The main objective of community health nursing is to increase people's ability to manage their health needs as individuals, families, and communities.
The purpose of health promotion is to give people the power to manage their health and ultimately get better.
What is a fitness objective?A fitness goal is a particular physical challenge or training objective that you set for yourself. Your objective should be tailored to your exercise regimen or training habits and should be both realistic and accomplishable within a specific time frame. The acronym "SMART" is another useful tool for direction.
It's never easy to begin a journey toward fitness goals, but you must keep in mind that this is not a crash diet; it's a way of life.
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if a patient has persistent numbness in the medial two fingers, which nerve of the brachial plexus has been damaged?
The patient has persistent numbness in both medial fingers. A damaged part of the brachial plexus nerve is a sensory nerve.
Brachial plexus injury is damage that can occur to the brachial plexus nerve tissue caused by pressure, pulling, tearing, or breaking. A brachial plexus is a group of interconnected nerves located in the neck, upper chest, and armpits. This networking group is composed of five nerves that have different functions.
The function of these nerves plays a role in the movement and sensory functions of the hands, arms, and shoulders. Injury to one nerve can have a different effect than injury to another nerve.
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Shere Hite's book Women and Love reported that 70% of women married 5 years or more were having affairs. She based
her findings on a 4.5% response rate from mailings to an unrepresentative sample of 100,000 women. Not only was her
response rate low, but also the women initially contacted were members of women's organizations. Another psychologist
applied improved research methods and found that in fact only 1 in 7 (14%) report having had an affair during her current
marriage. The critical research method that this psychologist used to get a more accurate statistic was called
O experimentation
Ocorrelation
O random sampling
Owording effects
Answer:
The question?
local health clinic. the child has a persistent cough on examination. based on the age of the child, which muscle would the nurse view to assess respiratory status?
THORACIC MUSCLE is viewed to assess respiratory status
The external intercostal muscles, internal intercostal muscles, innermost intercostal muscles, subcostalis, and transversus thoracis are the five muscles that make up the thoracic wall. During respiration, the thoracic cavity's volume is predominantly altered by these muscles.
the rib cage muscles, the abdominal muscles, and the diaphragm. Each group affects the chest wall and its compartments, including the belly, the rib cage adjacent to the diaphragm, and the rib cage adjacent to the lung.
Lower thoracic SCS causes the expiratory muscles to almost fully activate, producing high positive airway pressures and peak airflow rates that are comparable to those seen with vigorous coughing in healthy people.
Coordination of the thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic muscles is required for coughing.
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which action by a nurse is a correct method for performing tinel's test to determine the presence of carpel tunnel syndrome?
Tinel's test involves tapping the median nerve at the wrist four to six times. Positive results were based on the presence or absence of radiating pain or paresthesia in the median nerve distribution.
What is the most accurate test for carpal tunnel syndrome?
One of the most reliable methods for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome is the cranial nerve velocity test. This test can provide reliable evidence of the syndrome by measuring how quickly an electrical signal travels all along the forearm's nerve or from the nerve to a muscle.
Your nurse would then lightly tap over the affected nerve to check for Tinel's sign. If the nerve is compressed or damaged, you will encounter tingling that radiates outward. This sensation is also referred to as paresthesia.
Therefore, Percussing the skin over the median nerve just medial to the carpal tunnel causes the Tinel sign.
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hypothermia is multiple choice question. a) associated with exercising vigorously in the heat. b) accompanied by fever. c) a lowered body temperature. d) a form of hair loss.
when planning the discharge of a client with chronic anxiety, the nurse directs the goals at promoting a safe environment at home. which is the most appropriate maintenance goal?
According to the learning approach to personality, chronic anxiety is thought to be caused by repeated exposure to random and unpredictable stimuli.
What is cognitive avoidance theory?
The cognitive avoidance model proposes that worry, which has a verbal-linguistic component, serves as a coping mechanism to avoid vivid mental images and the somatic and emotional activation they entail. Disorder of generalized anxiety and the idea of avoidance
How many older people have several chronic illnesses?
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, two or more chronic health conditions affect 85% of adults over 65 and 60% of seniors, respectively. Many elderly persons find it challenging to manage numerous
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which medications are often used to provide adrenal support for the patient with severe sepsis? select all that apply.
