the nurse is assessing the adaptation of a client to changes in functional status after a stroke (brain attack). which observation indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully?

Answers

Answer 1

The observation that indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully is when the patient consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self.

What is stroke?

Stroke is defined as a neurological disorders that occurs due to hemorrhagic and ischaemic causes which lead to blockage of blood supply to a part of the brain.

The clinical manifestations of stroke include the following:

Difficulty in walking, speaking or talking.Severe headachevision impairment andconfusion.

During nursing interventions, the affected client is expected to have changes in their functional status while carrying out their activities of daily living.

The signs that the nurse would observe to would indicate that the client has adapted successful is when the patient consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self.

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Related Questions

the nurse is going to test range of motion in a client. to test extension of the triceps muscle, the nurse would instruct the client to

Answers

The nurse is going to test the range of motion in a client. To test the extension of the triceps muscle,  the nurse would instruct the client to straighten the elbow. The correct option is b.

What is the extension of the triceps muscle?

Stand with your feet hip-width apart and your knees slightly bent. Hands should be shoulder-width apart and pointing downward while you hold the bar.

Exhale as you push the bar down until your arms are fully extended while keeping your elbows close to your body and taking a slight forward slant.

Therefore, the correct option is b. Straighten the elbow.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

a. Bend the elbow

b. Straighten the elbow

c. Turn the palm down

d. Turn the palm up

an alert and oriented patient with a history of penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. what is the priority action by the nurse?

Answers

Determine the type of reaction/allergy the patient experiences to the penicillin. Penicillin allergy is an aberrant immune system reaction to the medication penicillin.

Penicillin is used to treat a variety of bacterial illnesses. Hives, redness, and itching are common allergy indications and symptoms of penicillin allergy. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal illness affecting several body systems, is one of the most severe reactions. Anaphylaxis is a rare, sometimes fatal allergic reaction that involves broad systemic malfunction.

Penicillin may cause side effects & allergy similar to other drugs that are not an adverse reaction to the antibiotic. Common adverse effects of penicillin may include minor vomiting or dysentery, headaches, or vaginal itching.

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Supplement connect is usada’s resource focusing on dietary supplement education. As your athletes and you search for answers to questions about dietary supplements, what information is not on the website?.

Answers

Dietary supplements may also help athletes who are gaining weight or who need to address known nutritional deficiencies.

Some of the most studied include protein creatine caffeine bicarbonate and beta-alanine. No supplements are required. Instead, whole foods and a balanced nutrition plan provide the right amount of key nutrients needed to be a healthy athlete and perform at peak performance can.

These extra ingredients may seem like a good idea but the more ingredients the higher the chance of unwanted side effects. Start with only the vitamins or minerals you want to take. Don't buy more than you need. Too much vitamin A can cause headaches and liver damage, reduce bone strength and cause birth defects. Excess iron can cause nausea and vomiting and damage the liver and other organs.

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the most important information for a nurse to give a client who has been diagnosed and treated for a calcium oxalate stone would include which facts related to their diet?

Answers

Avoid spinach and peanuts

Which client do you think the nurse would rate as having the highest chance of getting a UTI?

Client with kidney stone-related blocked urine output A kidney stone that becomes stuck in the ureters can restrict the urine's flow, inflame the kidney, and cause the ureter to spasm, all of which can be excruciatingly painful. You can then experience the following signs: severe, acute discomfort below the ribcage in the side and back. The stone usually passes through the urinary canal ultimately and exits the body through the urine. If a stone gets trapped and obstructs the urine flow, discomfort may result. The passage of large stones is not always automatic and occasionally calls for. Small kidney stones may pass through your urine and leave your body (called passing a kidney stone)

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true or false? our food choices are more likely to affect our risk for developing chronic diseases, such as heart disease, diabetes, or cancer, than to affect our susceptibility to acute diseases such as getting a fever or the flu. true

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True, Adults following a healthy diet have a lower risk of obesity, heart disease, type 2 diabetes and several malignancies. One's with chronic diseases can control their ailments by eating healthfully.

What connection exists between the common ailments and the way we eat today?

Dietary decisions, for instance, raise the risk of diseases like cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and cancer that are linked to high morbidity and mortality rates, such as hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, overweight/obesity, and inflammation.

What is the connection between diet, health, and disease?

