The nurse will document the gravida status of the client who is pregnant with 3 twins because it has the possibility of eclampsia and preeclampsia.
What is pregnant status gravida?Gravida status is a risk factor for preeclampsia and eclampsia, especially for those with primigravida status. In primigravidas, the frequency of preeclampsia and eclampsia is higher when compared to multigravidas.
Preeclampsia occurs due to increased blood pressure and excess protein in the urine that occurs after more than 20 weeks of gestation. If not treated immediately, preeclampsia can cause complications. Preeclampsia can occur in clients who are pregnant with twins, pregnant at the age of fewer than 20 years or more than 40 years, or obese during pregnancy.
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a client on the medical unit tells the nurse of back discomfort but does not want any pain medication. which nonpharmacological interventions would the nurse offer the client to help reduce the pain? select all that apply.
The client should get the following non-pharmacological therapies from the nurse: (2) Distraction, (4) Back massage, and (5) Relaxation breathing.
Which nonpharmacological interventions might be utilized to alleviate a patient's pain?These include strategies like visualisation, meditation, and distraction, as well as pain-relieving procedures including repositioning, elevating, utilising cushions for support and guarding, cooling measures, ice or heat therapy, light massage, and modest stretching when permitted.
The most popular non-pharmacological pain management approaches include music therapy, breathing exercises, relaxation techniques, repositioning, using a cold compress, massage, nutrition, prayer, exercise, using calming voices, and giving out information.
Any sort of health intervention that is not dependent primarily on medication is referred to as a non-pharmaceutical intervention (NPI) or a non-pharmacological intervention (NPI). Examples include changing one's dietary habits, exercising, or improving one's sleep. Non-pharmacological interventions may be used to treat or prevent disease, as well as to better the general public's health.
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The complete question is:A client on the medical unit tells the nurse of back discomfort but does not want any pain medication. Which nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse offer the client to help reduce the pain? Select all that apply.
1.Placebo
2.Distraction
3.Acupuncture
4.Back massage
5.Relaxation breathing
6.Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
which nursing action represents measures taken to protect the client from a mode of infection transmission in the chain of infection?
The nursing actions that indicate measures taken to protect the client from a form of spreading infection in the chain of infection are as follows:
"Donning personal protection equipment" (1)"Disposing of soiled gloves in the appropriate receptacle" (3)"Wearing gloves when coming into contact with the client's secretions" (4)"Performing hand hygiene after the removal of soiled gloves" (6)
The first is wearing PPE or personal protection equipment. This prevents the infectious agent from touching the nurse's hands and spreading to other customers. Next, properly disposing of dirty gloves prevents infectious organisms from spreading outside the contagious client's room. When handling client secretions, nurses should always wear gloves. Infection management requires handwashing. Washing or using an alcohol-based sanitizer both before and after glove removal decreases infection risk. When secretions are present, gloves and appropriate hand cleanliness help prevent the nurse's hands from spreading infections.
This question should be provided with options, which are:
Donning personal protection equipment.Administering the Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB) immunization to a child.Disposing of soiled gloves in the appropriate receptacle.Wearing gloves when coming into contact with client's secretions.Teaching importance of long pants and sleeves and insect repellent to reduce the risk of West Nile Virus.Performing hand hygiene after removal of soiled gloves.The correct answers are 1, 3, 4 and 6.
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a client is diagnosed with cancer of the stomach and is scheduled for a partial gastrectomy. which topic would the nurse include in the postoperative care teaching?
After receiving a stomach cancer diagnosis, a client is scheduled for a partial gastrectomy. Gastric suction would be covered in the postoperative care lecture by the nurse.
A gastric suction pump is what is it?Using a tube and a gastric suction pump, gastrointestinal fluids can be removed continuously or sporadically. For participants who are unable to empty their stomachs, using a gastric suction pump and accompanying supplies is regarded as medically required.
Which test is being carried out by the nurse when she bends the client's knee to 30 degrees, pulls the tibia forward, and holds the femur steady?Lachman Test: With the patient supine and the knee flexed 20 to 30 degrees, the heel should be resting on the end of the exam table.
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which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client with partial hypertension and esophageal varices
An instruction plan for a patient having partial hypertension or esophageal varices should contain the following: Try not to squeeze yourself when using the restroom. Don't do too much heavy lifting. Before using aspirin, a physician should be contacted.