Epinephrine are often used to provide adrenal support for the patient with severe sepsis
What is sepsis ?When an infection that is already present in your body causes an extreme immune response, sepsis results. Your immune system releases proteins and other chemicals to fight an infection when it occurs. When this reaction spirals out of control, it leads to significant inflammation, which is sepsis.
According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommendations, epinephrine should be used as a second-line vasopressor. Strong alpha- and beta-adrenergic activity causes it to raise mean arterial pressure by boosting cardiac output and vasomotor tone.Learn more about Sepsis here:
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true or false? based on the health belief mode, the public health approach to changing behavior would be to convince people that they are vulnerable, that the threat is severe, and that certain actions are effective preventive measures. group of answer choices
The threat is intense, and positive actions are effective preventive measures. TRUE
Preventative degree includes the measures or steps taken for prevention of ailment instead of disorder remedy. Preventive care techniques are generally described as taking vicinity on the number one, secondary, and tertiary prevention tiers.
Measures inclusive of vaccinations, changing volatile behaviors (negative consuming. habits, tobacco use), and banning substances recognised to be related. with a ailment or fitness situation.eight,9. 2. Secondary Prevention—screening to identify diseases in the earliest.effective controls protect people from place of work hazards; help avoid accidents, ailments, and incidents; minimize or get rid of safety and fitness risks; and assist employers offer employees with safe and healthy operating situations.
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a nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin). what assessment finding by the nurse indicates a possible barrier to self-management?
A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin) .Then, the nurse should had to indicate strict vegetarian for self- management.
Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors. Foods high in vitamin K thus interfere with its action and need to be eaten in moderate, consistent amounts. A vegetarian may have trouble maintaining this diet. The nurse should explore this possibility with the client.
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a nurse practicing in a nurse-managed clinic suspects that a client's chronic sinusitis and upper respiratory tract infections may result from allergies. which laboratory test would the nurse most likely order? select all that apply.
The laboratory test would the nurse most likely order are:
Immunoglobulin assayComplete blood countThe nurse would order a complete blood count which may indicate elevate white blood cells and eosinophils, as well as an immunoglobulin assay to look specifically for IgE elevations. The rheumatoid factor would be ordered for rheumatic disorders and Sjogren's syndrome metabolic panel and liver function studies would not provide information about allergies.
Passive immunity is provided when you are given antibodies against a disease rather than producing them through your own immune system. A newborn baby acquires passive immunity from its mother through the placenta. When the body becomes resistant to disease by producing antibodies against pathogens.
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a four-year-old child diagnosed with leukemia presents with a headache, nausea and vomiting, and slight confusion. which action should the nurse take?
The action that the nurse should take is securing consent for lumbar puncture. The correct option is a.
What is leukemia?Cancers of the blood cells are collectively referred to as leukemia. The type of blood cell that develops into cancer and how rapidly or slowly it grows determine the type of leukemia.
Headache, nausea, vomiting, and mild confusion in a child with leukemia are signs of central nervous system involvement. The nurse obtains parental or guardian approval after informing them that the youngster may have a lumbar puncture.
Therefore, the correct option is a. Secure consent for lumbar puncture.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
a. Secure consent for lumbar puncture.
b. Assess the child's level of consciousness.
c. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.
d. Reassure parents that symptoms are expected.
Why would it matter if you have a person with type 1 diabeties a solution of 3 mm sucrose instead of a 3 m solution of sucrose?.
Answer:Study
Explanation: study
ohn is the compliance officer for abc medical group. if one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply? a. certified entry rate technology b. comprehensive error rate testing c. comprehensive error rate technology d. certified error rate technology
Certified error rate technology to one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply
What does the word CERT mean at its root?root, -cert- The word "cert" is derived from Latin and means "certain; sure; true." Words like "ascertain," "certain," "certificate," "certify," "concert," and "disconcerted" all have this meaning.
What roles does CERT play?US-CERT is in charge of identifying and minimizing cyberthreats and vulnerabilities, sharing information on cyberthreat warnings, and organizing incident response procedures.
How can CERT help victims of cyberattacks by offering services?the avoidance of cyberattacks against the nation's cyberspace. Taking action after a cyberattack to minimize damage and speed up recovery can ultimately reduce the country's susceptibility to cyberattacks. increasing the general public's understanding of cyberspace.
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Patient h. M. Suffered from seizures, so he had part of his medial temporal lobes removed. As a result, he could no longer.