In addition, the presence of sickness affects nutrition status due to changing nutrient requirements of the body, increased nutrient losses during illness, and effects on food and nutrient intake.

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which orthopedic surgery is done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture?

Answers

Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) is a surgical procedure where the fracture site is adequately exposed and fracture reduction is performed.

What is the primary disadvantage of open-reducing internal fixation (ORIF)?

ORIF disadvantages include infectious disease, swelling, and hardware mobility. Because bones grow slowly, the healing process can take months. Other factors that may influence recovery include the location as well as the severity of a fracture, the patient's age, and the type of bone broken.

A fractured bone is stabilized and healed using open reducing and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure may be required to treat one broken ankle. The ankle joint is made up of three bones. The tibia (shinbone), fibula (the relatively small bone in your leg), and talus are the three (a bone in your foot).

Therefore, open-reducing and internal fixation surgery are done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture.

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a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital with the following symptoms: dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, dizziness, and muscle twitching. what should the nurse suspect?

Answers

The higher the sodium level the lower the lithium level will be.

Signs of lithium poisoning include severe nausea and vomiting severe hand tremors confusion blurred vision and unsteadiness when standing or walking. These symptoms require immediate medical attention to ensure that your lithium levels are not dangerously high.

It works particularly well in BD because it is effective both as a prophylaxis and as an acute treatment. Furthermore, it has been successfully used as an augmenting agent in the treatment of unipolar depression. Excessive urination and thirst are consistently one of the most common lithium-related side effects in up to 70% of long-term patients.

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which meals should the the nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes. the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set? urse encourage the client to continue to eat based upon the diary entries

Answers

The nurse would accurately remark that the dietary reference intakes include reference sets for Tolerable Upper Intakes when explaining Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) to the nutrition class.

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are nutrient values used to examine and create diets for healthy people. The number of calories a person requires each day is based on physical activity, gender, age, height, and weight. They are extensively utilized in designing and analyzing research investigations and their findings.

The Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine published reference values for nutrients that are used to analyze and plan the diets of healthy persons in the United States and Canada.

Thus, when discussing dietary reference intakes (DRIs) with the nutrition class, the nurse would correctly observe that the reference sets for tolerable upper intakes are included in the dietary reference intakes reference.

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Complete Question

which meals should the nurse be teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes? the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set? nurse encourage the client to continue to eat based on the diary entries

1. Nutritional density values

2. The Eatwell Guide

3. Tolerable Upper Intake

4. Physical activity recommendations

the nurse has received lab reports for several clients undergoing care. which set of arterial blood gas (abg) results will the nurse investigate first?

Answers

The nurse should first check the set of arterial blood gas of the pH is 7.28, then PaCO₂ is 60 mm Hg, and PaO₂ is 58 mm Hg.

An arterial blood gas (ABG) test will measure the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in your blood. It also tests the acidity of your blood. This is called your acid-base balance or pH level.

The acceptable normal range of ABG values ​​for the ABG components are as follows, note that the normal range of values ​​can vary between laboratories and in different age groups, from infants to the elderly:

pH (7.35 -7.45) PaO2 (75-100mmHg) PaCO2 (35-45mmHg)

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the nurse in charge of an inpatient psychiatric unit is irritated with a client who has borderline personality disorder. which step should the nurse take?

Answers

The main features of people with Borderline Personality Disorders is considered as instability. Fluctuations in mood can be very common. In some cases, they can experience extreme accounts of helplessness or emptiness.

What is borderline personality disorder?

Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) has been considered as the condition which has been characterized by the difficulties regulating emotion. This elaborates that the people who experience BPD feel emotions intensely and for extended periods of time, and it has harder for them to return to a stable baseline after an emotionally triggering event.

The basic symptoms of borderline personality disorder are hostility, significant irritability, agitation, impulsiveness, aggression, or violence. They also think that they are worthless and always have feelings of self-doubt. The lack of confidence is also a symptom of this disorder.

Therefore, The main features of people with Borderline Personality Disorders is considered as instability. Fluctuations in mood can be very common. In some cases, they can experience extreme accounts of helplessness or emptiness.

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the clinical medical assistant receives an order to administer an insulin injection to a diabetic patient. which measurement is used in this type of syringe?

Answers

The name of the measurement in a syringe for the administration of an insulin injection to a diabetic patient requires is called as units.

What is 1 unit in a syringe?

