Avoid eating a heavy meal prior to going to bed.
Perform some type of mild exercise during the day such as walking.
the nurse best aids the client to take medication by instructing the client.
What is medication?
Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid in the diagnosis of diseases. Modern medicine has made it possible for doctors to both save and cure many ailments. Nowadays, there are numerous sources for drugs.
categories of drugs
Liquid. To facilitate administration or improve absorption, the liquid component of the medication is mixed with the active ingredient.
Tablet. A round or oval solid is formed once the active component and another substance are mixed.
Capsules.
topical drugs.
Suppositories.
Drops.
Inhalers.
Injections.
List of general sales (GSL) GSLs are a class of medication with little if any legal limitations.
What is aids?
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the primary cause of the chronic, potentially fatal illness known as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) (HIV). HIV interferes with your body's capacity to fight disease and infection by weakening your immune system.
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the nurse considers the universal protocol for preventing wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery. which are correct about this protocol?
The four steps are correct about the protocol:
1. Patient participation
2. Identifying the patient
3. Marking the site
4. Time Out
It is possible to avoid performing surgery on the incorrect patient, incorrectly. That objective is what the Universal Protocol aims to accomplish. It is supported by more than 40 professional medical organisations and organisations and is based on the consensus of specialists from the pertinent clinical specialties and professional fields.
The following guidelines were agreed upon when creating this protocol:
It is possible and necessary to avoid inappropriate site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery.To attain the goal of eliminating incorrect location, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery, a strong approach utilising numerous, complimentary tactics is required.The effectiveness of the operation depends on everyone on the surgical team participating actively and communicating well.The patient (or their legally appointed agent) should be involved in the process as much as is practical.The best results will come from the consistent application of a defined strategy employing a global, consensus-based methodology.The protocol ought to be adaptable enough to enable for implementation with the proper modifications as needed to address particular patient demands.Cases featuring right/left distinction, numerous structures (fingers, toes), or levels should be the focus of site marking requirements (spine).All surgical and other invasive procedures that put patients at risk, including those performed outside of the operating room, should be covered by the Universal Protocol or adaptable to it.Learn more about wrong procedure, and wrong person here :
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AORN has endorsed The Joint Commission's "Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, Wrong Person Surgery™" and has developed a "Correct Site Surgery Tool Kit" that details steps for implementing the Universal Protocol. This tool kit was designed to standardize the implementation of the universal protocol. The four steps are:
1. Patient participation
2. Identifying the patient
3. Marking the site
4. Time Out
the nurse is inquiring about the client's use of complementary and alternative medicines (cams). the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses which cams? select all that apply.
According to question, the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses Homeopathy and Herbal supplements .
Nursing interventions during a seizure include creating a private space, removing constrictive clothing, raising the bed's padded side rails, removing the pillow, and positioning the patient on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to encourage drainage by letting the tongue fall forward.
When long-term IV therapy is necessary and an external central venous device is neither appropriate or desirable, an implanted port is most frequently used. These patients often have restricted vascular access, thus it can also be utilized to collect blood samples for laboratory testing.
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A 24-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea that she has been experiencing for 3 days, with no medical issues before then. She now feels dizzy upon standing, her tongue is dry, and her eyes appear glazed. Her serum sodium concentration is 130 mEq/L. What finding is most likely?
A greater level of blood ADH. Dehydration is clearly present in the patient. She also had a low level of serum salt, demonstrating the body's desire to preserve water.
How can you stop having diarrhea?Drink a lot of liquids, such as juices, broths, and water. Avoid alcohol and caffeine. As your bowel motions get regular again, gradually introduce semisolid and low-fiber foods. Try toast, eggs, rice, soda crackers, or chicken.
What causes diarrhea primarily?Viral gastroenteritis, a disease that affects your bowels, is the most frequent cause of diarrhea. The illness, which occasionally goes by the name of intestinal flu, often lasts a few days. Infection by bacteria is one of the additional probable causes of diarrhea.
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When dealing with hematologic disorders, the EMT must be familiar with the composition of blood. Which of the following is considered a hematologic disease?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Hemophilia
C) Lou Gehrig's disease
D) Both A and B
D) Both A and B
Sickle cell disease and Hemophilia are considered hematologic diseases, as they both affect the blood and blood cells. Lou Gehrig's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder, not a hematologic disease.
