the nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient. which intervention is the best example of a culturally appropriate nursing intervention?

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Answer 1

Nurses take care of newly admitted patients. Culturally appropriate nursing interventions is to ask permission before touching the patient during physical examination.

What are Culturally Appropriate Interventions?

Culturally appropriate interventions are defined as meeting each of the following characteristics: (a) the intervention is based on the group's cultural values, (b) the strategies that constitute the intervention reflect the group's subjective culture (attitudes, expectations, norms).

What is culturally appropriate care in nursing?

More specifically, it is about understanding the nurse-patient relationship. Acquisition of knowledge about different cultural practices and worldviews. Develop communication skills to facilitate and achieve intercultural interaction.

How do you demonstrate cultural relevance?

Cultural relevance can be demonstrated by recognizing own culture, communication in a culturally appropriate manner. Speak clearly and concisely. Comprehension check. Be careful with non-verbal. Be aware of cultural influences they communicate.

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Related Questions

after a thyroidectomy, the client develops a carpopedal spasm while the nurse is taking a bp reading on the left arm. which action by the nurse is appropriate?

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Administer IV calcium gluconate as ordered.

A thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. When a patient has thyroid cancer or another condition of the thyroid gland or goiter, endocrine or head and neck surgeons frequently perform a thyroidectomy in general surgery.

Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure with several potential complications or sequelae, including temporary or permanent voice changes, temporary or permanent low calcium, the need for lifelong thyroid hormone replacement, bleeding, infection, and the remote possibility of airway obstruction due to bilateral vocal cord paralysis. When the procedure is performed by an experienced surgeon, complications are uncommon.

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judi has recently been experiencing lower back pain. she has had diagnostic tests, but they did not suggest a definite cause. after trying several medications to no avail, she is considering alternative remedies. which of the following is most likely to help with her back pain?

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Acupuncture, massage therapy, or physical therapy are all potential alternative remedies that could help with judi's lower back pain.

Acupuncture is an ancient form of Chinese medicine that has been practiced for thousands of years. It is based on the idea that the body has an energy, or "qi" (pronounced chee), that flows through pathways called meridians. It is believed that when these pathways are blocked, the body cannot function properly and illness can occur. Acupuncture involves the insertion of thin, sterile needles into specific points along the body in order to open up the pathways and restore balance. It is used to treat a variety of conditions such as pain, headaches, allergies, digestive issues, and even some mental health issues. It is often combined with massage, herbs, and other traditional Chinese medicine practices to enhance its effectiveness. Although acupuncture is not a cure-all, it is a safe, natural way to treat many health issues and can be used to complement more traditional medical treatments.

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which would be included in the plan of care for an obstetrical client who has been taking carbamazepine

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Analyses to rule out neural tube defects. The drug carbamazepine has been linked to neural tube abnormalities. Down syndrome, heart malformations, and fetal hydraenids are unrelated to carbamazepine use.

Why do heart malformations occur?

The majority of these problems are not completely understood by researchers, but they speculate that genetics, specific medical disorders, particular drugs, and ambient or lifestyle factors, like as smoking, may all be involved. Congenital cardiac abnormalities can in a variety of forms.

What cardiac abnormalities are there?

The most typical kinds are: Septal defects, also known as "holes in the heart," are openings in the heart's left and right wall surface. Defects in the lobes that control blood flow through the heart are referred to as heart valve defects. Large blood arteries with defects that affect how blood enters and exits the heart.

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the nurse is providing education to a client newly diagnosed with glaucoma. what explanation could the nurse provide to describe the cause of the disorder?

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The cause of glaucoma is an increase in pressure within the eye due to a buildup of fluid.

What is Glaucoma?

Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, which carries information from the eye to the brain. It is often associated with increased pressure within the eye, known as intraocular pressure (IOP). If left untreated, glaucoma can lead to permanent vision loss and even blindness. Symptoms of glaucoma may include gradual vision loss, usually in the peripheral (side) vision, tunnel vision, pain, headaches, and halos around lights. Treatment usually involves medications, laser treatments, and surgery to reduce IOP and protect the optic nerve.

This is usually caused by a blockage in the drainage canals of the eye, which prevents the fluid from draining properly. The increased pressure can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss.