What are esophageal varices and hypertension?High blood pressure, often known as hypertension, is blood pressure that really is greater than normal. Your blood pressure alterations are influenced by your regular activities. If blood pressure measurements are often over normal, hypertension may be identified (or hypertension).Some of the symptoms include early-morning headaches, nosebleeds, irregular heartbeats, changes in vision, and ear ringing. Severe hypertension can cause weariness as well as nausea, vomiting, dizziness, disorientation, anxiety, and trembling of the muscles.Esophageal varices are abnormal, swollen veins in the canal that joins the neck and stomach (esophagus). The most frequent cause of this illness among people affected is severe liver issues. Esophageal varices develop whenever a clot or scarring tissue inside the liver restricts blood flow normally to a liver.Avoid squeezing yourself to go to the bathroom.Limit your hard lifting.A doctor should be consulted before using aspirin.To learn more about hypertension refer to:
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why were healthcare organizations merging under the aca? why might these strategies have needed to be revisited?
Administrators claim that by working together, the companies would be able to comply with ACA standards for improving clinical outcomes while spending less money.
What impact have mergers had on cost and quality of care?A 3.7 percent drop in revenue per admission was also associated with hospital mergers; this equated to a yearly saving of $10.7 million. According to a Health Affairs study, some mergers, like hospital private equity buyouts, also resulted in lower hospital expenses.
According to administrators, collaboration would enable the businesses to adhere to ACA requirements for bettering clinical results while spending less money. Some employers established wellness programs before the ACA went into effect, but these were not required to be standardized or to have quantifiable outcomes.
A standard system of coverage levels based on actuarial value was established by the ACA, allowing insurers to raise prices for health plans with higher actuarial values.
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a client is receiving vasopressin for the urgent management of active bleeding due to esophageal varices. what most serious complication should the nurse assess the client for after the administration?
A client is receiving vasopressin for the urgent management of active bleeding due to esophageal varices therefore the most serious complication the nurse should assess the client for after the administration is Hydronephrosis.
Who is a Nurse?
Thus is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taing care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
In a scenario where the client is receiving vasopressin, there is an increase in water retention in the kidney which is known as hydronephrosis and should be assessed so as to prevent toxicity of the blood and other body fluids.
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which therapeutic approach is most effective in treating difficulties such as premature ejaculation and erectile difficulties resulting from mild anxieties?
The most effective treatment for both chronic PE and acquired PE is a combination of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy, which is more effective than a medicine alone.
What is pharmacotherapy?The use of pharmaceutical goods (drugs) as medicine in pharmacotherapy is used to treat medical disorders. When a drug dependency is the underlying medical issue, pharmacotherapy entails switching out the drug of dependence for a different medication that has been medically approved. An illness or problem is treated with drugs through pharmacotherapy, or pharmacology. Medication is employed in the treatment of addiction to lessen the severity of withdrawal symptoms, lessen alcohol and other drug cravings, and decrease the chance of use or relapse for particular drugs by blocking their action. The following are some examples: opioids, amphetamines, short-acting barbiturates, and preparations containing codeine.To learn more about pharmacotherapy, refer to:
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the client was seen and treated in the emergency department (ed) for a concussion. before discharge, the nurse explains the signs/symptoms of a worsening condition. the nurse determines that the family needs further teaching if they state they will return to the ed if the client experiences which sign/symptom?
Minor headache
Why am I suffering from a mild headache?Headaches can be caused by a hit to the head or, in rare situations, be an indication of a more serious medical condition. Stress. Emotional stress and despair, as well as the use of alcohol, missing meals, changing sleep habits, and taking too much medicine are all factors. Poor posture can also cause neck and back discomfort.
Minor headaches are little more than annoyances that may be alleviated with an over-the-counter pain medicine, some food or coffee, or a brief rest. However, if your headache is severe or uncommon, you should be concerned about a stroke, tumor, or blood clot. Fortunately, such issues are uncommon.
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the nurse places inflatable compression sleeves on the legs of a client undergoing a cesarean birth under regional anesthetic. when does the nurse tell the client that the sleeves will be removed?