What is the main difference between the symptoms of sickle cell disease and hemophilia?Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin, which causes the red blood cells to change shape and become crescent-shaped. This causes blockages in blood vessels, leading to symptoms such as pain, fatigue, and anemia. Hemophilia, on the other hand, is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. This leads to excessive bleeding and bruising, and can also cause joint damage and internal bleeding. The main difference between the two is that sickle cell disease is primarily characterized by pain and blockages in the blood vessels, while hemophilia is primarily characterized by excessive bleeding and bruising.
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A postoperative client is being evaluated for discharge and currently has an Aldrete score of 8. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for this client?
The client can be discharged from the PACU.
The client should be transferred to an intensive care area.
The client must remain in the PACU.
The client must be put on immediate life support.
The client can be discharged from the PACU.
Define PACU? A post-anesthesia care unit, often known as a PACU, a PAR, or simply a recovery room, is an essential component of hospitals, ambulatory care facilities, and other healthcare facilities.Transferring patients from the operating room suites to the recovery area involves administering general anesthetic, regional anesthesia, or local anesthesia. Medical professionals such as anesthesiologists, licensed registered nurse anesthetists, and other staff members often keep an eye on the patients. Providers follow a defined handoff process to the medical PACU team in which they explain what medications were administered in the operating room suites, how the patient's hemodynamics were during the procedures, and what is anticipated of them in terms of their recovery. Prior to being sent back to their hospital rooms, patients are watched for any potential issues following initial examination and stabilization.Learn more about PACU here:
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what is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus?
"Place yourself on the left side of the patient. Place both hands on the right side of the uterus and pull the uterus to the left and up." is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus.
What is left uterine displacement?The 'left uterine displacement' (LUD) position shifts the gravid uterus away from the aorta and vena cava by tilting the parturient's abdomen and pelvis at least 15 degrees off the midline with a wedge under the right buttock. Any pregnant woman whose uterus is palpable above the umbilicus should be considered for left uterine displacement. The data from Lee et al. show that left uterine displacement is a simple, cost-free intervention with proven efficacy.
Here,
"Place yourself on the patient's left side. Pull the uterus to the left and up with both hands on the right side of the uterus "is the proper method for performing left uterine displacement (lud) on a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest with a fundus at or above the umbilicus.
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a staff development nurse is providing an in-service to a group of nurses on the use of restraints in health care facilities. what is an example of a chemical restraint?
Chemical restraints are medications that are intentionally administered to reduce a person’s behavior for the purpose of controlling their behavior. Examples of chemical restraints include antipsychotics such as haloperidol or risperidone.
When providing an in-service to nurses on the use of restraints, the use of chemical restraints should be discussed, as they can be overused in some cases. It is important to discuss the risks associated with the use of chemical restraints, such as the potential for side effects, drug interactions, and the potential for abuse. Nurses should also be aware of the legal implications of using chemical restraints.
Appropriate use of chemical restraints is essential, and nurses should be familiar with the policies and procedures related to their use. Educating nurses on the risks, legal implications, and appropriate use of chemical restraints is critical for patient safety.
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when a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is receiving oxygen, | which assessment findings indicate increasing carbon dioxide (co ) retention? select all - that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The following data suggest increased carbon dioxide (co) retention in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) who is getting oxygen :
DrowsinessPulse irregularityMental confusionBecause high oxygen saturation and high PaO2 levels may inhibit ventilatory drive in some (but not all) COPD patients, the nurse should ensure that the patient is receiving supplemental oxygen. We will occasionally assess clinical symptoms of CO2 retention. CO 2 retention depresses the central nervous system, resulting in drowsiness, confusion, and decreased breathing depth and rate. CO 2 retention also affects cardiac function, causing arrhythmias. Lethargy is seen instead of anxiety, and CO 2 retention is seen due to depression of the central nervous system. Respiratory rate decreases with CO 2 retention due to central nervous system depression.
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a 15-year-old with cystic fibrosis (cf) is admitted with a respiratory infection. the nurse determines that the adolescent is cyanotic, has a barrel-shaped chest, and is in the 10th percentile for both height and weight. which is the priority nursing intervention?