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Hemoglobin is a complex protein that contains four polypeptide chains. The normal hemoglobin found in adults—called adult hemoglobin—consists of two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains, which are encoded by different loci. Sickle-cell hemoglobin, which causes sickle-cell anemia, arises from a mutation in the beta chain of adult hemoglobin. Adult hemoglobin and sickle-cell hemoglobin differ in a single amino acid: the sixth amino acid from one end in adult hemoglobin is glutamic acid, whereas sickle-cell hemoglobin has valine at this position. After consulting the genetic code provided in Figure 15.10, indicate the type and location of the mutation that gave rise to sickle-cell anemia.

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GAA and GAG are two potential codons for glutamic acid. Codons that encode valine can be created by making a single base substitution in the second position in both codons: GAA-> GUA (Val), (Val) GAG -> GUG (Val)

What occurs if hemoglobin levels are low?

Being anemic, or having low hemoglobin, can make you feel exhausted and frail. Anemia can have many different forms, each with a unique etiology. Anemia can be mild to severe and can be short-term or long-term. Anemia typically has multiple causes.

What hemoglobin level is considered dangerously low?

According to some physicians, hospital patients with hemoglobin levels below 10 g/dL ought to have a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion may not be necessary for many individuals with levels between 7 and 10 g/dL, according to current studies. One blood unit is typically just as effective as two and may even be safer.

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which medication would a nurse anticipate providing teaching about for an adolescent with dysmennorhea

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The majority of teenagers who come with dysmenorrhea are suffering from primary dysmenorrhea, which response well to initial treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), hormone suppression, or both.

What treatment for dysmenorrhea works best?

The day before you anticipate the start of your period, start taking regular doses of ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, and other brands) or naproxen sodium (Aleve) to ease the pain. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications are also offered with a prescription.

Does ibuprofen help with period cramps?

Period pain relievers are available over the counter. Many of the same over-the-counter painkillers that you use for migraines also work to ease the discomfort of menstrual cramps. Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB), naproxen (Aleve), and even acetaminophen are some of these (Tylenol).

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the nurse performs a cultural assessment with a patient from a different culture. which action by the nurse should be taken first?

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An early step in performing a cultural assessment is to determine whether the patient feels an affiliation with any cultural group

Ask about ethnic background, preferred religion, familial structure, dietary preferences, eating habits, and health practises when doing a quick cultural assessment . Instead, a cultural assessment is used to comprehend deeply ingrained norms and values, drivers of behavior, and existing characteristics. Before the assessment, be aware of the important topics to discuss and how to do so without upsetting the patient and family. Reviewing the many cultural elements, such as the environment, traditions, interpersonal relationships, incentives, and values, is a part of doing this assessment.

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the nurse should identify which potential health disparities when conducting an admission assessment on a hospitalized patient? (select all that apply.)

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The nurse should identify The following potential health disparities when conducting an admission assessment on a hospitalized patients recent divorce, a low-paying, unfulfilling job, and a regular smoker, Male African-American.

The nurse may use the factors that contribute to health disparities to pinpoint patients who are at risk. A risk factor for health disparities is exposure to stressful living conditions, such as the financial instability brought on by poor salary. One example of a selected unhealthy activity is smoking. Due to recent divorce and extreme stress, the patient is at risk. Race, a natural, biological component that is more prevalent in African Americans, may be a risk factor for hypertension. Having comprehensive insurance has the benefit of promoting better health, even though not having health insurance is unequal.

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in a cdi program, asking questions of providers for clarification on documentation is done through a ____.

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Clarification on documentation of provider in CDI program is done through Query.

The term "Clinical Documentation Improvement" (CDI) refers to the process of enhancing medical records to guarantee better patient outcomes, high-quality data, and proper compensation. Hospitals started CDI programs in reaction to the introduction of DRGs (Diagnosis Related Groups) as a method of payment. In order to improve hospital reimbursement and data gathering, the majority of physicians have encountered requests for supplemental paperwork to support additional or more precise ICD codes. In order to represent the integrity of the financial, clinical, and quality outcomes, a strong and effective CDI program helps to ensure that physician documentation appropriately depicts the patients' clinical picture.

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in the alternatives approach, many assume that people abuse drugs voluntarily to fill a need or basic drive. True or False?

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Answer:

it were be ture

a patient has undergone a diagnostic peritoneal lavage. the nurse interprets which result as indicating a positive test?

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The nurse interprets feces as evidence of a positive test when a patient has had a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

Following abdominal trauma, diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), an invasive emergency treatment, is used to identify hemoperitoneum and assess whether a laparotomy is necessary. After inserting a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, the intraperitoneal contents are aspirated, frequently after being diluted with crystalloid. Following abdominal trauma, diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), an invasive emergency treatment, is used to identify hemoperitoneum and assess whether a laparotomy is necessary. After inserting a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, the intraperitoneal contents are aspirated, frequently after being diluted with crystalloid. DPL has low specificity, detecting numerous lesions that cause bleeding but don't need to be surgically repaired,  which leads to  high negative laparotomy rate.