H.M. was unable to form new memories.
After surgery which partially controlled his seizures, Morezon developed severe anterograde amnesia. Working and procedural memory were intact, but he was unable to transfer new events into clear memory. Good news for H.M. Although he remembered most of the information he received before surgery his anterograde amnesia was severe.
Further examination revealed that I still remembered the facts I knew before the surgery the stock market crash of 1929 World War II my family etc. but I was unable to form new memories. I couldn't. At best, he was able to hold onto the information for a few minutes before losing it forever. He could remember a few things scenes from his childhood.
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the typical healthy window for birth is between 38 and 42 weeks of gestation. however, due to medical advances, infants born as young as 25 weeks still have a 50 percent chance of survival. this is partially due to medical advances, and partially due to what other factor?
Viability is typically calculated as the gestational age at which there is a 50% chance of survival with or without medical treatment. Overall survival increased from 40% to 53% at each gestational week: 9.5% at 23 weeks, 12% at 24 weeks, and 16% at 25 weeks.
Is a baby delivered at 24 weeks considered normal?Only pregnancies that reach 23 or 24 weeks give birth to tiny, fragile infants that commonly do not live. Their hearts, lungs, and brains are not fully formed for them to live outside the womb without intensive medical care. There is a chance that your child will survive, but there is also a chance that the therapy will hurt and injure them.
How many newborns are still alive at week 25?80% or so roughly if they receive intensive care, babies delivered at 25 or 26 weeks have a chance of surviving. If the child survives, one or more of the problems listed below may affect them. The problems might only be present right now, when they are little, or they might last forever.
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the physician indicated that the patient should take the medication bid. how often should the medical assistant educate the patient to take the medication?
The medical assistant should educate the patient to take the medication Twice a day.
It's crucial to take your medication exactly as directed if you want to manage chronic problems, treat acute ones, and maintain general health and well-being.
You can help maintain your health and control medical conditions by using medications as directed by your doctor, but not everyone follows those instructions. They might not be aware, though, that failing to do so could have dire repercussions.
The gastrointestinal tract breaks down the vast majority of medications that are taken orally. Once the drug is delivered, stomach acids break it down before it hits the liver and the bloodstream.
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Aiden just ate a whole box of cookies, and he’s really mad at himself, because he keeps doing things like this. He forces himself to throw up because he doesn’t want to gain weight. He can’t seem to stop this behavior. What is aiden’s most likely diagnosis?.
Bulimia nervosa is Aiden's most likely diagnosis.
The diagnosis that most closely fits Aiden is bulimia nervosa, which is characterized by extreme binge eating as a result of losing control over eating. for removing the extra calories in an undesirable way after this purge.
Bulimia nervosa is more common in those allocated as female at birth than it is in those assigned as male. It frequently manifests itself throughout adolescence or the first years of adulthood.
With bulimia nervosa, you overeat all at once (binge), and then you purge the extra food (purge). Physical, behavioral, or emotional signs are possible. Although the exact cause is uncertain, bulimia may result from a combination of hereditary and learned behaviors.
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What do you think would be some of the challenges in treating livestock and large mammals like those discussed in the unit?
Although this may seem insignificant, I believe the overall involvement with the animal makes working with livestock and larger animals more difficult.
What is considered livestock?Livestock includes cattle, elk, reindeer, deer, horses, deer, sheep, goats, swine, chicken (including those that lay eggs), llamas, alpacas, live fish, crawfish, and some other creatures that are either members of a foundation herd (including dairy cattle) or their offspring, or are purchased as part of a routine business operation.
How do animals and cattle differ from one another?The primary distinction between animal husbandry with livestock is that the former involves a wide variety of animals, such as cattle, horses, birds, fish, or bees, whilst the latter typically excludes these species. Two key concepts in agriculture are livestock and animal husbandry.
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What are 3 examples of unintentional injuries?.
The most common unintentional injuries result from motor vehicle crashes, falls, fires and burns, drowning, poisonings and aspirations.
what are unintentional injuries?
Unintentional injuries are those injuries that are not inflicted purposely and that occur without intent of harm.
Child injury has important consequences for lifelong health and
wellbeing. To ensure prevention activities are effective, they need to
be incorporated into local plans and strategies that aim to improve the
population’s health
1.support for multispectral working and a requirement for agencies
to work in partnership
2.support for data collection on the incidence, severity, cause and
place of injury, and evidence that these data are being used to
inform decision-making and monitor outcomes
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which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? a.the organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. b.the protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. c.most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. d.adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
What is Abdominal Eviscerations?
