The intervention by the nurse which most compatible with the goals surrounding end of life care should be
Permit the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream. Diabetes melitus paients are avoid advised not to include sweet dishes in their diet, as it may worsen their health even more.
But if the client is on the death wish fulfilling his wish by granting him something he likes, is a way of comforting them towards their painful suffering, nurse should allow that without any second thought.
There nothing to hold within, as the patient is dying and what he wishes for a treat before he dies so that he can die peacefully and happy.
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after a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer of the stomach, a client develops dumping syndrome. the client asks the nurse, 'what does that mean? how would the nurse explain- dumping syndrome?
Generally, you can help prevent dumping syndrome by changing your diet after surgery. Changes might include eating smaller meals and limiting high-sugar foods.
How would the nurse explain- dumping syndrome?
Dumping syndrome is when food moves too quickly from your stomach into the first part of your small intestine (duodenum). This causes symptoms like cramps, diarrhea, dizziness, confusion, or fatigue.Dumping syndrome is a condition in which food, especially food high in sugar, moves from your stomach into your small bowel too quickly after you eat. Sometimes called rapid gastric emptying, dumping syndrome most often occurs as a result of surgery on your stomach or esophagus.Rapid gastric emptying, a condition in which food moves too quickly from your stomach to your duodenum, causes dumping syndrome. Your digestive tract makes and releases hormones that control how your digestive system works.To learn more about syndrome refers to:
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Changing your diet after surgery can generally help avoid dumping syndrome. Modifications might involve eating fewer small meals and less high-sugar items.
How would the nurse explain- dumping syndrome?Food flows too quickly from your stomach to the first part of your small intestine when you have dumping syndrome (duodenum). This results in symptoms like weariness, dizziness, nausea, cramps, and diarrhoea.Dumping syndrome is a condition when meals, especially those high in sugar, move through your stomach and into your small intestine too quickly after you eat. The most common causes of dumping syndrome, also referred as rapid gastric emptying, are stomach or esophageal operations.Dumping syndrome is brought on by rapid gastric acid secretion, a condition in which food passes through the stomach and duodenum too quickly. Hormones produced and released by your digestive tract regulate how you digestive system functions.To know more about Dumping syndrome, visit:
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a nurse wants to do a study on a particular group of clients. in keeping with the mandates of the belmont report, why does the nurse need to get permission from the institutional review board (irb)?
Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) are mandated by the federal government and responsible for reviewing research involving human subjects to ensure that the proposed protocol meets appropriate ethical guidelines before subjects are enrolled in the study.
What is the importance of IRB in research?The road to current regulation and ethical considerations has been long and arduous. The developed system minimizes the risk of unethical behavior and serious adverse events, but is not foolproof. Understanding how we arrived at the current approach and analyzing some of the ethical fallacies that have guided this course support efforts to continually re-evaluate the guidelines that will help us to improve the safety of subjects willing to participate in research activities.
What is the Belmont Report?In 1976, the Commission published the Belmont Report, based on nearly four years of monthly discussions and his four days of intensive deliberation. This report identifies basic ethical principles and guidelines that address ethical issues arising from the conduct of uncovered research in human subjects.
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which is an example of a possible confounding variable? the client's family recently moved and the client is now attending a new school the client's medication was increased the client's sibling is away at summer camp all of the above are possible examples of confounding variables that may influence a client's behavior
All of the above are possible examples
What is Confounding variables?Confounding variables are those that affect other variables in a way that produces spurious or distorted associations between two variables. They confound the "true" relationship between two variables.A simple, direct way to determine whether a given risk factor caused confounding is to compare the estimated measure of association before and after adjusting for confounding. In other words, compute the measure of association both before and after adjusting for a potential confounding factor.Confounding is often referred to as a “mixing of effects”1,2 wherein the effects of the exposure under study on a given outcome are mixed in with the effects of an additional factor (or set of factors) resulting in a distortion of the true relationship.To learn more about Confounding variables refers to:
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an older adult has lost 10% of body weight because of diet changes and exercise. the nurse would provide anticipatory guidance regarding dosage changes in which of the client's daily medications based on this weight loss?