Postural drainage, including percussion and vibration, aids removal of respiratory secretions that provide a medium for further bacterial growth.
What is respiratory in the body?Your respiratory system is the network of organs and tissues that help you breathe. This system helps your body absorb oxygen from the air so your organs can work. It also cleans waste gases, such as carbon dioxide, from your blood. Common problems include allergies, diseases or infections.
What is a respiratory infection?Respiratory tract infections (RTIs) are infections of parts of the body involved in breathing, such as the sinuses, throat, airways or lungs. Most RTIs get better without treatment, but sometimes you may need to see a GP.
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your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. she has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. as you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to
As you evaluate the patient's circulatory condition, tell your partner how to administer oxygen using the proper equipment like canula.
Low flow oxygen administration uses a nasal cannula, transtracheal catheters, face masks, and non-rebreathing masks. While HFNC (High flow nasal cannula) is used by medical professionals to administer high flow oxygen to patients. The different kinds of oxygen therapy delivery systems are: Compressed gas: One hundred percent oxygen is kept under pressure in a sizable metal cylinder. An oxygen flow regulator is built into the cylinder. When you breathe in, an oxygen-conserving device sends oxygen, and when you exhale, it stops the flow of oxygen.If not closely monitored, oxygen therapy in emphysema patients can be dangerous. Be extremely cautious before administering oxygen therapy to an emphysema patient in an acute care setting who exhibits symptoms of hypoxia, shortness of breath, and increased effort to breathe.
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The 35 year old man with opioid use disorder (described above), treated with buprenorphine, 16mg per day, is abstinent from opioids, using 4 mg per day of alprazolam, is motivated to try to quit benzodiazepines and agrees to a substitution and taper strategy. Which of the following medications, at the total daily dose indicated, would be the most equivalent starting dose for a taper.
The much more similar beginning medication for a taper would indeed be 100 mg of chlordiazepoxide.
What is the purpose of chlordiazepoxide?
Chlordiazepoxide is utilized to treat anxiety levels, such as uneasiness or worry before surgery. Additionally, it may be used to relieve alcoholism side effects. Chlordiazepoxide, often known as Librium, is a diazepam class hypnosis and sedative drug that is used to alleviate symptoms.
What effects does chlordiazepoxide have on you?
Chlordiazepoxide affects how certain brain chemicals, referred to as neurotransmitters communicate with your brain cells. On a variety of brain activities, it has a relaxing impact. Chlordiazepoxide is occasionally used to treat anxiety because it has a soothing impact that is beneficial for persons with anxiety.
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Complete question
A 35 year old man with opioid use disorder is being treated with 16mg of buprenorphine daily. He is abstinent from opioids, which has been confirmed by negative urine toxicology results, however his urines are intermittently positive for benzodiazepines and he notes drinking alcohol two days per week. Further history, corroborated by his wife, indicates that he drinks 2-4 beers, 2-3 days a week and feels intoxicated. He says he wants to stop drinking altogether and has tried, however hasn’t been able to quit, as he experiences cravings after a day or two. The drinking worries his wife, but otherwise his marriage, work and their social activities have not been affected by it. He’s had no health problems associated with drinking and no history of tolerance or alcohol withdrawal when he does not drink for a few days. What is the most appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?
a mother tells the pediatrician's office nurse that she is concerned because her children must let themselves into the house after school each day while she is at work, and they feel isolated and fearful. the nurse would suggest which to the mother?
Nurses advise working mothers when their children have to let themselves in after school, and the mothers feel isolated and afraid to find after-school programs or community activities.
A working mother has more worries and thinks about herself outside than a man. While at the office, a mother also has a heavy burden of thoughts about her family. This thought greatly affects the anxiety and emotional stability of a mother.
The after-school program is the best choice for working mothers for their children so that the children will not go straight home but will take part in after-school activities.
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the provider orders lamivudine 150 mg, po, every 12 hours. the pharmacy supplies lamivudine in an oral solution containing 10 mg in 1 ml. how many ml will you administer?
Since an oral solution of the lamivudine contains 10 mg in 1 ml of solution, therefore 15 ml of the solution should be administered to supply 150 mg every 12 hours.
