PTSD common symptoms
Vivid memories (feeling like the trauma is happening right now)Obtrusive ideas or visuals.Nightmares.Extreme distress when reminded of the incident in real or symbolic ways.Physical reactions like trembling, sweating, nausea, or pain.What is posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd)?
A horrific event can cause post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), a mental health disease that can be brought on by experiencing it or seeing it. Flashbacks, nightmares, excruciating anxiety, and uncontrollable thoughts about the incident are just a few possible symptoms.
How can PTSD be treated?
Psychological therapies and medication are the main post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) treatments. Although dealing with traumatic events can be very difficult, addressing your emotions and getting professional help are frequently the only ways to effectively treat PTSD.
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he community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. the nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? select all that apply
The nurse explains to participants that because tuberculosis is thought to be a diagnosis, the signs & symptoms include dyspnea, night sweats, a bloody, productive cough & a cough that produces mucoid sputum.
What is tuberculosis?A bacterial infection with the potential to be dangerous that mainly affects the lungs The germs that cause TB are spread when a person with the illness coughs or sneezes. Most people who have the bacteria that cause tuberculosis don't have any symptoms. A fever, weight loss, night sweats, and a cough are frequently present symptoms when they do appear.. For those with no symptoms, treatment is not always necessary. A lengthy course of treatment involving numerous antibiotics will be necessary for patients who have active symptoms.
What happens if you get tuberculosis?Common symptoms of TB disease include fatigue, feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Aside from chest pain, other symptoms of TB lung disease include bloody coughing and coughing up debris. The location of the infection determines the symptoms of TB disease in other body parts.
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The correct question is :The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply
1)Dyspnea
2)Headache
3)Night sweats
4)A bloody, productive cough
5)A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
you are a new sports dietitian in a college athletic department and are developing protocols for measuring weight and body composition for your athletes. based on the international olympic committees (ioc) medical commission recommendations, how would you recommend that coaches be involved in this process?
Based on the international olympic committees (ioc) medical commission recommendations, coaches can be involved in the process of developing protocols for measuring weight and body composition for your athletes by supervising and ensuring that the right meal are eaten.
Who is a Dietitian?This is referred to as a type of healthcare professional who specializes in the assessment, diagnosis and treatment of dietary and nutritional problems of an individual or a client.
In a scenario where the protocols needed for measuring weight and body composition are developed, it is best to include the coach so as to ensure that there is adequate supervision and tio ensure that they are followed for the best possible result which is therefore the correct choice.
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next gen olivia jones is admitted with a diagnosis of preeclampsia at 36 weeks of gestation. which assessment finding(s) are consistent with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features?
At 36 weeks of gestation, the assessment finding(s) which are consistent with a diagnosis of preeclampsia are high blood pressure and protein in your urine.
Preeclampsia is a doubtless dangerous physiological condition complication characterized by high blood pressure. It usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy and it will result in serious, even fatal, complications for each mother and baby. Some women with gestational hypertension may develop preeclampsia.
With preeclampsia, you not only have high blood pressure but also find protein in your urine (proteinuria) or alternative signs of kidney organ injury. Any quantity of protein in your urine over three hundred mg in in the future could indicate this condition.
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a nurse assessing a client's respiratory status gets a weak signal from the pulse oximeter. the client's other vital signs are within reference ranges. what is the nurse's best action?
The nurse assessing a client's respiratory status gets a weak signal from the pulse oximeter. the client's other vital signs are within reference ranges. The nurse's best action should be Warm the client's hands and try again.
Give a brief idea about pulse oximetry.A non-invasive technique for checking someone's oxygen saturation is pulse oximetry. Values of peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) are normally within 2% accuracy (within 4% accuracy in 95% of instances) of readings of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) from arterial blood gas analysis, which are more accurate (and intrusive). However, the correlation between the two is strong enough that the safe, practical, non-invasive, and affordable pulse oximetry approach is useful for determining oxygen saturation in clinical settings.
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the majority of skin variations are transient and fade or disappear with time. the nurse assesses a permanent skin variation in a newborn and counsels the parents to monitor it because of its link to potential childhood cancer. the nurse implements this counseling based on which finding?
The majority of skin variations are transient and fade or disappear with time. the nurse assesses a permanent skin variation in a newborn and counsels the parents to monitor it because of its link to potential childhood cancer blood sugar.
Even in formative years, most cancers are often related to leukemia, facts from the U.S. Facilities for Disease Management and Prevention (CDC) located that mind cancer is now the deadliest pediatric cancer.
