvaccinated as well. HPV vaccinations are used to protect against HPV infection and, as a result, cervical cancer.
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An institution with a lot of paper medical records may not be ready to switch to an entirely electronic records system, but may choose to use a format instead.
An institution with a lot of paper medical records may not be ready to switch to an entirely electronic records system, but may choose to use a format instead of hybrid system of paper and electronic records.
A hybrid system of paper and electronic records can offer an institution the capability to use the stylish of both worlds. In this type of system, paper records would still be used for maintaining the case's medical history, while any new records would be created, stored, and managed electronically.
This system would also allow healthcare providers to snappily enter and pierce patient data and have the capability to digitally partake records with other providers. also, a mongrel system would allow the institution to take advantage of any being paper records while still transitioning to a more effective system that would give a lesser position of delicacy.
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a 17-year-old female adolescent informs the primary health care provider they have not yet had a menstrual period. several diagnostic tests were completed and no pathology has been identified. in preparing for the adolescent's follow-up appointment, the nurse is correct to prepare instruction around which hormone?
Androgens are hormones that nurses give instructions to.
Amenorrhea (pronounced "a-men-or-RE-ah") simply means no menstruation. He has two types: primary amenorrhea and secondary amenorrhea. Primary amenorrhea means that a teenage girl has no menstruation from the time breast development begins until her age 15 or her 3 years. Secondary amenorrhea means that you had a period before and are no longer having it. Hormonal dysregulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis, including increased androgens and estrogens, hypersecretion of luteinizing hormone (LH), and decreased synthesis of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), has been implicated in women with PCOS. It leads to irregular menstruation and amenorrhea.
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mr. teller is picking up his warfarin prescription. according to most state laws, what information can only a pharmacist or pharmacy intern provide mr. teller during a consultation?
The pharmacist or the intern will provide the information regarding dosage and usage of warfarin, as it is taken once a day, usually in the evening. It's important to take your dose at the same time each day, before, during or after a meal.
It's crucial that you take warfarin precisely as prescribed. If your treating physician does not advise you to raise your dose, do not. Warfarin therapy's goal is to lessen blood's propensity to clot, not to totally prevent it from doing so.
This means it's important to carefully monitor and, if required, modify your warfarin dosage. you should have routine blood tests to ensure that your dose is appropriate.
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the nurse is providing discharge teaching to an adolescent who has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease (pid). what would the nurse include as a preventive measure?
When providing discharge teaching to an adolescent who has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), the nurse should include several preventive measures: Practicing safe sex, prompt treatment, douching, good hygiene and full course of antibiotics.
Practicing safe sex: The most common cause of PID is sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so the nurse should emphasize the importance of using barrier methods (such as condoms) during sexual activity to reduce the risk of infection.
Seeking prompt treatment: Any symptoms of STIs or other infections should be evaluated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of PID.
Avoiding douching: Douching can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the vagina, increasing the risk of infection.
Maintaining good hygiene: The nurse should stress the importance of good hygiene practices, such as washing the genital area daily and wearing clean, breathable clothing.
Completing the full course of antibiotics: If antibiotics were prescribed to treat the PID, the patient should complete the full course of medication as directed, even if symptoms improve.
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you are preparing to discharge a patient who is taking ciprofloxacin. what guidance would you offer this patient to prevent crystalluria?
The guidance that one would offer this patient to prevent crystalluria is "Drink at least 2 liters of fluids per day."
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections. This includes, among other things, bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, infectious diarrhea, respiratory tract infections, skin infections, typhoid fever, and urinary tract infections.
Ciprofloxacin is used to treat bacterial infections throughout the body. Ciprofloxacin oral liquid and pills are also used to treat anthrax infections caused by inhalation. This medication is also employed in the treatment and prevention of plague (including pneumonic and septicemic plague).