At the beginning of a caesarean section, six separate layers of the abdominal wall and uterus are opened individually. Once the baby is delivered the uterus is closed with a double layer of stitching.
when does the nurse tell the client that the sleeves will be removed?
The areas that are considered “clean” are the parts that will be touched when removing PPE. These include inside the gloves; inside and back of the gown, including the ties; and the ties, elastic, or ear pieces of the mask, goggles and face shield.Removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)Perform hand hygiene immediately on removal.All PPE should be removed before leaving the area and disposed of as healthcare waste.They derive of a fluid-resistant, material and are designed to protect the patient and wearer from the transfer of microorganisms, body fluids, and particulate matter. As with masks, gowns can be worn for up to 4 hours and should be changed if soiled, damp or if the wearer needs to take a break.To learn more about cesarean refers to:
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the nurse is administering a medication intramuscularly to an assigned client. the nurse would include which actions in administering the medication? select all that apply.
To administer the medication, the nurse should hold the syringe like a dart and use the Z-track technique and he/she should hold the syringe like a dart to insert the needle.
What should the nurse do throughout the nursing process' implementation step?The nurse prioritizes planned interventions, evaluates patient safety while conducting interventions, delegate actions as necessary, and document interventions carried out throughout the implementation phase of the nursing process. The nurse chooses an area for IM injections that is devoid of discomfort, infection, necrosis, bruising, and abrasions.
How can the nursing process help with setting nursing care priorities?Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementing, and evaluation are the steps in the nursing process. The nursing process supports prioritization by methodically offering a logical planning approach and personalized nursing care.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
The nurse is administering a medication intramuscularly to an assigned client. The nurse should include which actions in administering the medication? Select all that apply.
1.Massage the site after injection.
2.Use a Z-track method for administration.
3.Wear sterile gloves to administer the medication.
4.Hold the syringe as if it is a dart to insert the needle.
5.Select an appropriate injection site such as the ventral gluteus.
6.Cleanse the injection site using a back-and-forth motion with an antiseptic pad.
a patient's record underwent review because the outpatient diagnosis about multiple injuries was unclear. who is authorized to clarify the diagnosis?
Due to the ambiguity of the outpatient diagnosis regarding numerous injuries. The doctor has the right to elaborate on the diagnosis.
What is a healthcare professional?A "health care provider" is a person health professional or even a facility organization that holds a license to provide medical diagnostic and treatment services, including such medicine, surgery, etc. Medical practitioners are frequently compensated by health insurance companies for the services they provide.Your healthcare providers are the persons and entities that take care of you when you need medical attention. They comprise every member of the medical team who provides you with care, including experts, treatment centers, and support services. Health insurance plans remain payers, not providers, despite this.The effectiveness of the healthcare system to prevent or treat common ailments depends heavily on primary healthcare providers. They may provide patients advice on making healthy decisions and suggest a course of action depending on the symptoms of an illness that show.Health professionals have a significant and important role in increasing th population's ability to receive high-quality healthcare. They manage essential services that maintain health, preventing illness, and offer healthcare to people, families, and communities on the basis of a primary health care concept.To learn more about health care provider refer to:
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it is recommended that personal service workers such as nurses, doctors, teachers and salon professionals be inoculated against which infectious disease?
The infectious disease is Viral Hepatitis B. The hepatitis B virus, which can be prevented by vaccination, causes hepatitis B, a liver infection (HBV).
What is meant by HBV?By way of blood, sperm, or other bodily fluids, the virus is spread from one person to another. Sneezing or coughing won't help spread it. HBV is frequently transmitted through: physical intimacy. This test has a Not Detected normal range. 1.00-9.00 log IU/mL (10-1,000,000,000 IU/mL) is the quantitative range for this test. If "Not Detected," the existence of inhibitors in the patient samples or an HBV DNA concentration below the test's detection threshold is not ruled out.The main viral protein of the hepatitis B virus (HBV) that circulates in patient serum is called hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), and it is a crucial virologic marker for determining the severity of chronic HBV infection and the effectiveness of antiviral treatment.To learn more about HBV refer to:
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A health care provider who has not been vaccinated against hepatitis B is stuck by a contaminated needle after administering an immunization to a hepatitis B-positive patient. In addition to hepatitis B vaccine, the health care provider also should receive hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBIG) as postexposure prophylaxis because the HBIG provides
A rapid and protective amount of antibodies are offered by HBIG to aid in viral defence.