Lamivudine is the medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is an anti-retroviral drug and is commonly known as 3TC. It is also sometimes used to treat the chronic Hepatitis B disease. The medication functions by inhibiting the reverse-transcription process.
In the question it is given that 1 ml of solution contains 10 mg of the medication.
10 mg = 1 ml.
1 mg = 1 / 10 ml
Therefore, 150 mg = 150 × (1 / 10) ml = 15 ml.
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mixed urogenital flora 25,000-50,000 colony forming units per ml
The most common organisms found in this type of flora are Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Enterococcus faecalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis, and Enterobacter cloacae.
What is pneumoniae?Pneumoniae is a type of infectious disease that affects the lungs. It is caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi, and is spread through coughing, sneezing, and contact with infected saliva or mucus. Pneumoniae is a serious illness that can cause severe breathing problems and can even be fatal in some cases. Symptoms of pneumoniae include coughing, chest pain, fever, chills, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Treatment usually involves antibiotics, rest, and increased fluid intake. In some cases, supplemental oxygen and hospitalization may be necessary to help with recovery.
Other less common organisms may be present, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Candida species.
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which pediatric patient would the nurse expect to be at risk for altered pulse oximetry readings?
The nurse expect to be at risk child with diaphoresis for altered pulse oximetry readings.
What is diaphoresis?Diaphoresis is defined as excessive sweating caused by a secondary condition. It could be a medical condition, a life event, or a medication side effect. Menopause, hyperthyroidism, and various medications are common causes. Diaphoresis causes you to sweat more than usual without the usual triggers, such as external temperature or exercise. Sweating frequently occurs in large areas of your body rather than in specific areas, such as the palms of your hands or the soles of your feet. Diaphoresis is characterized by excessive sweating for no apparent reason. This type of sweating is frequently caused by an underlying medical condition or a natural life event, such as menopause. Sweating is the body's natural method of controlling its temperature.
Here,
The nurse anticipates that a child with diaphoresis will have abnormal pulse oximetry readings.
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a nurse is caring for a 92-year-old who is taking multiple drugs and displaying increased cognitive impairment and memory loss. the initial action of the nurse would be to:
The initial action of the nurse would be to try to distinguish between normal signs of aging and the adverse drug effects.
What is cognitive impairment?
Cognitive impairment is characterised by difficulties with memory, learning new things, focusing, or making decisions that have an impact on daily activities. There are many degrees of cognitive impairment.
Amnesia, delirium, and dementia are examples of cognitive illnesses. Patients with these conditions lack a complete sense of orientation in time and space. A cognitive disorder diagnosis may be transient or progressive, depending on the underlying reason.
Memory, language, and judgement issues may be a part of MCI. When someone has MCI, they could be aware that their memory or other mental abilities have "slipped." Changes could also be noticed by family and close friends. The alterations, however, are not severe enough to interfere with daily life or the regular activities.
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according to research done by erik erikson and joan erikson, children who are securely attached are also likely to be
According to the Eriksons, kids who had secure attachments gained a basic faith in the outside world.
What exactly is the core trust?
Fundamental trust is a part of the social behavior of trust. The phrase was popularized by many psychoanalytic writers to describe the sense of secure trust in others that may develop as a result of effective mothering.
What does Erikson mean by basic trust?
the first of Erikson's eight phases of psychological development, which occurs between birth and 18 months of age. During this time, the newborn either grows a fundamental mistrust of his or her environment or starts to see other people and herself as trustworthy.
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a clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?
These statements about emotional intelligence are not correct:
i) Ability to act purposefully
iii) Ability to think abstractly
vi) Ability to learn from past experiences
What is emotional intelligence?
Emotional intelligence, also known as EQ, is the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the emotions of others. It is the capacity to be aware of, control, and express one's emotions, and to handle interpersonal relationships judiciously and empathetically. It is the ability to read people's feelings and respond accordingly, as well as the ability to use emotions to motivate, influence, and guide oneself and others. In essence, emotional intelligence is the ability to effectively understand, manage, and use emotions, both in yourself and in others.
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Complete question:
A clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?
i) Ability to act purposefully
ii) Ability to handle fear and anxiety
iii) Ability to think abstractly
iv) Ability to promote the feeling of satisfaction
v) Ability to see others point of view
vi) Ability to learn from past experiences
classify the statements below as relating to preimplantation genetic diagnosis (pgd), genetic testing, or gene therapy. some labels might be used more than once. others might not be used.