One (1) unit in a syringe is a measurement of the amount of the doses of this device when used after medical prescription, which equals to each unit one-hundred 100 of a milliliter, i.e. 0.01 ml.

In consequence, 1 unit of insulin for administration in the healthcare center is equal to  0.01 ml and or 0.01 cc, which is the most standardized type of measurement used in clinical settings and medical centers.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that units in a syringe can be considered as equal to a measurement of one-hundred 100 of a milliliter and this value can be both 0.01 ml or 0.01 cc.

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a client with a history of smoking, daily alcohol consumption, and ingestion of a minimum of ten antacids (tums) per day is started on a triple therapy ulcer regime for a positive helicobacter pylori infection. what instructions should be given to the client?

Answers

A client who has been found to have Helicobacter pylori. To prevent rebound hypersecretion, take the drug on a regular schedule and avoid rapid cessation. The client should receive these instructions.

One of the most prevalent chronic inflammatory diseases is H. pylori infection. The majority of H. pylori infection patients exhibit symptoms of both acute and chronic gastritis. Stomach cancer or a rare form of stomach lymphoma can occasionally result from H pylori.

Not spicy food, but Helicobacter pylori, is the cause of stomach ulcers. Instead of spicy meals and stress, which doctors considered the main causes of peptic ulcers at the time, Marshall and Warren were able to demonstrate that the bacteria Helicobacter pylori was the primary cause of peptic ulcers.

To prevent rebound hypersecretion, the client should be instructed to take the drug regularly and to avoid rapid discontinuation.

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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.

A client with a history of smoking, daily alcohol consumption, and ingestion of a minimum of ten antacids (Tums) per day is started on a triple therapy ulcer regime for a positive Helicobacter pylori infection. What instructions should be given to the client?

a. Take the medication regularly, and avoid abrupt withdrawal to prevent rebound hypersecretion.

b. Take Nexium on a full stomach.

c. Decrease your smoking to one pack per day.

d. Take Tums in conjunction with other medications to enhance acid protection and promote healing.

while assessing a patient, the nurse notes that the patient's ankle-brachial index (abi) of the patient's right leg is 0.40. the nurse is aware that this may indicate what?

Answers

The nurse is aware that this might mean that arterial narrowing-related interventions should be used.

What is ankle-brachial index (abi)?The typical ABI ranges from 1.10 to 1.40. This is due to the fact that in people without PAD, the lower extremity arteries' systolic pressures rise at the ankle in comparison to the brachial arteries as the distance between the arteries and the heart increases. This is because the arteries' impedance increases as the arterial taper increases.Oedema, a fluid-induced swelling of the feet and ankles, is frequently present in patients with venous leg ulcers. Compression bandages are a good way to manage this. Swelling can also be reduced by elevating your leg whenever you can, ideally with your toes above your hips.Arms or legs suffering from peripheral arterial insufficiency may experience soreness, aching, numbness, or cramping. The following are signs of cardiac artery problems: chest pressure or discomfort breathing difficulty or fast breathing.

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a nurse is caring for a middle aged adult client the nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client has completed eriksons developmental task for her age group

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A nurse is caring for a middle-aged adult. The indication that should be identified if the patient has completed Erikson’s developmental task for her age group is this statement: “I think I have done a good job with my children since they are all independent now.”

What is Erikson’s developmental task?

Erikson’s developmental task theory states that there are 8 stages of development that contain specific psychological struggles in each age group. The 8 stages and the struggles during it are described as follows:

Infancy, basic trust vs. mistrust.Toddler, autonomy vs. doubt and shame.Pre-school age, initiative vs. guilt.School-age, industry vs. inferiority.Adolescence, identity vs. the confusion of identity.Young adulthood, intimacy vs. isolation.Middle age, generativity vs. stagnation.Older adulthood, integrity vs. despair.

When a middle-aged adult told the nurse that her kids are all independent now, it showed that the client has already completed Erikson’s developmental task for her age group.

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a nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. what are possible consequences of untreated hypertension? select all that apply.

Answers

A nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. The possible consequences of untreated hypertension and Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.

What is hypertension?

The term hypertension is defined as the increase in the blood pressure or high blood pressure and the reasons responsible for hypertension are  smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity and these factors are responsible for hypertension.