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a client with metastatic bone cancer sustained a left hip fracture without injury. what type of fracture does the nurse understand occurs without trauma or fall?

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A client with metastatic bone cancer sustained a left hip fracture without injury. Pathologic fracture does the nurse understand occurs without trauma or fall.

The spread of cancer cells to the bones can result in a variety of issues, including discomfort, broken bones, or more severe occurrences. All malignancies have the potential to spread to the bone, but breast, lung, prostate, kidney, melanoma, ovarian, and thyroid cancers are those that frequently do so. Metastatic bone cancer most frequently occur in the spine. The skull, ribs, upper arm bone, upper leg bone, pelvis, and femur are additional typical locations. Cancer cells can travel to a bone through a process known as bone metastasis. In almost all cases, cancer can "metastasize" (spread) to the bones. However, some cancers, such as breast and prostate cancer, have a higher chance of migrating to the bone.

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what is the leading controllable risk factor for all forms of cardiovascular disease? multiple choice tobacco use alcohol use obesity hypertension

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Tobacco use, alcohol use, obesity, and hypertension are all leading controllable risk factors for all forms of cardiovascular disease. All options are correct.

Controllable and uncontrollable risk factors are the two main categories. Simply put, controllable risk variables are things you can change, whereas uncontrollable risk factors are things you are unable to change. We run the risk of contracting a disease or being harmed on a daily basis.

Even if heart disease runs in your family, it is not unavoidable. You have some influence over five significant heart disease risk factors. Your lifestyle influences factors like an unhealthy diet, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, stress, smoking, and obesity, which can be improved by changing your behavior.  

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how can the nurse best minimize a patient’s risk for infection during tracheostomy care?

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To minimize a patient’s risk for infection during tracheostomy care the nurse should  ,Adhere to sterile technique when appropriate.

What is tracheostomy ?A tracheostomy, often referred to as a tracheotomy, is a tiny surgical incision made into the trachea, or windpipe, through the front of the neck.The hole is filled with a curved plastic tube called a tracheostomy tube, which allows air to enter and exit the windpipe. No part of the tube enters the lungs.Bypassing their upper airway, which includes their nose and mouth, the person is able to breathe through their throat thanks to the tube. A tracheostomy may be performed in an emergency or as a scheduled treatment, and it may be temporary or permanent.Typically, a little general anaesthetic is used in conjunction with local anaesthesia to conduct a tracheostomy.

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the nurse is admitting a 12-year-old child diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the left femur. what will be the nurse's first action for the child's care?

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The nurse's first action for the 12-year-old child with osteomyelitis of the left femur is to draw blood for cultures as instructed.

Osteomyelitis is characterized as a bone infection. Bacteria are the most common cause of bone infection. It can, however, be caused by fungus or other microorganisms. Bacteria or other germs may move to a bone through infected skin, tendons, or muscles and become adjacent to the bone when a patient develops osteomyelitis. 

What blood test can detect osteomyelitis?

There is no blood test that can really tell the doctor if patients have osteomyelitis or not. Blood tests, on the other hand, could provide information to help the doctor determine what additional tests and treatments patients may require.

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a nurse is assessing a client with cushing's syndrome. which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

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Hypokalemia may result from Cushing's syndrome because it increases urine potassium loss by overproducing aldosterone.

What kind of syndromes are examples of?

For instance, women are more likely to experience inflammatory bowel disease, chronic fatigue syndrome, and polycystic ovary syndrome, which is a condition that only affects women. An assortment of symptoms or indicators characterizes a syndrome.

Is a syndrome a condition?

A syndrome is indeed a collection of symptoms and indicators that develop simultaneously and change over time. The signs and symptoms of a disorder are also a collection, but they also have recognized linked qualities that are thought to be connected.

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the nurse is teaching a parenting class. which would the nurse suggest about managing the behavior of a young school age child

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Be consistent about established rules.

Because of a short attention span and distractibility, consistent limit setting is essential toward providing an environment that promotes concentration, prevents confusion, and minimizes conflicts. Questions should be answered, but the answers should not be judgmental. A list of expectations may be overwhelming at this age. Parents need to assist children with routine tasks; children this age may not be concerned with time frames.