Getting admission to effective prognosis, crucial drugs, pathology, blood merchandise, radiation remedy, era, and psychosocial and supportive care are variable and inequitable around the sector. but, treatment is viable for more than eighty% of youngsters with most cancers in when formative years most cancer services are accessible.
Childhood most cancers charges were growing barely for the past few long time. due to main treatment advances in recent many years, 85% of children with most cancers now live on 5 years or extra. ordinary, this is a large growth for the reason that mid-1970s, whilst the 5-12 months survival fee changed to about fifty eight%.
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a nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a client who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. what aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority?
Answer:
Implementation of infection-control measures
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a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (adhf) is admitted to the unit. about which orders should the nurse ask for clarification?
Regular diet, normal saline IV bolus, and vital signs every four hours are the orders, should the nurse require clarification.
What is the reason behind ADHF?Fluid volume overload that develops suddenly is referred to as acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). However, acute coronary syndrome, arrhythmias, uncontrolled hypertension, and infections like endocarditis may also cause acute decompensated heart failure. The most frequent causes are medication and dietary noncompliance.
Acute decompensated heart failure is characterized by the sudden or gradual onset of heart failure signs or symptoms that necessitate unforeseen office visits, ER visits, or hospitalization.
Most patients admitted with ADHF receive intravenous loop diuretics as their main treatment, which, as was already mentioned, primarily reduces venous congestion and volume overload to alleviate symptoms.
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diagnostic radiology: x-ray of abdomen: radiological examination 1-view of abdomen reveals no abnormal soft tissue masses, gas shadows, or calcifications. liver and spleen not enlarged. visualized bones appear normal.
For an abdomen x-ray, the radiological examination 1-view shows no abnormal masses, gas shadows, or calcifications, while bones, liver, and spleen appear normal. The correct code for the examination is: 74018.
What is the radiological examination?The radiological examination is a procedure that uses radiation to find any abnormalities that are signs or symptoms of cancer in the patient’s body. We can examine this by using x-rays, CT, MRI, etc. Diagnostic radiology or diagnostic imaging has a wide range of codes, from 70010-76499. The code 74018 stands for a radiologic examination of the abdomen. This type of examination is used to detect signs of cancer in the abdomen area.
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which client likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypocoagulation disorder and vitamin k deficiency?
The question isn't complete, as there are no options that we can choose from. That being said, generally, a client that likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypercoagulation disorder and vitamin K deficiency is a client that has a liver failure diagnosis secondary to alcohol abuse.
Hypercoagulation disorder, also called hypercoagulability, is a condition where the body is more likely to make blood clots than normal. Normally, coagulation is important to stop bleeding and start the healing process. However, too much clotting can be dangerous. People with hypercoagulation disorder have a higher risk for:
StrokeHeart attackSevere leg painLoss of limbsThis disorder is usually inherited from parents or acquired from trauma, surgery, medication, or medical conditions.
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a patient in the emergency department sustained a knife wound to the abdomen. the wound extended through the membranes surrounding the large intestine, into the layers of the large intestine, and into the lumen of the large intestine. discuss the membranes and layers that were penetrated, from superficial (outermost) to deep (innermost).
The membrane and sections that were pierced from the surface to the depths (innermost).
What's within the abdomen?The stomach, the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine, the colon of the large intestine, the liver, the brain, the liver, the thyroid, the uterus, the reproductive organs, the eggs, the kidneys, its vas deferens, the bladder, and numerous blood vessels are all located in the abdomen (arteries and veins).
What use does the abdomen serve?Breathing, digestion, posture, equilibrium, and movement are the main purposes of the abdomen. The abdomen contains all of the key organs involved in digesting. The auxiliary muscles of breathing rely heavily on the abdomen for breathing.
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a client has buck's extension traction applied to the right leg. the nurse would plan which intervention to prevent complications of the device?
The nurse inspects the skin on the right leg at least once every 8 hours to prevent complications of the device.
Skin traction includes Buck's extension traction. At least once every eight hours, the nurse checks the skin of the leg in traction for irritation or inflammation. Lotion massage on the skin is not advised. When traction weights are applied, the nurse never removes them until the doctor specifically instructs her to. With skin traction, there are no pins to take care of.
For femoral fractures, lower back pain, as well as acetabular and hip fractures, Buck's skin traction is frequently employed in the lower limb. Skin traction lessens pain and maintains length in fractures, although it rarely reduces fractures.
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the client asked the nurse to describe stage c heart failure. what is the best explanation by the nurse?
Nurses describe stage C heart failure as heart failure that begins to cause symptoms due to a weakening of the heart's left ventricle.