Nicotine has been considered as the addiction affects approximately 80-90% of people who smoke on a regular basis. Nicotine has been enters the body and travels to your brain inside of 10 seconds. It has been stimulated the release of adrenaline in the brain, resulting in a rush of pleasure as well as energy.

Therefore, A nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. The possible consequences of untreated hypertension and Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.

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a client being treated for complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease needs to be intubated. the client has previously discussed the wish to not be intubated with the client's partner of 5 years, designated as the health care power of attorney. the client's children want their parent to be intubated. a nurse caring for this client knows which statements apply to this situation? select all that apply.

Answers

Clients frequently appoint someone who is in line with your personal beliefs and values as their national healthcare power of attorney.

What exactly are pulmonary issues?

Asthma, chronic bronchitis (COPD), lung damage, influenza, and lung cancer are examples of pulmonary diseases. also known as respiratory illness and lung condition.

What exactly does a pulmonologist do?

A doctor who specialises in the pulmonary system is called a pulmonologist. A doctor is the doctor you want to treat your issue if it has to do with the lungs or any other portion of respiratory system, from the throat to the lungs. An area of research in general surgery is pulmonology.

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an immunocompromised patient with a diagnosis of aids has just been admitted to the medical unit with abdominal pain. the patient's health care provider has ordered an abdominal radiograph. how should the nurse best facilitate the test?

Answers

A patient with immunocompromised has low immunity to fight infection so, a portable x-ray machine in the patient's room is the safest option.

What is immunocompromised?

Due to decreased immunity, patients who are immunocompromised are more likely to get nosocomial infections.

A portable x-ray machine in the patient's room is the safest option to facilitate the procedure. Compared to utilizing masks or sanitizing the radiology section, this offers better protection.

Therefore, portable x-ray machines in the patient's room should facilitate by nurses.

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the nurse teaches the client with which disorder that the disease is due to decreased levels of dopamine in the basal ganglia of the brain?

Answers

Parkinson disease is due to decreased levels of dopamine in the basal ganglia of the brain.

What is the purpose of the ganglia?

The network of cells in the brain and nerves that regulates the voluntary motions of your body includes the basal ganglia as a critical component. By removing erroneous or unneeded impulses, they can accept or reject the movement impulses that your brain sends.

Where do ganglia reside?

These ganglia can be found in the spine, close to the abdominal and pelvic organs, as well as in the head and neck (where they are a part of the cranial nerves). Their postganglionic neurons are found in the medial horn of the lumbar spinal cord and the frontal nuclei of the brainstem.

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an older adult client has been placed on a broad-spectrum antibiotic for a recurrent urinary tract infection. which potential problem would the nurse anticipate in this client?

Answers

Potential problem would the nurse anticipate in the client is colonization of clostridium difficile



Recurrent UTIs (RUTI) are specially due to reinfection by way of the same pathogen. Having common sexual intercourse is one of the finest chance elements for RUTIs.

The main symptoms of cystitis consist of: pain, burning or stinging when you pee. desiring to pee more regularly and urgently than regular. urine it truly is dark, cloudy or robust smelling. Ability hassle might the nurse count on in the customer is colonization of clostridium difficile

Recurrent UTIs (RUTI) are mainly due to reinfection by way of the equal pathogen. Having frequent sexual intercourse is one of the finest risk elements for RUTIs. In a subgroup of people with coexisting morbid situations, complex RUTIs can result in top tract infections or urosepsis.

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If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of….

Answers

If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of exhaustion.

What is prolonged stress and what is its impact?

Chronic stress, which is another name for long-term stress, is a physiological reaction that, if left untreated, can have detrimental effects on one's health. Long-term stress can have an adverse effect on both physical and mental health.

Impact of prolonged stress:

Heart disease, heart attack, high blood pressure and stroke. Sleep problems. Weight gain. Memory and concentration impairment.

Hence, If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of exhaustion.

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Matterson-Horowitz mentions several programs that she works with to “close the gap” between medical doctors and veterinarians. What is another way that these two fields could collaborate?

Answers

There are other ways to connect these two areas for collaboration by sharing information and experiences about specific health problems and comparing treatments and methods. It also allows hospital interns and residents to work at the zoo for a while. Veterinarians can also help hospitals.

Who is Matterson-Horowitz?

• Her Dr. Barbara Natterson-Horowitz, a cardiologist and evolutionary biologist, is redefining the boundaries of human medicine.