Crystalluria is a possible adverse effect of fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin. To reduce the likelihood of acquiring the disease, patients should be urged to drink two to three quarts of water every day. Although the nurse should advise the patient to take the medicine as recommended and to avoid antacids, which can reduce drug absorption, neither of these measures can prevent crystalluria.
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the nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with asthma. the client reports drinking herbal tea to treat illnesses. which additional question(s) will the nurse ask during the assessment? select all that apply.
The additional questions that the the nurse will ask during the assessment are:
-"Do you take any other supplements?"
-"How many cups of herbal tea do you drink in a day?"
-"Have you shared this information with your health care provider?"
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the lungs' airways. It is distinguished by recurrent and changeable symptoms, reversible airflow restriction, and readily induced bronchospasms. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath are all symptoms. This might happen several times per day or a few times each week. Asthma symptoms may worsen at night or during activity, depending on the individual.
Asthma is considered to be caused by a mix of hereditary and environmental factors. Air pollution and allergies are examples of environmental influences. Medications such as aspirin and beta blockers are also possible factors. The pattern of symptoms, responsiveness to therapy over time, and spirometry lung function testing are commonly used to make a diagnosis.
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a 13-year-old boy has had a sore throat for at least a week, vomiting for 2 days, and cervical lymph nodes are swollen. throat cultures show infection with group a beta-hemolytic streptococci. this child is at high risk for development of which cardiac abnormality?
The cardiac abnormality is rheumatic heart disease.
What is abnormality ?Abnormality is a term used to describe any behavior, feeling, thought, or experience that is considered atypical or out of the ordinary. Abnormality can refer to mental, physical, or social attributes that deviate from the accepted norm. This can include things like physical illnesses, psychological disorders, and social behaviors that are perceived as unusual or strange. Abnormal behavior can cause distress or disruption to an individual’s life, and can impact their functioning in various areas. Mental health professionals use a variety of methods to diagnose and treat abnormal behaviors, with the goal of helping individuals to achieve healthy and fulfilling lives.
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a nurse participates in a community acitivity sponsored by the national alliance for mental illness that is designed to decrease stigma associated with mental illness. which role has the nurse fulfilled?
In the case above, the nurse has fulfilled their advocate role.
There are several roles that exist in nursing:
Patient care. A nurse is a caregiver for patients that manage their physical needs, prevents illness, and treat health conditions.Patient advocacy. Nurses often provide emotional support for patients and their families.Planning of care. A nurse is involved in the decision-making process of patient treatment. They have to think critically when assessing a patient's conditions to make the appropriate recommendations.Patient education and support. A nurse is responsible to ensure that their patient can understand their condition and treatment to the best of their ability.Learn more about nursing role at https://brainly.com/question/30532129
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a major safeguard of health, vitality, and reduced rates of chronic illness and disability is: a. living in the countryside rather than in a city. b. maintaining a healthy weight and exercising regularly. c. consuming adequate fresh fruits and vegetables daily. d. high socioeconomic status.
A major safeguard of health, vitality, and reduced rates of chronic illness and disability is high socioeconomic status of the society we are all currently staying in.
Health, according to the World Health Organization, is not just the absence of sickness but also a complete condition of mental, physical, and social well-being. Consequently, being physically, psychologically, and socially whole is necessary for leading a good life.
A healthy way of living. active way of life. healthful living, a wholesome way of life. Despite the fact that most individuals are aware of what makes for a healthy lifestyle, we are all accountable for making the very same unwholesome decisions.
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a researcher is compiling data on the incidence of all types of diseases. these data reflect: a. vitality. b. disability. c. morbidity. d. mortality
Morbidity is the frequency of an illness or other health condition in a population and is sometimes stated as a rate or ratio of those affected to the population as a whole.
The term "Morbidity" refers to the mortality rate of a population, which is frequently stated as the death rate per 1,000 or per 100,000 people.
Disability, which is sometimes represented as a rate or ratio of individuals afflicted to the entire population, is a physical or mental disability that restricts a person's capacity to execute a certain task in a way or within the range regarded normal for a human being.