What is Heart Failure? What are their stages?Heart failure is a chronic disease that gets worse over time. Heart failure has her four stages (stages A, B, C, and D).In Stage C, heart failure begins to cause symptoms due to weakness of the left ventricle. This is also the stage when symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath are common.In stage C, swelling of the extremities, especially legs and feet, may also occur.Is stage C heart failure curable and reversible?There is no cure for CHF, but early detection and treatment can help people live longer. Following a treatment plan that includes lifestyle changes can improve your quality of life. CHF is a chronic disease that worsens over time in many patients, but can sometimes be reversed with timely treatment and a healthy lifestyle. In general, heart disease is more likely to recover if detected early and treated promptlyTo learn more about heart failure visit:
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the pharmacology instructor is describing medications that increase the contractile force of the heart. which term describes this effect?
the pharmacology instructor is describing medications that increase the contractile force of the heart. Positive inotropic is the term that describes this effect
Inotropes are drugs that tell your heart muscles to defeat or contract with more control or less control, depending on whether it’s a positive or negative inotrope. Positive inotropes can offer assistance when your heart can’t get sufficient blood to your body since it is as well frail to pump the sum of blood your body needs. Positive inotropes make your heart muscle compressions stronger, raising your cardiac output to an ordinary level and expanding the sum of blood your heart can pump out. This makes a difference your organs get the blood and oxygen they got to keep working. Most individuals who get positive inotropes are basically sick with congestive heart disappointment and are in the serious care unit (ICU) of a healing center. They get inotropic treatment through the vein tube in an expansive central vein.
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the nurse is preparing to administer warfarin. the patient's current lab values are: pt 12.9 inr 5.9 ptt 39 platelets 175,000 which action should the nurse implement?
The nurse implement is get ready to give aquamephyton.
What is the nursing process called implementation?The treatment plan is implemented when it is put into practice. Typically, any necessary medical interventions are first carried out by the medical staff. The patient then complies with the plan for a speedy recovery. You will be required to keep an eye on the patient's compliance as a nurse as you implement the plan.
What does nursing practise look like in practise?Giving IV fluids to a patient who is dehydrated is an example of a physiological nursing intervention. Actions that keep a patient safe and avoid harm are referred to as safety nursing interventions.
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the client tells the nurse that they frequently experiences nausea and vomiting after receiving radiation and chemotherapy. the nurse adapts the plan of care to include antiemetics. what is the most appropriate time for the administration of the medication?
The most appropriate time for the administration of the medication who frequently experiences the nausea and the vomiting after they receiving the radiation and the chemotherapy is after the Thirty minutes before the therapy begins
Chemotherapy is a drug treatment that uses powerful chemicals to kill rapidly growing cells in the body. Chemotherapy is maximum normally used to deal with most cancers due to the fact most cancers cells develop and multiply lots quicker than maximum cells within side the body. Many extraordinary chemotherapy tablets are available. Chemotherapy is a kind of most cancers remedy that makes use of one or greater anticancer tablets as a part of a standardized chemotherapy regimen. Chemotherapy may be the given to cure, or to also prolong life or the relieve symptoms.
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which information should the nurse include in a postoperative teaching plan for a client with a laryngectomy? reassure the client that normal eating will be possible after healing has occurred. instruct the client to avoid coughing until the sutures are removed. tell the client to speak by covering the stoma with a sterile gauze pad. instruct the client to control oral secretions by swabbing them with tissues or by expectorating into an emesis basin.
The nurse should advise a client who has had a laryngectomy to limit their daily fluid intake in the postoperatively education program.
Can you talk after a laryngectomy?Since you won't have sound if your larynx has been removed completely (total laryngectomy), you won't be able to speak normally. You can regain communication in a variety of methods, albeit it may take months or weeks to master them.
Can you eat with a laryngectomy tube?If the patient consumes food orally, it is advised that suction the tracheostomy tube first. This frequently eliminates the need for suctioning, which can cause diarrhea and severe coughing during or after meals.
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a nurse is caring for a client who's ordered continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (capd). which finding should lead the nurse to question the client's suitability for capd?
Non-stop ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) includes performing the PD exchanges manually whereas, automatic PD (APD) is a wide time period this is used to refer to all styles of PD using a mechanical tool to help the shipping and drainage of dialysate.
Gravity movements the fluid via the catheter and into and out of your abdomen. With CAPD : you can need 3 to five exchanges during the day and one with an extended reside time even as you sleep. you can do the exchanges at domestic, work or any smooth vicinity.