What are the treatments of hepatitis b?Medications are frequently used in hepatitis B treatments to help control the infection and lower the risk of major liver damage. Some of the drugs employed are:
1. Nucleoside/Nucleotide Analogs: These drugs aid in lowering the level of the virus in the body and slowing the disease's progression. Entecavir, tenofovir, and lamivudine are among examples.
2. Interferon: This drug is administered intravenously and aids in lowering the level of virus in the body.
3. Hepatitis B Immune Globulin: This drug is administered intravenously and aids in offering a momentary defence against the virus.
4. Additional drugs: Ribavirin, peginterferon alfa-2b, and Simeprevir are a few additional drugs that can be used to treat hepatitis B.
It's crucial to consult your doctor about the best course of treatment for you.
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the nurse is performing a breast assessment. which statement made by the client indicates a risk of breast cancer? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse is performing a breast assessment. Which statement made by the client indicates the risk of breast cancer.
"My first child was born when I was 32." "I noticed a slight discharge from a nipple." "I consume two to four glasses of alcohol a day."What was the risk of breast cancer? Females are more likely than men to develop breast cancer.Breast lumps, bloody nipple discharge, and changes in the texture or form of the nipple or breast are all indications of breast cancer.The type of cancer being treated depends on its stage. Chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery could all be used. Even though you might not feel it, the first sign of breast cancer is typically a lump in the breast that causes no pain. Instead, a simple screening mammography can identify a lot of abnormalities.Breast cancers can be soft, rounded, tender, or even painful, but they are more likely to be a painless, hard mass with uneven edges.
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a nurse admitting a client to the hospital is completing the medication profile (or medication history). which information should be included
While a nurse admitting a client to the hospital there is completing the medication profile or medication history of the client and it includes medications and their dosage.
A patient's drug therapy is documented in their patient medication profile (PMP). By improving the pharmacist's capacity to carry out his professional responsibilities effectively, the profile can help provide patients with better treatment. The chance of a patient having a pharmaceutical misadventure can be reduced in part by having an accurate drug profile, but these profiles are usually erroneous and untrustworthy, according to Angus Thompson.
By doing this, there will be less chance of medication duplication or adverse interactions between different prescriptions. Doctors who are familiar with and have access to medication history of the client will be aware of any potential adverse drug combinations or allergies.
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to prevent skin breakdown in a client with an incomplete spinal cord injury, which method is best for preventing pressure sores?
To prevent skin breakdown and pressure sores in a client with an incomplete spinal cord injury, a combination of interventions may be used.
Some measures that need to be taken to take care of spinal cord injury are:
Repositioning and turning: The client should be repositioned every 2 hours or more frequently as needed to redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown.Use of pressure-relieving devices: Special cushions and mattress overlays can be used to redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown.Good skin care: The client should be taught to inspect their skin daily and keep it clean and moisturized to promote healthy skin.Nutrition: adequate protein, calorie and micronutrients intake is needed to maintain healthy skin.Early detection and management of pressure ulcers: Any signs of redness, warmth, or breakdown of the skin should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.To know more about injury, click here,
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Mrs. Jones recovered from her recent hospitalization for treatment of AKI secondary to pyelonephritis. During her hospitalization, it was discovered that Mrs. Jones has developed early signs of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) evident by her increasing fatigue and difficulty controlling her high blood pressure over the years. During her hospitalization, an echocardiogram (ECG) was performed which showed that she currently has a 40% ejection fraction as well as mild left ventricular hypertrophy. Upon discharge, her antihypertensive regimen was changed to the following;
Discontinue
Lisinopril 10mg PO daily
Start
Metoprolol (Lopressor) 25mg PO BID
Furosemide (Lasix) 20mg PO daily
Continue the following
Ibuprofen 800mg PO q 6 hrs for moderate pain (4-6 verbal scale)
Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325mg PO q 4 hrs for severe pain (7-10)
Aspirin 81mg PO q day
Vitamin D 800IU q HS
Calcium 600mg q HS
Hydroxychloroquine 400mg q day
Please answer the following questions about the pharmacological management of Mrs. Jones;
Which of the listed medications are prescribed to address Mrs. Jones new diagnosis of CHF?
