The practice of protecting oneself from disease transmission through exposure to blood and other body fluids is referred to as standard precautions or universal precautions.
Standard precautions are a set of guidelines and protocols that healthcare workers use to protect themselves and their patients from the spread of infectious diseases. These precautions include things like hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment (PPE), and the proper disposal of needles and other sharps.
Standard precautions are based on the principle that all blood and other body fluids, regardless of whether or not they contain visible blood, should be considered potentially infectious. This approach helps to minimize the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV and hepatitis B and C, as well as other infectious diseases that can be transmitted through contact with blood and other body fluids.
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Which condition is closely linked to heart disease? a. low cardiorespiratory fitness b. low muscular strength c. poor flexibility d. poor reaction time.
Heart disease is closely linked with chronic kidney disease, a condition in which your kidneys are damaged and can't filter blood the way they should.
Which condition is closely linked to heart disease?
High blood pressure is a major risk factor for heart disease. It is a medical condition that happens when the pressure of the blood in your arteries and other blood vessels is too high.Although it's not a disease in itself, hypertension can lead to an increased risk of developing serious conditions such as coronary heart disease, heart attacks and strokes.Smoking. Being overweight or having obesity. Not getting enough physical activity. Eating a diet high in saturated fat, trans fat, cholesterol, and sodium (salt)To learn more about heart diseases refers to:
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a patient reports using artificial tears for comfort because of burning and itching in both eyes but reports worsening symptoms. the provider notes redness and discharge along the eyelid margins with clear conjunctivae. what is the recommended treatment?
Your doctor may prescribe an antibiotic, usually given topically as eye drops or ointment, for bacterial conjunctivitis.
What is the best treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?Antibiotics may shorten the duration of an infection, lessen consequences, and stop the transmission of the infection to other people. The following circumstances may call for the use of antibiotics: Rubella and rubeola (measles), viral rash infections that are typically accompanied by rash, fever, and cough, can cause conjunctivitis with discharge (pus). The majority of instances of common conjunctivitis, including those brought on by S aureus, group A streptococci, H influenzae, and P aeruginosa, respond favourably to this treatment. Erythromycin ointment, sulfacetamide eye drops, and polymyxin/trimethoprim eye drops are first-line broad-spectrum topical antibiotics for acute conjunctivitis.The therapeutic class of ophthalmic antibiotics from the PDL has been included for your convenience.To learn more about bacterial conjunctivitis refer to:
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while examining a newborn, the nurse notes uneven skinfolds on the buttocks and a clunk when performing the ortolani maneuver. these findings are likely indicative of what
While examining a newborn, the nurse notes uneven skinfolds on the buttocks and a clunk when performing the Ortolani maneuver. These findings are likely indicative of Hip dysplasia.
What is Hip dysplasia?The medical word for a hip socket that doesn't completely cover the upper thighbone's ball section is hip dysplasia. As a result, the hip joint may dislocate entirely or partially. The majority of those who have hip dysplasia are born with the disorder. Surgeries are frequently used to treat hip dysplasia. Arthritis is likely to develop if hip dysplasia is left untreated. Until the abnormality is surgically fixed, symptomatic hip dysplasia is likely to continue to produce symptoms. Periacetabular osteotomy, often known as PAO, is beneficial for many individuals. The hip socket is shallower at birth than at any other period before or after birth, and it is widely known that this causes hip dysplasia to appear around this time.To learn more about Hip dysplasia refer to:
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the nurse is reinforcing instructions regarding the prevention of lyme disease to a group of teenagers going on a hike in a wooded area. which points would the nurse include in the session? select all that apply.
Insert socks into the pant legs. Hiking requires closed-toe footwear. Use DEET-based insect repellent. When seated, drape a blanket over the ground. the nurse would include in the session of reinforcing instructions.