One of the fundamental disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis is that it desires to be executed each day, which you may find disruptive. you could also find it upsetting to have a thin tube (catheter) left completely to your abdomen (tummy), despite the fact that it can frequently be hid underneath garb.
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which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? a.the depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the emt. b.external bleeding might be minimal, but internal injuries can be extensive. c.the degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. d.it is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field.
External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive is correct regarding penetrating injuries.
What are penetrating injuries?
Penetrating trauma is an injury caused by a foreign object piercing the skin, which damages the underlying tissues and results in an open wound. The most common causes of such trauma are gunshots, explosive devices, and stab wounds.
What is an example of a penetrating injury?
Penetrating injuries are caused when the body is pierced by an object and may be caused by injuries such as stabbings and gunshot wounds.
What causes penetrating injury?
Penetrating trauma is an injury caused by a foreign object piercing the skin, which damages the underlying tissues and results in an open wound. The most common causes of such trauma are gunshots, explosive devices, and stab wounds.
Thus, external bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive is correct regarding penetrating injuries.
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which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? select all that apply.
If a child develops hepatitis as a result of an infection, the nurse's treatment is generally supportive: rest, drinking lots of water, and supporting their immune function so they can recover from the virus.
What should a hepatitis patient avoid?
Limit your intake of saturated fats, which include fatty cuts of meat and foods that have been oil-fried. Avoid eating raw or undercooked shellfish (e.g., clams, mussels, oysters, steamed shrimp) because they may be contaminated with Mycobacterium vulnificus, a bacteria that is exceedingly toxic to the liver and can cause severe damage.
Hepatitis is primarily transmitted through the feces, and infection control measures are known as "Enteric Precautions," or blood and body fluid precautions. These include using latex gloves when handling feces, urine, saliva, and blood. Handwashing seems to be essential.
Therefore, the nurse should advise the child on taking a vaccination to prevent hepatitis in the future.
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the team leader orders you to defibrillate the patient per acls guidelines. knowing that this is not the correct choice, how do you address the leader?
As defibrillating the patient per ACLS guidelines is not a correct choice, then, he/she should have a constructive intervention with the team leader.
Constructive interventions are grounded in mutual respect and take it one step further by requiring ACLS participants to take action or intervene for patient safety when they know something is up. that's not ok during coding. It does not matter what role the participant plays in the process; they must intervene if they know a mistake is being made.
This could mean that a new or junior team member begins to question or correct a team leader if they feel an impending action may be inappropriate or incorrect.
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a nurse is caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. what should the nurse identify as the significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A nurse is caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. Nurse should identify the significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony.
What is uterine atony?The main factor for postpartum bleeding is uterine atony. Hemorrhoids discomfort raises the possibility of constipation during the postpartum period. In contrast to iron deficiency, which causes anemia in the puerperal, diuresis causes weight loss during the first postpartum week.
Therefore, an individual is treated by a nurse has postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should recognize that uterine atony is the main factor causing postpartum bleeding.
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a multiparous client gives birth to dizygotic twins at 37 weeks' gestation. the twin neonates require additional hospitalization after the client is discharged. what is the most appropriate goal to include in the plan of care for the parents while the twins are hospitalized?
Put warm blankets on any places where the newborn dizygotic twins will be put. Conduction is the process by which body heat is transferred from a baby to a colder solid object. It is required to cover surfaces with a warmed blanket or towel to reduce conduction heat loss.
Which of the following would be the best course of action if a newborn's cry was judged to be sporadic, weak, and extremely high pitched?Which course of action would be best after determining that a newborn's cry is sporadic, feeble, and extremely high pitched? Notify the primary care physician as soon as possible because a neurologic issue may be present.
What nursing procedures are required for the baby receiving phototherapy?Neonatal patients need constant observation of their temperature, hydration (measured by urine output), and feeding (weight gain).
Clinically, jaundice has improved.
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a client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
The expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma with acute asthma who is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy is to have an anti-inflammatory effect (Option c).
What is the relationship between steroids and asthma?The relationship between steroids and asthma is positive the sense that can avoid the progress of inflammatory response and cause an enhancement in the body parts of the patient who is experiencing this health problem.
Moreover, corticosteroids are a type of steroid lipid used to suppress immune responses including inflammatory immune responses.
Therefore, with this data, we can see the relationship between steroids and asthma is positive by avoiding the inflammation of the body part involved (in this case the airways), whereby the individual is able to breathe in normal conditions.