Older people lost 10% of their body weight through diet changes and exercise. Based on this weight loss, the nurse provides predictive advice to the patient's daily medications will be dose changes in Diazepam
What is diazepam doing to you?Used to treat anxiety, muscle spasms, seizures or seizures. It is also used in hospitals to reduce alcohol withdrawal symptoms such as sweating and sleep disturbances. It can also be taken to relax before surgery or other medical or dental procedures
Is diazepam a sleep aid?Diazepam is a benzodiazepine hypnotic. It is also known by the trade names Dialar, Diazemuls, Diazepam Desitin, Diazepam Rectubes, Stesolid, and Tensium. This is a Class C controlled substance and the US National Institutes of Health (NICE) has controlled substance information.
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a client is being advanced to a full liquid diet on the second postoperative day. which foods are allowed for this client? select all that apply.
On the second postoperative day, a customer is progressing to a complete liquid diet. This customer is permitted to have broth, coffee, and gelatin.
A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are clear and liquid at room and body temperature and are generally transparent to light. A complete liquid diet includes all the liquids permitted on the pure liquid diet plus milk and modest quantities of fibre. The diet can be utilised in the short term as a transition step between both the clear liquid and soft diets after gastrointestinal surgery or procedures.
It may also be useful for people who have difficulty swallowing or chewing. A well-planned complete liquid diet is sufficient in calories, protein, and fat but may be deficient in vitamins (B12, A, and thiamin), minerals (iron), and fibre. The full liquid diet allows all foods and liquids allowed on the clear liquid diet (otter pops, clear juice without pulp, plain gelatin, ice bits, water, sweetened coffee or tea (no creamer), clear broths, carbonated beverages, flavoured water, and water), as well as thin warm cereal (or gruel), strained cream soups, juices (including nectars), sundaes, custard, puddings, and liquid nutritional supplements.
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the nurse reviews a client's electrolyte results and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 meq/l. what would the nurse look for on the cardiac monitor as a result of this laboratory value?
The nurse would look for potentially dangerous arrhythmias on the cardiac monitor.
What would be the expected change in the client's heart rate as a result of this potassium level?If the client's potassium level is low, it can cause a decrease in heart rate. A drop in potassium levels can cause the heart to beat at a slower rate and can even result in cardiac arrest. Because potassium is necessary for proper cardiac function, a decrease in the ion will likely result in a lower heart rate. In fact, a low serum potassium level can cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute. Additionally, a lack of potassium can cause arrhythmia, which can cause an irregular heart rate. Therefore, it is likely that the client’s heart rate would decrease as a result of a low potassium level. This decrease in heart rate can be seen in both the ECG and the patient’s pulse rate. A decrease in heart rate can be dangerous, as it can cause a decrease in blood flow throughout the body and can even lead to cardiac arrest. For this reason, it is important to monitor the client’s heart rate closely and ensure that it does not drop too low.
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the nurse has reinforced dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. the nurse determines that the mother understands the dietary instructions if she indicates eliminating which products? select all that apply
She will have to eliminate the Oatmeal from her child diet.
A reaction to the protein gluten results in celiac disease, an inherited autoimmune condition. Your immune system produces antibodies against gluten when gluten is present in your digestive system.
These antibodies harm the small intestine's lining (the mucosa). Nutritional deficiencies result from the small intestine's damaged mucosa's reduced capacity to absorb nutrients in the food.
Gluten is a protein present in wheat that causes patients with celiac disease to develop an immune reaction that assaults their small intestine. The little fingerlike projections called villi that border the small intestine and aid in nutrient absorption are damaged as a result of these attacks. The hereditary nature of celiac disease means that runs in families.
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a low-sodium diet has been prescribed for a client with hypertension. which food selected from the menu by the client indicates an understanding of this diet
A customer with hypertension has been advised to follow a low-sodium diet. if the client choose any of the following from the menu, it would show that they are familiar with the diet: roast turkey
Describe hypertension.High blood pressure, often known as hypertension, is pressure in the arteries that is greater than normal. Your blood pressure alterations are influenced by your regular activities. If blood pressure measurements are often over normal, hypertension may be identified (or hypertension). a condition in which there is too much blood pressure exerted on the artery walls.High blood pressure is commonly defined as a reading above 140/90, while severe hypertension is defined as a reading over 180/120.High blood pressure frequently has no symptoms. If left untreated, it may eventually result in health issues including heart disease and stroke.It is possible to reduce blood pressure by eating less salt, exercising frequently, and using medication.To learn more about hypertension refer to:
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the parents of an infant boy ask the nurse why their son was born with a cleft lip and palate. the nurse responds that cleft lip and palate are defects that are caused by many factors. the defect may also be caused by teratogens. which teratogens can cause cleft lip and palate?