Evisceration of abdominal contents is most common following a stab or slash wound to the abdomen or a recent laparotomy. It is a reason for a laparotomy. Unexplained shock and evidence of blood in the stomach, bladder, or rectum are also indications for laparotomy in penetrating abdominal trauma.
Nausea, vomiting, blood in the urine, and fever are early signs of abdominal trauma. Abdominal pain, tenderness, distension, or rigidity to touch may accompany the injury, and bowel sounds may be diminished or absent.
While this health problem can sometimes heal on its own, in more serious cases, it may necessitate a trip to the emergency room. Here is what you need to know about blunt abdominal injuries in order to understand how they occur and how to treat them.
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which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? a.syncope and bleeding at distal sites b.general weakness and diaphoresis c.local swelling and ecchymosis d.signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
The early sign of pit viper envenomation is syncope and bleeding at distal sites. thus, option A is correct.
What is Suprapubic catheter?
A Suprapubic catheter has been used for the drainage of urine from the bladder and it consists of a hollow flexible tube and a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter.
A suprapubic catheter is used for long-term continuous drainage and is inserted through a small incision above the pubic area. Suprapubic bladder drainage diverts urine from the urethra when injury, stricture, prostatic obstruction, or abdominal surgery has compromised the flow of urine through the urethra.
Therefore, The physiological response is possibly causing the increased urine output Suprapubic catheter.
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There are so many of us you will probably have a hard time seeing just one of us. I am small but i have a big job. I make compounds that build your muscles, fight disease, transports oxygen, and speed up your metabolism. What am i?.
Answer:
BLOOD CELLS RBC it has hemoglobin with helps in oxygen transportation and RBC that improves metabolism and fight disease
the nurse reviews discharge instructions with a client who underwent a left groin cardiac catheterization 8 hours ago. which instructions should the nurse include?
The instructions that should be included are:
1.Avoid waist-bending
2.tension.
3.For the next 24 hours, refrain from lifting anything heavy.
The invasive imaging procedure known as cardiac catheterization, also known as cardiac cath or coronary angiography, enables your doctor to examine your coronary arteries and identify coronary artery disease. Additionally, it can be used to gauge the pressures inside your chambers and assess how well your heart is working.
To stop bleeding from the catheter insertion site for the first three to four days after the procedure, don't strain during bowel movements.
For the first five to seven days following the treatment, refrain from hard lifting (more than 10 pounds) as well as pushing or hauling large things.
After the procedure, refrain from vigorous activity for five days. This includes playing tennis, bowling, golf, and most sports.
If necessary, you may mount the stairs, but proceed more slowly than usual.
Within a week of the surgery, gradually raise your activity level until it matches your usual level.
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when caring for a patient with bell's palsy, the nurse would monitor for which complications?
When caring for a patient with bell's palsy, the nurse would monitor for complications like Corneal abrasions.
Bell's palsy is sudden weakness of the muscles on one side of the face. The weakness is only temporary, often subsiding within a few weeks.The debuff causes the lower half of the face to sag. When you smile unilaterally, the affected eye resists closing.
A corneal abrasion (cornea) is a superficial abrasion of the clear, protective "window" in the front of the eye. Contact lenses, dirt, sand, wood shavings, plants, metal shavings, paper edges, and other debris can damage the cornea.
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drugs that are used to decrease blood cholesterol are called: group of answer choices antihypertensives thrombolytics antihyperlipidemics antiarrhythmics
Drugs that are used to decrease blood cholesterol are called antihyperlipidemic.
Blood lipid levels are reduced by antihyperlipidemic drugs. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglyceride levels are the goals of certain antihyperlipidemic medications, whereas high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is the goal of others. They can avoid both the primary and secondary symptoms of coronary heart disease by lowering LDL cholesterol.
A class of medications called lipid-lowering medicines, often referred to as cholesterol-lowering, hypolipidemic, or antihyperlipidemic agents, is used to lower high blood levels of lipids (fats) and lipoproteins (fats containing protein).
The lipid-lowering medications are used to treat dyslipidemia and hypercholesterolemia. These substances rank among the most widely prescribed drugs in the country.