Complete question:
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
a.) promote bronchodilation
b.) act as an expectorant
c.) have an anti-inflammatory effect
d.) prevent development of respiratory infections
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the mother of a 3-year-old asks a clinic nurse about appropriate and safe toys for the child. the nurse should tell the mother that the most appropriate toy for a 3-year-old is which?
The most appropriate toy for a 3 year old is a wagon.
A toy wagon is a four-wheeled toy such as a prime frame segment and a steerage handle. It is produced through a semi-non-stop method, which entails making, painting, and assembling the diverse parts. First delivered as a toy withinside the 1880s, the fundamental wagon layout has modified little over the years.
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which clinical symptoms in a postoperative patient indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated?
Clinical symptoms in postoperative patients showing early sepsis are postoperative wounds that dry for a long time. Treatment of sepsis can be done by administering antibiotics which is one of the main therapies that must be given in cases of bacterial infections.
Surgical wound infection is an infection that occurs in surgical incision wounds. This condition generally appears within the first 30 days after surgery, with symptoms of pain, redness, smelly discharge, and a burning sensation on the scar. Surgical wound infections are generally caused by bacteria, such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Pseudomonas.
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what data would be significant to obtain when performing a focused genitourinary history of a patient?
The gathering of subjective information regarding the patient's food and exercise regimen is part of a focused gastrointestinal and genitourinary assessment.
Which one is more accurate, focused or both?Useful hints. While more prevalent in the UK and Australia, its spelling focused is far more frequent in the US. The spelling focused is described as irregular in the Oxford English Dictionary. Focused is a commonly used spelling in the UK, but prestige media tend to use focused more frequently (focuses, focusing).
How would one who is focused be described?People that are truly focused always have a plan in place. They know exactly where they're heading and have a solid plan for get there. Create a well-defined path to achieve your goal. It doesn't need to be complex.
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during a family meeting, the nurse is discussing the progress that a client with bipolar disorder and alcohol use has made in the treatment program and the plan of care for discharge. which information about the occurrence of relapse will the nurse include in the pre-discharge discussion with the client and the family?
The client must acknowledge bipolar symptoms when they appear and seek medical attention.
What is the definition of fair treatment?In a formal setting, you might use the word egalitarian to express something that is just because everyone gets the same opportunity and treatment. We want to establish an egalitarian society. In formal contexts, a system can also be said to as equitable when everybody is treated equally and it is fair.
Why is medical care crucial?For the purpose of furthering and maintaining health, controlling disease, preventing needless disability and untimely death, and attaining population health for all Americans, access to comprehensive, high-quality healthcare is crucial.
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diagnostic evaluation the client is scheduled for a complete blood count (cbc), rheumatoid factor (rf), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (esr), joint x-rays, and a bone scan. additional diagnostic tests, which may be performed to help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis, include a mri, synovial fluid analysis, or a synovial biopsy. 1. which nursing intervention related to the scheduled bone scan is most important to implement?
A condition in which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance. Acute or severe renal failure happens suddenly (for example, after an injury) and may be treated and cured.
What is Acute renal failure means?
Acute kidney injury (AKI), also known as acute renal failure (ARF), can be a sudden episode of kidney failure or injury that occurs within hours to days. AKI causes waste products to accumulate in the blood, making it difficult for the kidneys to maintain the proper water balance in the body.
Therefore, A condition in which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance. Acute or severe renal failure happens suddenly (for example, after an injury) and may be treated and cured.
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What is the difference between a secondary immune response occurring without a vaccine compared to the same response occurring after a vaccine?.
Without vaccination, the immune system can more quickly and effectively rid the body of the antigen that was met during the initial invasion during the secondary immune response. Vaccination makes use of this secondary response by exposing the body to the antigens of a specific pathogen and activating the immune system without actually producing disease.
The purpose of vaccinations is to prepare the body so that when a person is exposed to the disease-causing organism, their immune system will be able to respond quickly and with high activity, killing the pathogen before it causes sickness and lowering the chance of transmission to others.
This means that after vaccination, the immune system makes use of the secondary immune response by exposing the body to the antigens of a specific pathogen. Without the vaccine, the immune system can destroy the antigen during the secondary immune response.
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which action would the nurse take for an older client with alzheimer disease who has intermittent episodes of
Answer:
Point out the behavior to the client.
2
Obtain incontinence pads for the client.
Correct3
*Take the client to the bathroom at regular intervals.
4
Encourage the client to call for help when there is an urge to urinate.
Answer: Other diseases can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia.
Explanation: Other disease can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia before the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made. Alzheimer's disease is a form of dementia not delirium.