Finally, vitality is the state of being physically and mentally well, and it is frequently described as a rate or ratio of individuals impacted to the population as a whole.
As a result, the researcher is gathering information on the prevalence of all diseases in a population, as well as the death rate, the prevalence of physical and mental disabilities, and the general state of overall health.
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What area of confusion is occurring between Lisa and the patient? How should this be resolved for the patient?
When a third party's insurance claim rights under a policy are transferred to another party, the legal term "assignment of benefits" is used. Additionally transmitted as a result of a few circumstances are the benefits that come with the coverage.
What is insurance?There are various sorts of this, including health insurance, vehicle insurance, etc., and it is characterized as a way to protect against any loss or damage.The third party has the right to make a claim or modify the terms of the agreement with the business in a benefit agreement. As a result of some rights being transferred, the insurance payments may also be collected without the owner's involvement after which, the third party reimburses the owner for the necessary percentage in accordance withFor more information on insurance kindly visit to
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Complete question :Lisa Warren is a newly hired health insurance specialist at a small medical practice, and she is responsible for completing and submitting CMS-
1500 claims. Toward the end of her second day on the job, she is asked to take a phone call from a patient who has questions about his
submitted claim.
The patient tells Lisa that he just received an explanation of benefits (EOB) from his third-party payer, and it makes no sense because the
bottom part of the form that is supposed to include a tear-off check is blank. He tells Lisa that EOB says that he agreed to the assignment of
benefits. The patient is upset because he needs that money to buy groceries.
Lisa uses the medical practice's electronic health record system to quickly access the patient's record, submitted CMS-1500 claim, and
remittance advice the practice received from the payer. Lisa explains to the patient that the physician accepts assignment from this payer. She
further explains that according to her file, the account is considered paid in full because the patient paid her $20 copayment at the time of the
encounter.
The patient argues that the medical practice owes him money because he was supposed to receive a check from the payer.
What is meant by the phrase assignment of benefits?
7. the nurse prepares a client for a bone scan. what priority assessment should the nurse perform for this client?
Answer:
A. History of claustrophobia
B. Presence of IV access
C. Current vital signs
D. Presence of metallic implants such as pacemaker or aneurysm clips
Presence of IV access
a 15-year-old female is being seen for an annual physical examination. the teen asks the nurse if what they talk about will be kept private. what is the appropriate response by the nurse?
The nurse should explain to the teen that whatever they discuss will be kept confidential,
A nurse should explain that the only times when private information is participated is when it's fairly needed or for the safety of the teen or others. The nurse should also explain that the teen can decide what information is participated with their parents or guardians. The nurse should emphasize that the teen has control over their healthcare
opinions and that their sequestration will be admired. The nurse should also admire the teen's autonomy and encourage dialogue between the teen and their parents or guardians. Eventually, the nurse should explain that their part is to give the teen with doctors and support in making informed opinions about their healthcare.
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the nurse is caring for an adolescent female who is scheduled for an emergent laparoscopic surgical procedure. what question by the nurse would be appropriate?
The nurse should inquire, "What questions or worries do you have regarding the operation?" from the teenage female who is scheduled for an urgent laparoscopic surgical treatment.
This inquiry enables the nurse to comprehend the patient's viewpoint and any problems they could be experiencing, as well as to give them the knowledge and help they want.
Additionally, it enables the nurse to establish a rapport of trust with the patient and provide a secure environment in which they may share their ideas and feelings.
Further more, it gives the nurse the chance to thoroughly explain the operation to the patient, along with its advantages and disadvantages, so that they can make an educated choice and feel supported throughout.
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methylprednisolone was ordered at 30 mg/kg. if the patient weighs 44 lb, what dose of methylprednisolone will she receive?
If the patient weighs 44 lb, 1,320 mg dose of methylprednisolone she will receive.