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which information should the nurse include when providing discharge instructions to a client with psoriasis? trim fingernails regularly. avoid applying creams after bathing. use a washcloth when bathing. scrub vigorously when bathing to remove scales on skin.
According to the declaration, one feeding should be eliminated gradually.
What purposes do creams serve?Creams are also beneficial for dry hands, elbows, and heels as well as other rough areas. Since the skin's natural oil production decreases with age, several anti-aging face moisturizers include cream formulations. Creams are also frequently used to treat skin disorders like rashes and eczema.
How do creams get put on?Always properly dry and wash your hands before applying anything. The skin should be directly treated with topicals. Apply the cream evenly over the afflicted region in a thin layer. They should not be smoothed or rubbed into the skin, but rather lightly spread.
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the physician prescribed furosemide for mrs. campbell. which lab value do you need to obtain and evaluate before administering furosemide?
The physician prescribed furosemide for Mrs. Campbell. Serum potassium levels need to Be obtained and evaluate before administering furosemide.
Furosemide is utilized alone or in combination with other solutions to treat high blood weight. Furosemide is utilized to treat edema caused by different medical issues, counting heart, kidney, and liver illnesses. Furosemide is in a lesson of drugs called diuretics. It works by causing the kidneys to urge rid of unneeded water and salt from the body into the urine. High blood pressure could be a common condition and when not treated, can cause harm to the brain, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, and other parts of the body. Harm to these organs may cause, a heart attack, heart disease, heart failure or a stroke, kidney failure, misfortune of vision, and other issues.
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in primary immune thrombocytopenia purpura (itp), the client has which type of disorder that primarily destroys which blood component?
The autoimmune disorder known as immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is marked by the destruction of platelets by the immune system.
A reduction in the quantity of platelets in the blood is a characteristic of the blood condition known as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Blood cells called platelets aid in the cessation of bleeding. Easy bruising, bleeding gums, and internal bleeding are all symptoms of platelet deficiency. An immune response directed against one's platelets results in this sickness. Another name for it is autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura.
In thrombocytopenia, the blood's platelet count is reduced.A bruise-like purple discoloration of the skin is referred to as purpura.ITP is a blood condition that can affect both children and adults.
Acute thrombocytopenic purpura: Ages 2 to 6 years old children are often affected by this. The signs and symptoms might come after a viral infection like chickenpox. The symptoms of acute ITP typically emerge rapidly and diminish in less than 6 months, frequently in a matter of weeks. Treatment is frequently unnecessary. Usually, the condition doesn't come back. The most prevalent type of the condition is acute ITP.
Chronic thrombocytopenic purpura: The symptoms of the illness might appear at any age and endure for at least six months, a number of years, or a lifetime. Although it affects teens, this kind is more common in adults. It affects women more frequently than men. Recurrence of chronic ITP is common.
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the nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. which client does the nurse anticipate to be at the greatest risk for alteration in urinary elimination?
The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. An 80-year-old male reporting frequent urination at night nurse anticipate to be at the greatest risk for alteration in urinary elimination
A surgical unit is a facility that treats patients for stays of less than twenty-four (24) hours and is either housed within a hospital or operated under its license. An emergency room facility is not a "Surgical Unit." Urination, often referred to as micturition, is the process by which urine is expelled from the bladder through the urethra and out of the body. It is an excretion method used by the urinary system. Frequently Urinating: The Causes Numerous conditions, such as renal disease or just consuming too much liquids, might show symptoms of frequent urination. You may have a urinary tract infection if you often pee, have an urgent desire to urinate, and have abdominal pain or discomfort.
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the nurse cares for a client with cholecystitis with severe biliary colic symptoms. which nursing intervention best promotes adequate respirations in a client with these symptoms?
The primary goal of treatment for biliary colic is to manage pain. This usually refers to any kind of NSAID, like ibuprofen, which is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicine.
Can biliary colic be managed non-surgically?For some biliary colic instances with gallstones, surgery might not be an option. In this situation, medication or counselling might be employed. Certain medications can dissolve gallstones, however they are most effective on smaller stones. Another therapeutic option is shock wave lithotripsy.
How might cholecystitis symptoms be treated?To relieve the pressure on your gallbladder, the initial course of treatment usually include fasting. To avoid dehydration, intravenous fluid administration drips liquids straight into a vein. using medication to treat your discomfort.
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