Answer:
Alcohol, cigarettes and recreational drugs are known teratogens.
Explanation:
Alcohol affects the fetus's central nervous system.
Smoking―Women who smoke during pregnancy are more likely to have a baby with an orofacial cleft than women who do not smoke.
Use of certain medicines―Women who used certain medicines to treat epilepsy, such as topiramate or valproic acid, during the first trimester (the first 3 months) of pregnancy have an increased risk of having a baby with cleft lip with or without cleft palate, compared to women who didn’t take these medicines.
the nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed cold pack applications to the right lower extremity. the nurse plans to collect which data specifically associated with this therapy before the initiation of therapy? select all that apply.
If the client is confused, the least intrusive method of restraint is the use of a bed alarm such as the Bed-Check bed exit alarm device.
Which data specifically associated with therapy before initiation of therapy?The client should be placed on one side with the head flexed forward, if at all possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and aid in drainage. Nursing interventions during a seizure include ensuring privacy, removing constrictive clothing, removing the pillow, raising the padded side rails in the bed, and providing for privacy.
The least intrusive way to restrain a client who is confused is to utilise a bed alarm, such the Bed-Check bed escape alarm gadget.
Patient beds should be in the lowest position, with padded side rails, or, if possible, with the mattress on the floor. The patient's bedside must include equipment for suction and oxygen. The environment might cause seizures in some patients.
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a patient has acne and the provider notes lesions on half of the face, some nodules, and two scarred areas. which treatment will be prescribed?
A patient has acne and the provider notes lesions on half of the face, some nodules, and two scarred areas. Topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin treatment will be prescribed.
Define clindamycin?Clindamycin is an antibiotic drug used to treat a variety of bacterial diseases, such as osteomyelitis or joint infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, strep throat, pneumonia, acute otitis media, and endocarditis. WikipediaThe antibiotic clindamycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Patients who have previously experienced an adverse reaction to penicillin may be prescribed this medication. Colds, the flu, or other viral diseases will not be treated by clindamycin. Only a prescription from your doctor is needed to purchase this medication.Clindamycin used topically is used to treat acne.It can be used as a stand-alone treatment for acne or in combination with one or more additional oral or topical treatments.To learn more about clindamycin refer to:
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which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may cause race syndrome in children with viral illness fever
The exact cause of Reye's syndrome is unknown, but it most commonly affects children and young adults recovering from a viral infection – for example a cold, flu or chickenpox.
What is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug?When your back hurts, head aches, arthritis acts up or you’re feeling feverish, chances are you’ll be reaching for an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) for relief.You take an NSAID every time you consume an aspirin, or an Advil®, or an Aleve®. These drugs are common pain and fever relievers. Every day millions of people choose an NSAID to help them relieve headache, body aches, swelling, stiffness and fever.You can get nonprescription strength, over-the-counter NSAIDs in drug stores and supermarkets, where you can also buy less expensive generic (not brand name) aspirin, ibuprofen and naproxen sodium.Acetaminophen (Tylenol®) is not an NSAID. It’s a pain reliever and fever reducer but doesn’t have anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs. However, acetaminophen is sometimes combined with aspirin in over-the-counter products, such as some varieties of Excedrin.To learn more about Tylenol refer to:
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the nurse determines that a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is having a hypoglycemic reaction. which supplement would the nurse give the child to treat the reaction?
The nurse gives the child a half cup of fruit juice to alleviate the reaction.
What is a hypoglycemic?Treatment for diabetes and other illnesses might result in hypoglycemia. Symptoms include anxiousness, trembling, palpitations in the heart, and confusion.Orange juice or ordinary soda are examples of high-sugar foods and beverages that can be used to treat this disease. As an alternative, drugs may be used to increase blood sugar levels. A doctor must locate and address the underlying cause as well. taking much insulin. not getting enough carbohydrates to meet your insulin needs when to administer insulin.length and intensity of exercise. Low blood glucose, also known as low blood sugar or hypoglycemia, is a condition in which the level of glucose in your blood is below what is healthy for you.This entails a blood glucose level that is less than 70 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) for many diabetics.To learn more about hypoglycemic refer to:
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after a wound that did not heal correctly, a client cannot swallow any food because his esophagus has too much scar tissue to allow any passage through this tube. what is this called?