• In 2005, when she was commissioned by the Los Angeles Zoo to counsel animal patients, she discovered parallel universes of health problems, including heart disease, cancer, and other types of mental illness. This experience was Matterson Horowitz's starting point for her scientific journey into the realm of wildlife and wild places, and her work revealing important relationships between human and animal health.

• Natterson-Horowitz breaks down barriers between veterinary and human medicine with Zoobiquity. Zoobiquity is a new cross-species approach to health that recognizes nature as a powerful source of life-saving insights into human health.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. the efforts of the___ were instrumental in developing local health departments and starting schools of public health in the united states during the early 1900s.

Answers

The answer is the Robert Wood Johnson foundation.

What is the Robert Wood Johnson foundation?

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation provides funds to multiple programs that work to help build a national culture of health. They are an American philanthropic organization.

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation is the largest one that focuses only on health. They are based in Princeton, New Jersey and focus on access to public health, health care, and health equality, changing systems to address barriers to health and leadership and training.

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation work to understand, identify, and get rid of  barriers to health and well being; these may include racism, discrimination, discrimination, powerlessness and their consequences.

Hence, the Robert Wood Johnson foundation was instrumental in developing local health departments and starting schools of public health in the united states during the early 1900s.

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the nurse is caring for a client who has had acute blood loss from ruptured esophageal varices. what does the nurse recognize is an early sign of prerenal failure?

Answers

The nurse should recognize that urinary production decreased from 50 mL/hr at baseline to 10 mL/hr is an early sign of prerenal failure .

Prerenal failure is well recognized as a sort of reversible renal impairment brought on by elements that reduce renal perfusion. The phrase has been employed in relation to a dynamic process that starts with the reversible condition prerenal state and can develop into the established illness acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

Examples of prerenal failure include: Sunken eyelids, dry skin, poor skin elasticity, dry lips, dry eyes, fast heartbeat (tachycardia), and feeling faint or lightheaded upon standing or sitting up are all signs of severe dehydration ( orthostatic hypotension ).

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the nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client taking digoxin. what finding creates a risk for digoxin toxicity?

Answers

A low potassium level can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity

What is digoxin toxicity ?

Both during long-term therapy and following an overdose, digoxin toxicity can develop. Even when the level of serum digoxin is within the therapeutic range, it can still happen.

Digoxin immune fab, an anti-digoxin immunoglobulin antibody, is the main treatment for digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity life-threatening symptoms like hyperkalemia, hemodynamic instability, and arrhythmias have been successfully treated with this antidote.

Digoxin toxicity may be more likely in individuals with low potassium levels. If a patient with digoxin toxicity is not treated right away, severe bradycardia and even death may result. The range of serum potassium levels is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.

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the doctor prescribed 80 mg of lasix. the medication is available as 40 mg in one cc of lasix. how many cc of lasix are required to get 80 mg?

Answers

the doctor prescribed 80 mg of Lasix. the medication is available as 40 mg in one cc of Lasix. A total of 2 ccs of  Lasix  are required to  get  80 mg

Furosemide is used to decrease additional liquid within the body caused by conditions such as heart failure, kidney disease, and liver disease. Take this pharmaceutical by mouth as coordinated by your specialist, with or without nourishment, ordinarily once or twice day by day. It is best to dodge taking this medicine within 4 hours of your bedtime to anticipate having to urge up to urinate. Dosage is based on your therapeutic condition, age, and reaction to treatment. For children, the dosage is additionally based on weight. Older grown-ups more often than not begin with a lower dose to diminish the hazard of side impacts.As one cc  contains 40 mg of Lasix, so add 2 cc's will be = 40+40 = 80  mg  

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work
Complete the following calculation of IV flow rate.
Time
Amount of fluid
(milliliters)
IV set drop factor
(drops/milliliter)
(hours)
128
5
10
The answer is drops per minute.
(Round to the nearest whole number as needed.)
Flow rate
(drops/minute)

Answers

The answer to Flow rate drops per minute is 1.066. When you receive an order for an IV infusion, the nurse is responsible for making sure that the fluid will flow at the recommended pace.