Briefly describe how each of these medications help with CHF (ex: inotrope, reduce peripheral vascular resistance, etc.) BE SPECIFIC and use your drug book as a guide.
Are there safety concerns the patient needs to be aware of with these medications (Hint: synergistic effects? Self-assessments prior to administration?) If so, what are they?
What precautions/assessments need to be taken as the nurse when administering these medications to Mrs. Jones?
What important educational points does the nurse need to give Mrs. Jones regarding the newly prescribed medications?
Pyelonephritis is kidney inflammation that is usually brought on by a bacterial infection. The most typical symptoms are fever and discomfort in the flanks.
Which of the listed medications are prescribed to address Mrs. Jones new diagnosis of CHF?Metoprolol is a beta blocker that is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure. Aspirin is a blood thinner that has been known to be prescribed to patients with heart disease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that rids the body of excess fluids and sodium in urine which helps relieve the heart’s workload.
Briefly describe how each of these medications help with CHF (ex: inotrope, reduce peripheral vascular resistance, etc.) BE SPECIFIC and use your drug book as a guide.Aspirin thins the blood to lower the risk of blood clotting by inhibiting platelet aggregation by preventing the synthesis of thromboxane A2. Metoprolol suppresses beta1-receptor activation, which lowers blood pressure by preventing the release of renin from the kidneys, relieving symptoms of heart failure. In the loop of Henle, furosemide prevents salt and water absorption and promotes urine production. This aids in the treatment of CHF because it lowers blood pressure, decreases cardiac output, and reduces intracellular and extracellular fluid volume.
Are there safety concerns the patient needs to be aware of with these medications (Hint: synergistic effects? Self-assessments prior to administration?) If so, what are they?The patient should be aware that taking aspirin together with diuretics like furosemide may lessen its efficacy, particularly if the patient has renal impairment, which she has given that she was treated for AKI. Additionally, she should be informed that combining NSAIDs with aspirin might raise the risk of GI side effects, and that ibuprofen in particular may have diminished cardioprotective and stroke-preventive properties. The patient should be aware that NSAIDs may lessen Metoprolol's therapeutic effectiveness. The patient using furosemide has to be advised that NSAID use, along with Ibuprofen use, may impair diuresis, and that strongly acidic solutions should be avoided.
What precautions/assessments need to be taken as the nurse when administering these medications to Mrs. Jones?For Metoprolol, the assessments that need to be done before administering the drug include cardiovascular assessment as this drug can further depress myocardial contractility, worsening heart failure and to monitor for bronchospasm and dyspnea, as the drug competitively blocks beta2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial and vascular smooth muscles. For Furosemide, the nurse needs to assess the patient’s weight before and periodically during therapy to monitor fluid loss. The nurse should also monitor blood pressure, hepatic and renal function, as well as BUN, blood glucose, and serum creatinine, electrolyte and uric acid levels. For aspirin, the nurse should assess cardiovascular and respiratory function, as well as GI function, as this drug can cause CNS depression, GI bleeding and tinnitus.
What important educational points does the nurse need to give Mrs. Jones regarding the newly prescribed medications?To avoid disrupting the patient's sleep by increasing the urge to pee, it is recommended to take the once-daily dose of furosemide in the morning. It should also be given with food or milk to reduce GI distress. Additionally, as the medicine may result in orthostatic hypotension, she should be urged to walk slowly, eat foods high in potassium, and consume less salt. When using metoprolol, the patient should be instructed to never crush or chew the drug and to take it at the same time each day. They should be instructed to keep an eye on their heart rate and to alert their provider if it drops below 60 BPM.
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a 19 year old client preparing to enter college asks the clinic nurse about immunizations. what immunizations should the nurse suggest the client discuss with the primary health care provider?
the nurse should suggest the client the following few immunizations with the primary health care provider: Meningococcal, Tdap, HPV, seasonal flu vaccine, hepatitis B
What is immunization?The practice of immunizing, also termed as immunization, fortifies a person's immune system against an infectious pathogen. The Basic immunization one should be aware of are:
Meningococcal, Tdap, HPV, seasonal flu vaccine,Hepatitis BHealth Care Provider:An organization or individual certified to offer medical diagnosis and treatment services, such as medication, surgery, and medical gadgets, is termed as a health care provider. Health insurance companies frequently pay healthcare professionals for the services they deliver.