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis, genetic testing, or gene therapy and (PGD). Gene therapy, Gene testing and PGD can be used more than once.
Details are given below-
1. "Gene therapy is a way for treating genetic illnesses by introducing healthy genes into the patient's cells" – associated with Gene therapy
2. In relation to genetic testing, "Genetic testing can be utilized to identify genetic problems in a growing fetus."
3. In relation to preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD), "PGD can be utilized to diagnose inherited genetic abnormalities in embryos."
4. In relation to genetic testing, "Genetic testing can be used to forecast the chance of a person getting a specific condition."
Gene therapy is a method of treating genetic diseases by introducing healthy copies of genes into the patient's cells. This can be done by using vectors, such as viruses, to deliver the healthy genes to the cells, or by directly editing the patient's DNA. Gene therapy is being researched and developed as a potential treatment for a wide range of genetic disorders, including cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell anemia.
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the nurse has applied personal protective equipment (ppe) before caring for an immunocompromised client. when removing ppe, what action should the nurse perform?
When caring for immunocompromised patients and all neonates, the hand antisepsis approach utilising antimicrobial soap is employed. Rubs containing alcohol have to be used in non-surgical settings.
Which kind of isolation is recommended for an immunosuppressed client?For the purpose of preventing infection in immunosuppressed cancer patients, protective isolation has been utilised.
When handling and washing dirty linens, put on a pair of tear-resistant, reusable rubber gloves. Laundry employees should always wear gowns or aprons and facial protection (such as a face shield or goggles) when laundering dirty linens whenever there is a chance of splashing, such as when laundry is cleaned by hand.
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Convert 2:30 pm to international time
which nervous system has two nerve fibers connecting the cns to an effector?
Autonomic - ANS has two nerve fibers to an effector. The first extends from CNS to the ganglion, and the second from the autonomic ganglion to effector.
What is CNS?The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of brain and spinal cord. It is one of 2 parts of the nervous system. The other part is peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves that connect brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. The central nervous system is body's processing centre.
The central nervous system is made up of brain and spinal cord: brain controls how we think, learn, move, and feel. The spinal cord carries messages back and forth between the brain and nerves that run throughout the body.
The neural stem cells, principally radial glial cells, multiply and generate neurons through process of neurogenesis, forming the rudiment of the CNS.
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cdc, fda see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes
Centers for Disease Control (CDC), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) do not any see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes.
However, it's important to note that the safety of vaccines is continuously monitored after they are approved and made available to the public. This includes ongoing surveillance of potential side effects through systems such as the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) and the Vaccine Safety Datalink (VSD). If a potential safety concern is identified, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and FDA will investigate further and take appropriate action to ensure the public's health and safety. It's always important to rely on credible sources such as the CDC, FDA, and the World Health Organization (WHO) for accurate information about vaccines, and to be aware that misinformation and false claims are circulating online.
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a pregnant woman has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). the nurse reinforces information to the client about hiv and determines that the need for further teaching is necessary when the client makes which statement?
A pregnant mother was found to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). When the client says, "Breast-feeding after delivery is best for my kid," the nurse reaffirms HIV information to the client and concludes that more education is required.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) damages the immune system, impairing the body's ability to fight infection and disease. HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, semen, or vaginal secretions. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS, but drugs can control the infection and prevent the disease from progressing.
HIV infection during pregnancy is considered a high-risk pregnancy and the most important complication is that the virus can be passed on to the baby.
You can pass HIV to your baby during pregnancy, labor, delivery, or breastfeeding. People living with HIV can transmit HIV to their babies at any time during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
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antihypertensive medications that stimulate type 2 and 4 angiotensin ii receptors
Most people believe that ARBs, thiazide diuretics, and dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers increase the production of angiotensin II, which in turn stimulates activity at the AT2 and AT4 receptors.
By blocking AT1 receptors, angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) increase AT2 and AT4 activation and elevate angiotensin II levels by inducing renin production.
Angiotensin II is also raised by dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers and diuretics (thiazide, K+-sparing, and loop).