This uses the term reinforcement in a far less scientific way than psychologists do. The provision of verbal, symbolic, tangible, or other rewards for desired academic performance or effort at the classroom level is what we'll refer to as reinforcement instructional for the sake of this definition. Reinforcement is a technique used in behavioural psychology to strengthen an organism's future behaviour if that behaviour is preceded by a certain antecedent stimulus. This strengthening effect may be quantified as increased behaviour (e.g., drawing a lever more frequently), increased length (e.g., pushing a lever for an extended period of time), increased magnitude (e.g., pulling a lever more firmly), or decreased latency.
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which is the provision of local or regional anesthetic services with certain conscious-altering drugs when provided by a physician, anesthesiologist, or medically directed crna?
A type of anaesthesia service known as "monitored anaesthesia care" (MAC) involves a clinician who specializes in anaesthesia constantly monitoring and supporting the patient's vital signs, diagnosing and treating any clinical issues that may arise, giving sedative, anxiolytic, or analgesic medication as necessary, and switching to general anaesthesia if necessary.
What is monitored anesthesia care (MAC)?In reality, MAC is preferred in 10–30% of all surgical procedures. The three main components and goals of a conscious sedation during a MAC are: a safe sedation, the management of the patient's anxiety, and the management of pain. Conscious sedation, commonly referred to as twilight sleep or monitored anesthesia care (MAC), is a type of sedation that is given intravenously to make a patient asleep and relaxed during a surgery. The patient can usually follow directions when necessary and is usually awake but sluggish. When a patient is under general anesthesia, they are fully unconscious and have an endotracheal tube in their throat.provision of local or regional anaesthetic services with specific conscious-altering drugs when provided by a doctor, anesthesiologist, or medically directed CRNA; monitored anaesthesia care entails keeping a close eye on the patient to foresee when general anesthesia might be necessary, and it necessitates ongoing assessment of vital physiologic functions as well as the identification and treatment of adverse changes.To learn more about monitored anesthesia care refer to:
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the nurse is teaching crutch-walking to an adolescent. which action indicates the need for more teaching?
The adolescent dragging their crutches on the ground instead of lifting them up with each step.
Which behavior suggests that more instruction is necessary?The action that indicates the need for more teaching is if the adolescent is not able to put their weight on the crutches and move forward.The nurse should ensure the adolescent is able to properly fit the crutches to their arms and is able to rest their armpits comfortably on the pads.It is important for the adolescent to be able to bear their full weight on the crutches, move their arms in a natural motion, and keep their elbows slightly bent at all times.The nurse should also make sure the adolescent is using their arms, not their hands, to bear their weight while they are on the crutches.The nurse should also provide the adolescent with practice on the crutches until they are confident in their ability to move with the crutches.The adolescent should be able to use the crutches to move forward, turn, and stop safely.If the adolescent is not able to do these things, then the nurse should provide more teaching.To learn more about The adolescent refer to:
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a 19 year old client preparing to enter college asks the clinic nurse about immunizations. what immunizations should the nurse suggest the client discuss with the primary health care provider?
the nurse should suggest the client the following few immunizations with the primary health care provider: Meningococcal, Tdap, HPV, seasonal flu vaccine, hepatitis B
What is immunization?The practice of immunizing, also termed as immunization, fortifies a person's immune system against an infectious pathogen. The Basic immunization one should be aware of are:
Meningococcal, Tdap, HPV, seasonal flu vaccine,Hepatitis BHealth Care Provider:An organization or individual certified to offer medical diagnosis and treatment services, such as medication, surgery, and medical gadgets, is termed as a health care provider. Health insurance companies frequently pay healthcare professionals for the services they deliver.
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the patient is having a repair of a vaginal prolapse. what position does the nurse place the patient in?
The patient is having a repair of a vaginal prolapse. what position does the nurse place the patient in Prone position.