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a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a woman who has given birth vaginally. the record reveals that the client required a right mediolateral episiotomy during birth. when assessing the client, the nurse would inspect which area to evaluate the status of the episiotomy?
The nurse would inspect the perineal area to evaluate the status of the episiotomy.
Does the episiotomy site appear red, swollen, or inflamed?Yes, the episiotomy site is likely to appear red, swollen, and inflamed in the days following the birth. This is very normal and is a result of the trauma caused by the episiotomy. The client may also experience some pain and soreness in the area, along with some slight discharge. The nurse should assess the episiotomy site for signs of infection such as increased redness, swelling, and pain, as well as any unusual odor or discharge. The nurse should also ask the client about her pain level and provide her with instructions on how to care for the area. This can include warm sitz baths and applying an ice pack to help reduce swelling. The nurse should also remind the client to take steps to promote healing such as avoiding strenuous activities, refraining from sexual intercourse, and keeping the area clean and dry. It is also important to watch for signs of infection, such as fever, chills, and foul-smelling discharge.To learn more about episiotomy refer to:
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the nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled for surgery. the nurse would include which activities in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery? select all that apply.
The nurse would include Having the client void scheduling immediately before going into surgery activities in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery.
By controlling pain, supporting oxygenation or cardiovascular stabilization, maintaining fluid balance, caring for wounds, checking bowel function, helping with movement, and limiting complications, postoperative care helps the patient recover from surgery.
Family and patient education is the primary nursing intervention throughout the preoperative phase. Utilize every chance while the patient is being evaluated and getting ready for surgery to provide them with information that will help them feel more comfortable and less anxious.
Maintaining breathing and circulation, monitoring oxygen and level of awareness, avoiding shock, and controlling pain are the key goals of immediate post-anesthesia nursing home care. The nurse should regularly check on and record the patient's respiratory, circulatory, and neurological functions.
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A patient was in refractory ventricular fibrillation. A third shock has just been administered. Your team looks to you for instructions. What is your next action?
A. Check the carotid pulse
B. Give amiodarone 300 mg IV
C. Give atropine 1 mg IV
D. Resume high-quality chest compressions
Answer:
D. Resume high-quality chest compressions
Explanation:
After a third shock has been administered and the patient remains in refractory ventricular fibrillation, chest compressions should be resumed since it is important to ensure that the patient receives adequate perfusion. Amiodarone and atropine can be options during this sequence of resuscitation effort, though are not necessarily the first steps to be taken. Checking the carotid pulse is not a recommended next action.
the nurse is caring for a postoperative client. the health care provider has written a prescription for a pain medication, and the prescription gives a dosage range for the amount the nurse may give depending on the severity of the client's pain. this type of functioning within the health care team is called:
A client who has recently undergone surgery is being cared for by the nurse; this is an example of collaborative functioning within the healthcare team.
What exactly is healthcare team collaboration?Health care professionals are said to collaborate when they take on complementary tasks, work constructively, share responsibility for decision-making, and develop and implement strategies for patient care.To describe health care teams, people frequently use the words interprofessional, multiprofessional, interdisciplinary, and multidisciplinary.A client who has recently undergone surgery is being cared for by the nurse; this is an example of collaborative functioning within the healthcare team.Health care professionals are said to collaborate when they take on complementary tasks, work constructively, share responsibility for decision-making, and develop and implement strategies for patient care.To learn more about healthcare team refer to:
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an assistive personnel (ap) who has been employed in a long-term care facility for 8 weeks is consistently 10 to 20 minutes late for work. the aps lateness has caused unrest with other staff members in the nursing unit. the ap is due to receive a 3-month probation evaluation in 1 month. which is the most appropriate action by the nurse in charge of the nursing unit when dealing with this situation?
Appropriate action by the nurse in charge of the nursing unit when dealing with this situation is confronting the UAP to discuss the lateness and initiate problem-solving measures.