A patient cannot swallow any food because his esophagus has too much scar tissue to enable any passage through this tube after a wound that did not heal properly. This is referred to as stricture.
How is swallowing problem managed?Consider taking shorter, more frequent meals. Eat more slowly, properly chew your food, and cut it up into tiny pieces. There are products available to thicken drinks if you have trouble swallowing liquids. experimenting with various food textures to find which ones make you feel more uncomfortable.
A stricture's severity.Constipation, cramping, and stomach pain are signs of strictures. In severe situations, strictures can advance to the point of obstructing the entire intestine, which can cause nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
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the nurse is discussing dietary guidelines for americans with an adult client. the nurse recognizes that the client needs additional teaching when the client makes what statement?
With an adult client, the nurse is talking about the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. When the patient declares, "I will restrict my salt intake to no or more 3500 milligrams per day," does the nurse realize that the patient needs further instruction.
What are dietary recommendations?The Dietary Guidelines for Americans provide advice on what foods and beverages to consume in order to meet nutritional needs, promote health, and ward against illness. A professional audience, including managers of federal nutrition programs, medical experts, lawmakers, and educators, was considered when it was developed and published.A nourishing diet promotes favorable pregnancy outcomes, supports healthy development, development, and aging, helps keep a healthy weight, decreases the risk of chronic disease development, and supports healthy development, development, and aging. All of these factors improve health and well-being.The U.S. Depts of Farming (USDA) and Health & Human Services (HHS) work together to revise and release the Dietary Guidelines every five years. The most recent results of nutrition research are taken into account when the Dietary Guidelines are revised.To learn more about dietary guidelines refer to:
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10. during a code blue a patient's iv access failed and new iv access cannot be obtained. what other type of route can be used to administer medications and fluids?*
During a code blue a patient's iv access failed and new iv access cannot be obtained. Intraosseous can be used to administer medications and fluids.
What is Intraosseous?To offer a non-collapsible entry site into the systemic venous system, intraosseous infusion is the technique of injecting drugs, fluids, or blood products directly into the marrow of a bone. All age groups can have intraosseous (IO) access, which is a reliable method for delivering medications, doing laboratory testing, and resuscitating fluids. It also has an acceptable safety profile. The hard cortex of the bone is penetrated, allowing access to the soft marrow interior and the vascular system right away. The IO needle is advanced by impact-driven force, power, manual traction, or both at a 90-degree angle to the injection site.Intraosseous access complications are uncommon: When performing the technique, it's important to keep in mind that pain might be rather severe. In patients who are conscious, adequate local anesthesia should be used.To learn more about iv access refer to:
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1. describe the major trends in the evolution of health care services in the united states over the past 100 years.
Medicine, gadgets, procedures, tests, and imaging equipment are only a few examples of new and developing technology that have altered health service models and settings.
People use health care services for a variety of reasons, including the treatment of diseases and other health conditions, the repair of breaks and tears, the prevention or postponement of future health care issues, the reduction of pain and improvement of quality of life, and occasionally just to learn about their health status and prognosis.
The way that people use healthcare services might be acceptable or unsuitable, high-quality or low-quality, expensive or affordable.
Even in the relatively short time of the last hundred years, the health care delivery system of today has undergone significant change. Drugs, tests, and imaging equipment are examples of new and emerging technologies that have altered the way care is delivered and the settings in which it is given.
The development of noninvasive or minimally invasive procedures, together with advancements in anesthetic and analgesia, have all had an impact on the growth of ambulatory surgery. Procedures that once called for a few weeks of recuperation now only take a few days. Although typically at higher costs or requiring more medical professionals to prescribe and monitor the effects of the treatments, new pharmaceuticals can treat or prolong the course of disease.
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order: cefazolin 1 g ivpb dose on hand: cefazolin 1 g in 50 ml d5w to infuse over 30 min. tubing drop factor 15 gtts/ml what is the manual drip rate for the nurse to observe over one minute? (round to nearest whole number)
The manual drip rate for the nurse to observe over one minute is 28 gtts/min.