Parental class:-Teach parents the basics of child development so they will have appropriate expectations of their children. Teach parents appropriate, non-aggressive discipline and ways to manage and correct misbehavior. Help parents recognize their strengths and use them when parenting.

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the nurse recognizes which condition as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure? seizures asterixis tremors gray-bronze skin color

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The nurse will recognize gray-bronze skin color as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure.

The major organ in the body that physically separates the internal environment from the outside environment, which it protects and maintains, is the integumentary system. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, along with any accompanying glands, hair, and nails, make up the integumentary system.

Skin that is gray-bronze in color is an integumentary symptom of chronic renal failure. Other symptoms include rough, thinning hair, ecchymosis, purpura, thin, brittle nails, and dry, flaky skin. Neurologic signs of chronic renal failure include asterixis, tremors, and seizures.

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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the ED after 48 hours of vomiting and diarrhea. Her parents are concerned that she is becoming dehydrated. Which of the following is a sign of moderate dehydration?
ADecreased urine output
B-Hypotension
C-Lethargy
D-Mottled extremitie

Answers

After 48 hours of vomiting and diarrhea, a 4-year-old girl is brought to the ED. Her parents are worried that she's dehydrating.

decreased urine output is a sign of moderate dehydration.

The ability of the first responder to identify and effectively treat hypovolemic shock will determine whether or not a child with severe volume depletion survives at the emergency room. Although the fundamentals of fluid and electrolyte therapy have been studied for decades, the issue still presents difficulties because it is difficult to agree on a clinical management regimen and because fluid administration causes more side effects than any other medicine. However, more recent systematic reviews and meta-analyses have brought attention to the risk of hyponatraemia and hyponatraemic encephalopathy in some children receiving treatment with hypotonic fluids. The ancient concepts put forth by Holliday, Segar, and Finberg have endured the test of time. Despite contradictory research on fluid and electrolyte therapy.

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in his effort to increase the accessibility of the university of illinois at urbana-champaign campus, tim nugent investigated which of the following structural adaptations to make the campus more accessible for wheelchair users?

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Tim Nugent followed the democratic structural adaptation of NWBA.

Tim Nugent was a leader in the field of disability rights and accessibility. Tim Nugent founded a groundbreaking program at the University of Illinois, oversaw research projects, and fought for reforms that would have an impact far beyond the school. The course was initially offered at a U of I satellite campus in Galesburg, Illinois, but the following year it was transferred to the Champaign-Urbana campus. Those who were paralyzed by spinal cord injuries frequently had minimal education and were restricted to their homes, nursing homes, or hospitals. Parents would occasionally hide them from doctors who were overly protective. The majority did not work or consider going to college. In addition to founding the Gizz Kids, the first men's wheelchair basketball team affiliated with a school, he also served as the NWBA's first commissioner.

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what diuretic is most likely to be prescribed for a client assess with lower extremity edema and bilateral lung crackles

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Furosemide is the usual drug of choice. While diuresis

Furosemide belongs to a group of drug treatments called loop diuretics (additionally referred to as water drugs). Furosemide is given to assist deal with fluid retention (edema) and swelling this is caused by congestive heart failure, liver ailment, kidney disease, or different scientific conditions
Diuretics. Diuretics, which include furosemide (Lasix), decrease the pressure as a result of extra fluid in the heart and lungs
Furosemide is given to help treat fluid retention (edema) and swelling this is resulting from congestive coronary heart failure, liver disease, kidney sickness, or different scientific situations. it really works by way of performing at the kidneys to increase the float of urine.

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What is a narrative review

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Answer:

A narrative review is a type of literature review that provides a summary and synthesis of the existing research on a particular topic. It is based on the analysis of existing literature and does not involve any primary research.

Explanation:

A narrative review is the type first-year college students often learn as a general approach. Its purpose is to identify a few studies that describe a problem of interest. Narrative reviews have no predetermined research question or specified search strategy, only a topic of interest.Answer:

Explanation:

personal information about patients such as their names, ages, and addresses is considered what type of information?

Answers

personal information about patients such as their names, ages, and addresses is considered as Protected health information (PHI).

Personal health information (PHI), also referred to as protected health information (PHI), is any information that a healthcare professional collects to recognise a patient and determine the best course of treatment. This information can include census information, health history, test as well as research lab results, mental health disorders, insurance details, and other data.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 is the principal legislation governing the use, access, and disclosure of PHI in the United States. According to HIPAA, PHI entails details on a person's past, current, or future health as well as details about the treatments they received and their associated costs. Regulations governing the production, acquisition, transfer, management, and storage of this data are applicable to any HIPAA-covered organisation.