Who is considered a UAP?Unlicensed Assistive Person (UAP) refers to a non-licensed person who has been trained to help a licensed nurse in doing patient/client duties that have been assigned by the nurse.Medical assistants and dialysis technicians are a few examples. Unlicensed assistive person: A nurse's helper who, despite their position, is qualified to carry out nursing interventions that have been assigned and are being overseen by a nurse.UAPs are frequently referred to as nursing assistants, nursing auxiliary personnel, auxiliary nurses, patient care technicians, home health assistants, geriatric assistants, psychiatric assistants, nurse aides, and nurse technicians.UAP frequently performs activities including collecting vital signs, offering simple first aid, and helping with therapeutic or rehabilitative treatments. They frequently have to assist with ADLs, or activities of daily life.Learn more about Unlicensed Assistive Person refer to :
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patient presents to the hospital for a two-view chest x-ray for a cough. the radiology report comes back negative. what would be the correct codes to report to the insurance company?
The correct codes to report to the insurance company would be CPT code 71010 (Radiologic examination, chest; two views) and ICD-10-CM code R05 (Cough).
What is a diagnosis code for insurance?Diagnosis codes used for insurance purposes are usually called International Classification of Diseases (ICD) codes. These codes are assigned to describe a patient's diagnosis and can be used to determine the amount of payment for a service or procedure. For example, a patient who has been diagnosed with a heart attack may be assigned ICD-10 code I21.0 which indicates a myocardial infarction. Similarly, a patient diagnosed with a broken arm may be assigned ICD-10 code S52.6 which indicates a fracture of the upper arm. Each diagnosis code is unique and can be used to identify a specific diagnosis claim submitted to an insurance company. In addition to ICD codes, there are also codes called CPT codes which are used to describe the services or procedures associated with a diagnosis. These codes are used by insurance companies to determine which services and procedures will be covered and to calculate the cost of those services and procedures.To learn more about code for insurance refer to:
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The correct codes to report to the insurance company would be CPT code 71010 (Radiologic examination, chest; two views) and ICD-10-CM code R05 (Cough).
What is a diagnosis code for insurance?In most cases, ICD (International Classification of Diseases) codes are the name given to diagnosis codes in use for insurance purposes. These codes are assigned to describe a patient's diagnosis and can be used to determine the amount of payment for a service or procedure.
For example, a patient who has been diagnosed with a heart attack may be assigned ICD-10 code I21.0 which indicates a myocardial infarction. Similarly, a patient diagnosed with a broken arm may be assigned ICD-10 code S52.6 which indicates a fracture of the upper arm.
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a primary care provider makes a referral to the nurse. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?
The client's statement shows an understanding of palliative care as the care and medication will be used to control my pain and increase my comfort.
What is palliative care?Palliative care is the treatment of a patient and his family who have an incurable disease by maximizing the patient's quality of life and reducing disturbing symptoms, as well as by reducing pain, taking into account the psychological and spiritual aspects of the patient and family.
Palliative care aims to reduce patient suffering, improve their quality of life, and provide support to their families. So, the main goal of palliative care is not to cure the disease, but rather to improve the quality of life and what is handled in palliative care is not only for the patient but also for his family. Even though in the end the patient dies, the most important thing is before he dies, the patient is ready psychologically and spiritually, and is not stressed about his illness.
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All of my treatments and medications will need to be discontinued.I will discontinue any treatments and only take medications that will help my pain.Treatments and medications will be utilized to control my pain and increase my comfort.I will continue the previous course of treatment with the help of a nurse.Learn more about palliative care at https://brainly.com/question/19580009.
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Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), the Institute of Medicine, and the Joint Commission have developed standards to address areas of concern for older hospitalized adults. Which of the following situations is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care
Transitions in care is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care.
Transitions in care typically describes a change in health care as patients move between multiple care settings for example to and from the operating room or intensive care unit and most commonly refers to the time when patients are discharged from the hospital setting. Transitions in care is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care. Transition care is for older people who have been receiving medical treatment, but need more help to recover, and time to make a decision about the best place for them to live in the longer term. You can only access transition care directly from the hospital.
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a client is scheduled for a kidney ultrasound. which instructions would be given by the nurse? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse would provide orders to drink a lot of fluids, not to urinate, and to lie motionless and flat.