Methylprednisolone is a synthetic glucocorticoid used to treat inflammation and immunosuppression. It is either taken at modest dosages for chronic conditions or at high doses concurrently during acute flares.
It treats some types of arthritis, skin, blood, kidney, eye, thyroid, and intestinal problems (e.g., colitis), severe allergies, and asthma by reducing inflammation (swelling, heat, redness, and discomfort). Certain forms of cancer are also treated with methylprednisolone. Methylprednisolone treatment at high doses can cause liver damage. The withdrawal of methylprednisolone is required for the normalization of liver function tests. The liver harm caused by methylprednisolone may be due to a transitory immunological rebound.
The complete question is:
Methylprednisolone was ordered at 30 mg/kg. If the patient weighs 44 lb, what dose of methylprednisolone will she receive?
60 mg600 mg1,320 mg13,200 mgTo learn more about Methylprednisolone, here
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a patient with a cds is restless and frequently changes positions. as a result, the chest drainage tubing frequently develops multiple dependent loops. which action is the most appropriate
The most apropriate action in this situation would be to ensure that the chest drainage tubing is properly secured.
This can be done by securing the tubing to the case's apparel or coverlet with tape recording, securing the tubing to the case's skin with tape recording or glue, or securing the tubing to the bed frame by looping it around a bar.
The thing is to keep the tubing from sliding around too important and creating dependent circles, which can urine drainage from the chest and increase the threat of infection. also, icing that the case is comfortable and secure in the bed can help to reduce restlessness and limit their movement.
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a 36-year-old client undergoes a modified radical mastectomy. during which time period would the nurse instruct the client to examine her remaing breast
A 36-year-old patient had a modified radical mastectomy. The client's declaration that she will self-examine her remaining breast seven days following each menstrual period indicates to the nurse that she is aware of the timeline for doing so.
Whole breast removal occurs with a modified radical mastectomy. The areola, nipple, skin that lies on top, and lining that covers the chest muscles all fall under this category.
There is also some lymph node removal under the arm. These lymph nodes frequently receive breast cancer spread. Then, it might spread to other bodily regions. Sometimes, a portion of the muscle in the chest wall is also taken out.
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following a lumbar puncture, the nurse reviews the results of a client's cerebrospinal fluid (csf). which findings indicate possible bacterial meningitis? (select all that apply)
Testing the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) acquired by lumbar puncture allows for the diagnosis of meningitis. Increased pressure, clouded cerebral fluid, a high protein level, and a low glucose level are frequently observed in bacterial meningitis cases.
Obtaining CSF fluid by a spinal tap is necessary for a conclusive diagnosis of meningitis. When a person has meningitis, their fluid frequently has an elevated white blood cell count, an increased protein content, and a low sugar level.
Finding the organism that caused the meningitis may also be assisted by analyzing the fluid. You could require a DNA-based test called a polymerase chain reaction amplification if viral meningitis is suspected.
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a person has been prescribed nitrofurantoin what education would you provide
If a person has been prescribed Nitrofurantoin, it is important to provide education on the proper usage and potential side effects of the medication.
Nitrofurantoin is a type of antibiotic that is used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs) Some important information to include in the education regarding Nitrofurantoin would be:
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functional foods are fruits and vegetables that carry a vast array of which may function to protect human health as antioxidants, phytoestrogens and anti-inflammatory agents. which term best fits the blank?
Functional foods are fruits and vegetables that carry a vast array of phytochemicals which may function to protect human health as antioxidants, phytoestrogens and anti-inflammatory agents.
Phytochemicals are also called phytonutrients. They are potentially helpful compounds found in plant foods. They may also help prevent chronic diseases which also include cancer.
Phytonutrients can be found in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, nuts and seeds. But the type and quantity of phytochemicals vary in different plants.
Some foods which are high in phytochemicals include broccoli, berries, soynuts, pears, turnips, celery, carrots and spinach.
Nutrition researchers evaluate that more than 4,000 phytochemicals have been recognized, but only about 150 have been studied in depth.
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