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which initial inference would the nurse make about a psychiatric client curled up in the fetal position

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The first assumption a nurse would make about a mentally ill patient curled up in the fetal position is that the patient is engaging in regressive behavior, which is a reaction to extreme anxiety.

What do you mean psychiatric?

The area of medicine known as psychiatry is dedicated to the identification, management, and prevention of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. An M.D. or D.O. A psychiatrist is a specialist in mental health, particularly problems related to substance use. The identification, prevention, and treatment of mental diseases are the primary goals of the medical specialty of psychiatry. These encompass a range of maladaptations in behaviour, emotion, cognition, and perception. Check out the psychiatry glossary.

What is an example of psychiatric and what is the most common psychiatric issue?

Among the mental health conditions that psychiatrists treat are schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, depression, anxiety disorders, personality disorders, panic disorders, and anxiety disorders. They also deal with drug and substance abuse, dependency, and addiction.

Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent psychiatric disorders in the general population of the United States. The most prevalent psychiatric diagnoses in the general population, according to European data, are mood and anxiety disorders, which have roughly equal prevalence rates.

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which career combines dna technology and medicine? pharmaceuticals paternity testing environmental studies biopesticide development

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The career that combines DNA technology and medicine is paternity testing.

What is DNA technology?

More recently there has been a lot of advancement in the field of genetics. What happens in genetics is that there is a lot of research that tries to understand the pattern of inheritance and this has been of a great use to the medical science ever since it became an independent discipline.

The area of DNA technology has been very impotant when it comess to paternity testing. What happens in paternity testing is that we are able to match the DNA of the supposed father and that of the child and look out for similarities.

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in many institutions, which telephone or fax orders requires a signature within 24 hours by the ordering physician or nurse practitioner?

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Many institutions require the signature of a prescribing physician or nursing staff within 24 hours to order antibiotics over the phone or by fax.

What are antibiotics?

Antibiotics are drugs that fight infections in humans and animals caused by bacteria by either killing them or making it difficult for them to grow and multiply. They live in the environment inside and outside our bodies and everywhere.

Common side effects of antibiotics include: nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. These symptoms can lead to dehydration and other problems.

How fast do antibiotics work?

It can take several days for antibiotics to start working, so you may have to wait 3 to 5 days to see improvement. Depending on infections, antibiotics may take time to feel completely better (like bacterial pneumonia).

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TRUE/FALSE. patterns are stored and analyzed by the cdc through the pulsenet program in order to assist in the investigation of possible infectious disease outbreaks.

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True, The CDC uses the Pulse Net tool to store and analyze bacterial BLANK patterns in order to aid in the investigation of potential infectious disease outbreaks.

What are some instances of infectious diseases?

Diseases brought on by living things like bacteria or viruses are referred to as infectious diseases. They are thought to be contagious and can spread from one person to another through bodily secretions, insects, or other means. SARS, influenza, the typical cold, tuberculosis (TB), and hepatitis A and B are a few examples.

Short answer: What are infectious diseases?

Disorders produced by organisms, such as germs, viruses, fungus, or parasites, are known as infectious diseases. Our bodies are home to a variety of creatures. In most cases, they are beneficial or even safe. But certain microbes have the potential to cause disease in specific situations.

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a nurse is caring for a severely depressed client who is barely functioning. the priority nursing goal for this client would be to:

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Food and fluid intake may be compromised in a client who is severely depressed

A prolonged sense of sadness and loss of interest are symptoms of depression, a mood illness. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a number of emotional and physical issues. During a depression, the unemployment rate soars into double digits and demand for consumer goods plummets. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression. To make up for this, businesses typically reduce production or close plants, while investment activity decreases. The result is significant contractions in GDP and other economic activity indicators. Depression elevates cortisol levels in the hippocampus, which inhibits the growth of neurons in your brain. The shrinkage of brain circuits is closely connected to the reduction of the affected part's function.

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___are chemicals that help to combat infection by slowing down the multiplication of bacteria, fungi, or protists.

Answers

Antibiotics are substances that lessen the growth of bacteria, fungus, or protists, aiding in the fight against infection.

What is the purpose of antibacterial medication?

Some varieties of bacterial infections are treated or prevented with the help of antibiotics. Bacteria are either eliminated or prevented from multiplying and spreading by them. Viral infections cannot be treated with antibiotics. This covers the typical cold, the flu, the majority of coughs, and sore throats.