What is the function of kidney?Toxins are removed from the circulation and the waste is converted into urine, which is their primary function. A kidney's daily output of urine ranges from one to one and a half liters and weighs roughly 160 grams. 200 liters of fluid are filtered by the two kidneys together every 24 hours. get rid of the body's waste. purge the body of narcotics. fluid equilibrium throughout the body the production of blood pressure-regulating hormonesIt was previously believed that kidney cells stopped reproducing once the organ was fully developed, however recent findings indicate that the kidneys continue to regenerate and repair themselves after development. According to a recent study, kidneys can renew themselves, debunking long-held assumptions.To learn more about kidney refer to:
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the nurse is monitoring the status of a client in active labor. the nurse interprets that which findings are consistent with dystocia? select all that apply
A high level of mother worry, signs of fetal distress, and the failure of the fetus to descend are all indicators of dystocia.
What is dystocia?"Dystocia" (difficult or obstructed labor)2 refers to a wide range of conditions, from "abnormally" sluggish cervix dilation or fetal descent during active labor to entrapment of the fetal shoulders following head delivery ("shoulder dystocia," an obstetric emergency). An unusual or challenging birth is referred to as dystocia. The uterus' inertia and the birth canal's insufficient size are examples of maternal causes, as are fetal causes (oversized fetus, abnormal orientation as the fetus enters the birth canal). In other breeds, the problem is more prevalent.Unusual delayed or prolonged labor is referred to as labor dystocia. It can be detected during the first stage of labor (from the start of contractions until full cervical dilating) or the second stage of labor (complete cervical dilation until delivery).To learn more about dystocia, refer to:
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a client reports eating half a large tomato, 1 piece of whole wheat toast with 1 tablespoon of peanut butter, and 1 medium banana for breakfast. which response will the nurse make when assessing this intake?
"This was a healthy set of breakfast food choices."
consuming a healthful diet in the course of the lifestyles-path facilitates to save you malnutrition in all its forms as well as a number noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) and conditions. but, expanded manufacturing of processed ingredients, rapid urbanization and converting life have led to a shift in dietary patterns. humans are now consuming greater meals excessive in strength, fats, free sugars and salt/sodium, and plenty of human beings do now not devour enough fruit, vegetables and other dietary fibre along with whole grains. balanced and healthy food plan will range relying on person characteristics (e.g. age, gender, way of life and degree of physical hobby), cultural context, domestically available meals and dietary customs. but, the fundamental principles of what constitutes a healthful diet remain the equal.
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shantay, a 23-year-old woman, has tested positive for hiv. she observes red or purple blotches under her skin. in the context of conditions associated with aids, shantay is most likely suffering from the condition called
They happen when small blood vessels leak blood under your skin's surface. Purpura isn't a medical condition but a sign of another condition causing the bleeding.
What is purple blotches?
Purpura occurs when small blood vessels burst, causing blood to pool under the skin. This can create purple spots on the skin that range in size from small dots to large patches. Purpura spots are generally benign, but may indicate a more serious medical condition, such as a blood clotting disorder.Over time, exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays weakens the connective tissues that hold the blood vessels in their place. This weakness makes the blood vessels fragile, which means that even after a minor bump, red blood cells can leak into the deeper layers of the skin, causing the distinctive purpura to appear.Henoch-Schonlein purpura (also known as IgA vasculitis) is a disorder that causes the small blood vessels in your skin, joints, intestines and kidneys to become inflamed and bleed. The most striking feature of this form of vasculitis is a purplish rash, typically on the lower legs and buttocks.
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Shantay has tested positive for HIV and she observes red or purple blotches under her skin. Shantay is most likely suffering from the condition called Kaposi's sarcoma.
Define Kaposi's sarcoma.An instance of cancer that develops in the lining of blood and lymph vessels is Kaposi's sarcoma. On the legs, foot, or face, Kaposi's sarcoma tumors (lesions) often present as painless purple patches. In addition, lesions may appear in the vagina, lymph nodes, or mouth.
Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), commonly known as the Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus, is the virus that causes Kaposi's sarcoma (KSHV). It is believed that the virus spreads through sexual activity, by blood or saliva, or when a woman gives birth to her child.
To diagnose Kaposi sarcoma, doctors often perform a biopsy in which they take a tiny sample of tissue from the skin lesion for microscopic inspection.
The risk of Kaposi's sarcoma is higher in those who have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes AIDS. HIV weakens the immune system, which promotes the growth of HHV-8-carrying cells.
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