To calculate this, you need to use the formula:
Dose (in gtts/min) = Volume (in ml) x Drop Factor / Time (in min)
Dose = 1 g in 50 ml x 15 gtts/ml / 30 min
Dose = 0.5 gtts/min
As the nurse needs to observe the rate over one min, we need to multiply the dose by 60 min
Dose = 0.5 x 60 = 30 gtts/min
As the tubing drop factor is 15 gtts/ml, we need to divide the dose by the tubing drop factor
Dose = 30/15 = 2 gtts/min
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the manual drip rate is 28 gtts/min
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a client with a gastrostomy tube (gt) receives a prescription for a 250 ml bolus feeding of glucerna 60% enteral formula. the nurse should dilute the full-strength formula with how many ml of water? (enter numeric value only).
Client with a gastrostomy tube (gt) receives a prescription for a 250 ml bolus feeding of glucerna 60% enteral formula, 320 ml is the total volume required at an hourly rate of 80, multiplied by four, Osmolite internal formula
Use the following calculation to determine how much Osmolite a client with a gastrostomy tube, the enteral formula has to be diluted to half strength: Desired strength/strength on hand x Volume = 50/100 x 320 = 160 ml.
Alternately, use proportion and ratio, such as Desired strength (1/2 = 1 part: 2 parts): Full strength volume: Total volume of desires is 1: 2: 2X Equals 320 ml of full strength Osmolite enteral formula, and X = 160 ml. 160 ml of the formula at full strength divided by the total amount of 320 ml results in 160 ml of water at half strength, or 50% concentration.
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Coordination of the balance in the body movement is controlled by the?
Cerebellum
The bodies functions that occur without conscious effort are related by the BLANK nervous system.
Autonomic
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the?
Cerebellum and Brain.
The cervical spine is composed of BLANK vertebra.
7
The BLANK contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
Cerebrum
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
Epinephrine
The BLANK is the best-protected part of the C.N.S. and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory system.
Brain Stem
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (C.S.F.) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
Acting as shock absorbers for the brain and spinal cord.
The BLANK nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Peripheral
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
Spinal Canal
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
Dura Mater
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Somatic
What nerve carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Sensory Nerve
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
Immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in title volume. The most appropriate airway management for her includes:
Assisting ventilations at an age appropriate rate
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
An indicator of and expanding intercranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have:
An accompanying spinal injury.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
Retrograde Amnesia
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
It interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following.
C.S.F leakage from the ears.
Combative behavior.
Decreased sensory function.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following:
Mastoid process bruising.
Ecchymosis around the eyes.
Noted deformity to the skull.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulses. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
Instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a G.C.S score of:
14
Laceration to the scalp:
Maybe an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (G.C.S.) is used to assess:
Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving in injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
The Log Roll.
The most common in serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Cerebral Edema.
When assessing a conscious patient with an M.O.I. that suggests spinal injury, you should:
Determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
Place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
Ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patients spine, the E.M.T. manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver.
Answer:
Cerebellum
Explanation:
a client has a glomerular filtration rate (gfr) of 43 ml/min/1.73 m2. based on this gfr, the nurse interprets that the client's chronic kidney disease is at what stage?
The client's in the stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease.
What are the symptoms of stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease?Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by a moderate decrease in kidney function. Symptoms will vary, but may include fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting, and changes in urination.Common signs of Stage 3 CKD include swelling of the feet, ankles, and face, as well as high blood pressure, anemia, and bone and joint pain. Additionally, patients may experience difficulty sleeping, itching, and changes in mental alertness.Urine tests may reveal foamy, dark, or bloody urine, as well as protein in the urine. Blood tests may reveal an elevated creatinine level, potassium level, and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) level.Patients may also experience a decreased ability to concentrate, confusion, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Other symptoms may include bad taste in the mouth, nausea and vomiting, itching, and insomnia.It is important for patients with Stage 3 CKD to monitor their health closely and to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms arise. Treatment may include lifestyle changes, medications, and dialysis.To learn more about stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease refer to:
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when teaching the new mother about breastfeeding, the nurse is correct when providing what instructions?
The nurse should show mothers how to initiate breastfeeding within 30 minutes of birth. To ensure bonding, place the baby in uninterrupted skin-to-skin contact with the mother.