I need antibiotics when, exactly?

Only bacterial illnesses are treated with antibiotics. This comprises a variety of middle ear infections as well as sepsis, skin abscesses/impetigo, bacterial pneumonia, utis, and streptococcal pharyngitis.

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which client care activity requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as required by the protocol for standard precautions

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The policy calls for the nurse to wear barrier gloves when emptying the urine catheter drainage bag for a client who has Alzheimer's disease.

When handling infected objects, non-intact skin, mucous membranes, or bodily fluids, wear barrier gloves. When doing phlebotomies or other procedures involving vascular access, gloves must always be worn. All patient care uses standard precautions. They are founded on risk assessments and employ common sense precautions as well as personal protective equipment to shield healthcare workers from infection and stop the transmission of infections from one patient to another.

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last year, jarod left a job that pays $60,000 to run his own bike-repair shop. jarods shop charges $65 for a repair, and last year the shop performed 3,000 repairs. jarods production costs for the year included rent, wages, and equipment. jarod spent $50,000 on rent and $100,000 on wages for his employees. jarod keeps whatever profit the shop earns but does not pay himself an official wage. jarod used $20,000 of his savings to buy a machine for the business. his savings were earning an annual interest rate of 5 percent. 5x^2-x-4=0 find the solutions to the quadratic functions Which of these tests is typically performed only as needed on high-risk patients?a. pulmonary function testb. urinalysisc. digital rectal examd. sigmoidoscopy Which of the following is a more realistic example of how the Big Five Traits might contribute to a happy marriage? the term binary fission is best applied to _____. Which statement best describes human eye color?an incompletely dominant trait that follows non-Mendelian inheritance patternsa polygenic trait that follows non-Mendelian inheritance patternsan incompletely dominant trait that follows Mendelian inheritance patternsa polygenic trait that follows Mendelian inheritance patternsSAS Sexual functioning in disturbed marital relationships after a diagnosis of cancer can be indirectly affected by __________. Solvex - 5x 24 = 0 by factoring.The solutions are x =and x = According to Henry Murray, which of the following terms best refers to need-relevant aspects of an individual's environment?a.Flow b.Press c.Parsimony d.Apperception art-labeling activity: components of the lacrimal apparatus (1 of 2) lacrimal gland inferior rectus muscle Find the area and the circumference of a circle with radius 3cm.Use the value 3.14 for , and do not round your answers. Be sure to include the correct units in your answers. Answer this question please! three challenges a manager might face in appropriately socializing new employees into an organization culture. fragments of dna have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. how might these fragments be used now? question 2 options: they may be used to clone live woolly mammoths. they may be introduced into relatives, such as elephants, to recreate certain mammoth traits. they may help us to understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related organisms. they may help study the relationships among woolly mammoths and other wool producers.fragments of dna have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. how might these fragments be used now? question 2 options: they may be used to clone live woolly mammoths. they may be introduced into relatives, such as elephants, to recreate certain mammoth traits. they may help us to understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related organisms. they may help study the relationships among woolly mammoths and other wool producers. Most earthquakes are the result of volcanic activity. QUESTION 21 3.3 point Which three statements are true regarding earthquakes? Most earthquakes happen along faults. Earthquakes are vibrations of the earth produced by the slow release of energy. The larger the earthquake, the more frequently they occur. Energy from an earthquake radiates out in all directions. The epicenter is located on the earth's surface directly above the focus. QUESTION 22 3.3 points What is this map showing? Bedrock Soft mud Sand and gravel Br 10 Cypress ure how can a positive relationship between the expected return on a security and its beta be justified? multiple choice question. because the risk-free rate is equal to zero because the value of beta is always positive because the difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate is likely to be positive because the difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate is likely to be negative What is one output of enterprise strategy formulation?Portfolio GovernancePortfolio BudgetsPortfolio VisionPortfolio Canvas Where did U.S. President Reagan and Soviet General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev hold summit meetings toward the end of the Cold War?Geneva, Switzerland, Reykjavik, Iceland, Washington D.C., and MoscowBrussels, Belgium, Stockholm, Sweden, Los Angeles, and MinskParis, France, Oslo, Norway, New York City, and LeningradVienna, Austria, Helsinki, Finland, San Francisco, and Odessa Tia has 28 yards of fabric. If each project needs 3 and one half yards of fabric, how many projects can she complete? a card is drawn from a pack of 52 playing cards. find the probability that the card will be a jack, given that it is a face card.\