Antihypertensives (angiotensin II-stimulating antihypertensives) that increase activity at AT2 and AT4 collectively are thought to have greater brain protective effects than those that decrease activity at the same receptors. By lowering angiotensin 2 and 4, ACE inhibitor/thiazide diuretic combinations are used to treat hypertension and lower blood pressure. They function by loosening the blood vessels and removing extra salt and water from the body.
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the nurse is assessing a client at a postpartum visit who reports constipation. the nurse should point out this is likely related to which factor?
The most likely factor which the nurse must tell the client for constipation postpartum is discomfort due to hemorrhoids.
Postpartum refers to the period after delivery of the baby. The nurse must inform the client about the pain of hemorrhoids which is the most probable reason for constipation postpartum. Hemorrhoids are the swollen veins or rashes which are formed near the anus region and may cause discomfort and bleeding. The swelling of abdominal muscles, separation of rectus muscles, and relaxation of abdominal muscles are some of the pregnancy related developments and this may take time to heal. Though these factors do not affect the body directly as constipation but this do cause the discomfort in the stomach. In such conditions, clients must try to remain hydrated as much as possible and consume fruits. Also some pills by the doctor specifically aiming at reduction of swelling in muscles will be helpful.
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a client with a burn injury is in acute stress. which of the following complications is prone to develop in this client?
Gastric ulcers is prone to develop in this client
What is gastric ulcer ?A burning or gnawing ache in the middle of the stomach is the most typical sign of a stomach ulcer (abdomen). However, some people may also experience other symptoms, such as indigestion, heartburn, acid reflux, and feeling sick. Stomach ulcers are not always painful.
The stress response causes histamine to be released, which raises gastric acidity. Gastric (Curling's) ulcers are more likely to form in burn patients. The heat kills the erythrocytes, which leads to anaemia. Histamine release does not result in hyperthyroidism or cardiac arrest.
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the community health nurse is advocating breast-feeding and child spacing in a developing country to prevent acute upper respiratory infections, which is a leading cause of death worldwide. which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
In a developing country, a community health nurse promotes breastfeeding and child spacing to reduce acute upper respiratory infections, which are a primary cause of mortality globally thus, The nurse is carrying out the primary level of prevention.
Breastfeeding protects infants against respiratory infections (RTI), but it is uncertain whether the effects persist beyond this age.Some studies report that the protection wears off soon after weaning. However, other studies have found that it persists beyond the age of two.
Breast milk is rich in immunoglobulins that protect babies from pneumonia, diarrhea, ear infections, asthma and other illnesses. Breastfeeding immediately after birth is important because newborns have immature immune systems. That is why breastfeeding is also called "first vaccination". Breastfed infants have fewer respiratory infections in the first few years of life, and lower respiratory tract infections are best known as the major risk factor for bronchiolitis.
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Complete question :
The community health nurse is advocating breast-feeding and child spacing in a developing country to prevent acute upper respiratory infections; which is a leading cause of death worldwide. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Secondary and tertiary
complete each statement by choosing the correct answer from the drop-down menu. a gastric ulcer is an ulcer located in the . a hematoma is a tumor made of . a hepatoma is a tumor of the . neurasthenia is a weakness of the . a hypoglycemic event means there are low amounts of in the blood.
After meals and prn are the correct missing words.
What are symptoms of gastric ulcer?a sharp stomach ache , feeling bloated, overstuffed, or belching
a dislike of fatty meals Heartburn \Nausea.
Stomach discomfort that burns is the most typical sign of peptic ulcer disease. Both stomach acid and an empty stomach exacerbate the agony. Eat some meals that buffer stomach acid or use an acid-reducing medication to alleviate the pain; nevertheless, the pain may return. Between meals and at night, the pain could be more severe.
Many sufferers with peptic ulcers show no signs or symptoms at all.
Less frequently, severe indications or symptoms like these may be caused by ulcers.
vomiting blood, which may appear red or black, or vomiting blood.
Having blood in the faeces, or having tarry or black stools
difficulty breathing
Feeling weak , nausea or diarrhoea , Unaccounted-for weight loss.
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Which word part is added or removed to make the term easier to pronounce?
A: word root
B: suffix
C: prefix
D: combining form
Answer:
D
Explanation:
combining vowels may be removed to make pronunciation easier