What steps can teachers take to support a mother who wants to continue breastfeeding her infant?Provide materials to support breastfeeding, such as brochures, pamphlets, or contacts. Provide refrigerator and freezer space for mothers to store expressed breast milk. Help the other children in your program understand what is going on by explaining breastfeeding in a way they can understand.Offer mothers a private place where they can go to breastfeed or express milk. Provide materials to support breastfeeding, such as brochures, pamphlets, or contacts. Provide refrigerator and freezer space for mothers to store expressed breast milk.Breastfeeding provides important nutrients for babies. Some mothers may wish to continue breastfeeding while their children are in child care.To learn more about pamphlets refer to:
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a couple has just learned that their son will be born with down syndrome. the nurse shows a lack of understanding when making which statement?
The nurse shows a lack of understanding when making statement that "I will alert your entire family about this so you don't have to".
Down syndrome occurs when a kid is born with an additional chromosome number 21. The additional chromosome is linked to delayed mental and physical development in children, as well as an increased chance of health issues. Physical characteristics and physiological concerns associated with Down syndrome might vary greatly from kid to child. While some children require extensive medical care, others have healthy lives.
A infant receives 46 chromosomes from its parents, generally 23 first from mother & 23 from the father. Chromosomes contain our genes, which contain the information that determines how our bodies look and function, including inherited features such as hair and eye colour. Some children with Down syndrome do not have major health issues. Others, on the other hand, may have medical conditions that need particular attention. Many persons with Down syndrome attend to clinics that specialise in their care. If your town lacks a Down syndrome clinic, your primary care physician can assist you in coordinating treatment for your child.
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the nurse is assisting in developing a plan of care for a child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. the nurse would include which intervention in the plan of care?
Encourage limiting exercise and offer safety precautions as part of the care plan.
What is glomerulonephritis?Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the small filters in your kidneys (the glomeruli). It frequently results from your immune system attacking healthy body tissue. Glomerulonephritis typically has no obvious symptoms. When blood or urine tests are done for another purpose, the likelihood of a diagnosis increases.Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation and damage to the kidneys' filtering system (glomerulus). It may start out gradually or suddenly. The urine is not effectively filtered to remove toxins, metabolic waste, and extra moisture. Instead, they accumulate within the body, leading to weariness and edema.a disorder when the kidney's tissues become inflamed and have trouble removing waste from the circulation.To learn more about glomerulonephritis refer to:
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the nurse is teaching a nursing student about caring for a client who is undergoing blood studies for antidiuretic hormone stimulation. which statements made by the nursing student indicate effective instruction? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Sensors (baroreceptors) in the heart and big blood vessels can identify a drop in blood volume or low blood pressure that happens after dehydration or a haemorrhage. These encourage the secretion of anti-diuretic hormone.
What is stimulation of antidiuretic hormone?The brain releases a substance called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which makes the kidneys release less water and reduces the volume of urine generated. The body makes less pee when its ADH level is high.By encouraging the insertion of "water channels" or aquaporins into the kidney tubule membranes, antidiuretic hormone promotes water absorption.These channels cause a drop in the osmolarity of plasma and a rise in the osmolarity of urine by transporting solute-free water through tubular cells and back into blood.To learn more about antidiuretic hormone refer:https://brainly.com/question/9980124
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the nurse is assigned to assist in preparing a woman who is gravida vi for delivery. in planning care for this client, the nurse places which item(s) at the client's bedside?
When arranging care for the this patient, the nurse sets up injectable supplies at the patient's side to help prepare the pregnant woman for birth.
A gravida 1 para 3 is what?before and after birth, dystocia, and postnatal (difficult delivery) EXAMPLE: You could notice the phrases gravida 3, para 2 in an OB patient's record. Three pregnancies and two live births are the consequence. The OB patient, who is anticipating her third child, will give birth to a 'm referring 3, Par 3 after that.
What is third baby?An individual who is third-time pregnant is alluded to as gravida III. alternatives: tertigravida. a lady who's really gravida, or pregnant.
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a patient is seen in the clinic for patches of hair loss. the provider notes several well-demarcated patches on the scalp and eyebrows without areas of inflammation and several hairs within the patch with thinner shafts near the scalp. based on these findings, which type of alopecia is most likely?