Given Volume is 128 ml. The time is 10 hrs. The drop factor is 5 gtts/ ml

[tex]Flow rate = (Total volume (mL) / Time (min))* Drop factor (gtt/mL)\\= 128 / 10*60) * 5\\= 1.066[/tex]

Using a roller clamp or dial-a-flow, fluids can be injected manually, or automatically using an infusion pump. Whatever the method, it's imperative to know how to calculate the ideal IV drip-rate. Once the infusion has started, check the patient's IV site for signs of infiltration or irritation and keep an eye on the rate to make sure it is flowing at the right pace.

The flow rate drops per minute are therefore 1.066, we can state.

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a patient who experiences bipolar disorder may be hesitant to try a mood stabilizer because the: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices side effects are unknown. drug mechanism is unknown. person may not see the potential benefit. drug has limited effectiveness.

Answers

Utilize prescribed drugs, seclusion, or restriction during an acute manic episode to reduce physical harm.

Patient: Does it have two meanings?

"Patience" and "patients" have a similar sound: They sound similar despite possessing quite different meanings. "Patience" is the capacity to wait or endure hardship for a prolonged period of time without becoming upset. "Patients" is the plural form of the noun "user," which designates a person who obtains medical care.

What makes us patient?

It can assist you in keeping from getting angry, being aggressive, or saying nasty things. You can take your time and avoid making quick, self-centered decisions. Understanding life from perspective of another person, or empathy, is a critical interpersonal skill that may be developed with patience.

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a nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse who is caring for a client with a paralytic ileus and a salem sump tube attached to continuous suction. the preceptor should intervene when the graduate nurse performs which interventions? select all that apply.

Answers

The preceptor will have to intervene when the graduate nurse performs residue checks every 4 hours and when he covers the air outlet if the gastric content refluxes.

What is the paralytic ileus condition?

In this condition there is a partial or total blockage of the intestine, which means that the content cannot pass through the intestine. This can cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal fullness due to gas, among other things. Among the causes of paralytic ileus are gastroenteritis, decreased potassium, kidney disease, infections within the abdomen, etc.

It is important to check the residuals that occur to see if the condition is progressing or improving. Also, if there is a reflux, the air outlet of the probe should be covered, since it can suffocate the patient.

Therefore, we can confirm that the correct options are 1. Checks for residual every 4 hours and 3. Plugs the air vent if gastric content refluxes.

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A nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse who is caring for a client with a paralytic ileus and a Salem sump tube attached to continuous suction. The preceptor should intervene when the graduate nurse performs which interventions? Select all that apply.

1. Checks for residual every 4 hours

2. Places client in semi-Fowler's position

3. Plugs the air vent if gastric content refluxes

4. Provides mouth care every 4 hours

5. Turns off suction when auscultating bowel sounds

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a client is prescribed oral lorazepam 1.5 mg stat for a panic attack. lorazepam is available in 0.5-mg tablets. how many tablets would the nurse administer? express your answer as a whole number. tablet(s)

Answers

The nurse would give out 3 pill stablets.

When you have a panic attack, do you cry?

Additionally, it's not unusual to want to cry prior to, during, or following an anxiety attack. Many people have a sense of imminent death or disaster. They react by sobbing because doing so is a normal reaction to experiencing extreme dread as well as the physiological response that takes place when having a panic attack.

The duration of a panic attack.

The majority of panic attacks last five to twenty minutes. Some have reportedly lasted as long as an hour. Your condition's severity will determine how many attacks you have. While some people only experience attacks either once twice per month, others do so frequently.

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the nurse is explaining the dash diet to a client diagnosed with hypertension. the client inquires about how many servings of fruit per day can be consumed on the diet. what is the nurse's best response?

Answers

For a client with hypertension, the nurse is outlining the dash diet. The best response from the nurse is that the client can eat 4 or 5 servings of fruit per day while following the DASH diet.

A healthy eating program created to help treat or prevent high blood pressure is called the DASH diet. Foods high in potassium, calcium, and magnesium are part of the DASH diet. These nutrients aid in blood pressure regulation. Foods that are heavy in sodium, saturated fat, and added sugars are restricted in the diet.

The DASH diet is a healthy eating pattern that may help lower blood pressure and lower the risk of developing cardiovascular illnesses, diabetes, renal disease, and gout. This is supported by research.

Thus, we might state that the nurse is detailing the ideal diet for a client who has hypertension. The best answer given by the nurse is that the client can follow the DASH diet and consume 4 or 5 servings of fruit each day.

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