Alopecia areata has inflammation and several hairs within the patch with thinner shafts near the scalp
What is Alopecia areata?In alopecia areata, the immune system mistakenly attacks hair follicles, causing inflammation. Researchers do not fully understand what causes the immune attack on hair follicles, but they believe that both genetic and environmental (non-genetic) factors play a roleAlopecia areata cannot be cured; however, it can be treated and the hair can grow back. In many cases, alopecia is treated with drugs that are used for other conditions. Treatment options for alopecia areata include: Corticosteroids: anti-inflammatory drugs that are prescribed for autoimmune diseasesAlopecia areata isn't usually a serious medical condition, but it can cause a lot of anxiety and sadness. Support groups are out there to help you deal with the psychological effects of the condition. If you lose all your hair, it could grow backTo learn more about Alopecia areata refers to:
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which information would the nurse include when teaching a patient who received 5-fluorouracil (5-fu) for the treatment of colorectal cancer regarding ways to prevent mucositis?
I will use mouthwash with alcohol to clean my mouth
Should I use alcohol to clean my mouth?When you put alcohol in your mouth in any form, it can be harmful to your dental health, especially if you do it more than twice a day. Rinsing with mouthwash containing ethanol, a colorless alcohol, for example, may increase your risk of oral cancer.
Many people prefer ethanol mouthwash over alcohol-free mouthwash because it has a cooling/burning sensation in the mouth that makes it feel squeaky clean. This feeling is caused by ethanol's drying impact. Furthermore, mouthwashes containing alcohol frequently contain chlorine, which kills germs but can discolor teeth. Long-term usage of alcohol-containing mouthwash can potentially change the way your taste buds work.
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a hypothesis that explains how periodontitis may relate to hospital-acquired pneumonia states: group of answer choices a) host immune response to periodontal pathogens could mistakenly be directed at the lungs causing inflammation b) a patient that has potential respiratory pathogens (prps) colonizing the mouth and oropharynx is at increased risk for hospital-acquired pneumonia c) periodontal pathogens invade the air sacs in the lungs and cause inflammation d) both b and c
According to one hypothesis explaining how periodontitis may be linked to hospital-acquired pneumonia, a patient who has potential respiratory pathogens colonizing the mouth and oropharynx is more likely to develop hospital-acquired pneumonia.
What is periodontitis?Periodontitis is a serious gum infection that can result in tooth loss and other serious health problems. Periodontitis, also known as gum disease, is a serious gum infection that damages soft tissue and can destroy the bone that supports your teeth if left untreated.If left untreated, your mouth can develop gingivitis or periodontitis, a more serious gum infection (periodontal disease). It is critical to understand that once gum disease progresses to periodontitis, the disease is irreversible. Periodontitis can only be managed, not cured.Periodontal abscesses are most common in areas with periodontal pockets, which form deep spaces around the teeth. They cause a dull, gnawing pain that is localized but not painful to percussion. The discomfort can range from minor aches to severe acute pain.To learn more about periodontitis refer to :
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which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended-release - ciprofloxacin therapy for a urinary tract infection> |
If a patient has a urinary tract infection and is receiving oral extended-release ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise them to avoid taking the medication right after an antacid.
Any region of the urinary system can become infected, which is known as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The bladder, urethra, ureters, and kidneys make up the urinary system. The bladder and urethra are the parts of the lower urinary tract that are most commonly infected. Women are more likely than men to experience a UTI. A bladder-specific infection may be uncomfortable and unpleasant. However, if a UTI spreads to the kidneys, major health issues may occur.
A fluoroquinolone antibiotic with a new oral formulation called ciprofloxacin extended release (XR) that maintains therapeutic serum levels of the medication while allowing once-daily use. Ciprofloxacin XR 500 mg once daily had a higher maximum plasma concentration (Cmax) than ciprofloxacin immediate release 250 mg twice daily, while ciprofloxacin XR 1000 mg once daily had a higher Cmax than ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily. In healthy men, there was no buildup of ciprofloxacin XR at steady state, and every other pharmacokinetic parameter was consistent with that of the formulation that releases medication right away. At the test-of-cure (TOC) visit, the rates of persistence or new infection were comparable in patients with uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) who received ciprofloxacin XR compared to those who received immediate-release ciprofloxacin.
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