What is Prone position?Prone position is the medical term for lying flat on your stomach. Lying flat on your back is referred to as the supine position.Prone position is used in medical settings to help patients with certain conditions and symptoms get relief. For example, people in respiratory distress are often carefully placed in prone position by medical staff. Turning someone so that they’re in prone position is called proning.Prone position is a body position in which the person lies flat with the chest down and the back up. In anatomical terms of location, the dorsal side is up, and the ventral side is down. The supine position is the 180° contrast.To learn more about anatomical refer to:
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1. a pregnant patient presents to the labor and delivery unit reporting contractions every 3 minutes. the patient denies leaking any fluid or having any vaginal bleeding. what must the nurse review before performing an sve?
The nurse will review the gestational age and placental location of the patient.
During pregnancy, the placenta serves as a temporary organ to join the uterus to growing child. Soon after fertilization, the placenta begins to grow and adheres to the uterine wall.
The umbilical cord connects with the child to the placenta during pregnancy. Placenta and umbilical cord function as the baby's life support system when they are within the uterus.
gestational age, the period during which a fetus develops inside the uterus of the mother.
The fetus's stage of growth and physical development, are related to gestational age. When determining the potential adverse effects of a fetal exposure to toxins or infection, the gestational age of the fetus is particularly significant.
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the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) informs the nurse that the dying client manifests a death rattle. which action would the nurse perform?
Some efficient nursing interventions consist of: providing basic care and medications to prevent terminal suffering.
what is meant by (uap)?
UAP is an abbreviation of unidentified aerial phenomenon (or phenomena), a term that refers to things observed in the sky that cannot be identified as aircraft or other known phenomena.Examples may include surgical and dialysis technicians and medical assistants. Unlicensed assistive person: An assistant to the nurse, who regardless of title is authorized to perform nursing interventions delegated and supervised by a nurse.UAP is Canada's leading distributor and merchandiser of automotive parts and replacement accessories for cars and heavy vehicles.Nursing assistant, nursing auxiliary, auxiliary nurse, patient care technician, home health aide/assistant, geriatric aide/assistant, psychiatric aide, nurse aide, and nurse tech are all common titles for UAPs.To learn more about rattle refers to:
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The nurse should Turn the patient on the side to reduce gurgling if the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) informs the nurse that the dying client manifests a death rattle.
What essential nursing steps are carried out on a dying patient?Providing basic care and medications to prevent terminal suffering, offering an attentive and reassuring presence, respecting the contemplative phases, listening for hidden messages in conversations, understanding symbolic language, and respecting family dynamics are some examples of effective nursing interventions.
Quality of life factors often into decisions concerning care for those nearing the end of their lives.
Nurses have a responsibility to provide care, which includes fostering comfort, reducing pain and other symptoms, and providing support to patients, families, and anyone else close to the patient.
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The complete question is:
The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse that the dying patient is manifesting a death rattle. Which action would the nurse perform?
A. Instruct the UAP to initiate postmortem care
B. Notify the family that the patient has died
C. Turn the patient on the side to reduce gurgling
D. Tell the UAP that this is expected and nothing can be done
the nurse is caring for a client in acute kidney injury (aki). which complication would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate?
Polystyrene sulfonate hyperkalemia would be most definitely justified by the complication.
What is polystyrene sulfonate?High blood potassium levels are treated with a class of drugs called polystyrene sulfonates. Effects usually take a few hours to many days. Additionally, in technical applications, they are used to remove sodium, potassium, and calcium from solutions. High potassium levels in the blood, often known as hyperkalemia, are treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Only a doctor's prescription is needed to purchase this medication. So gastrointestinal symptoms are the most frequent side effects. Anorexia, vomiting, diarrheic, and constipation are a few of them. Your potassium levels may be excessively lowered by sodium polystyrene sulfonate, which may also result in irregular cardiac rhythms. Because it is so effective at what it does, sodium Lauretha sulfate, the sulfate currently used most frequently in shampoos, is actually outperformed by olefin sulfonate in terms of cleaning (SLES).To learn more about polystyrene sulfonate refer to:
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the nurse is caring for a client on the mental health unit who has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding. a guardian has been appointed. the nurse knows that guardians are typically selected from among family members. from the list of family members, what is the order of selection of a guardian for this client? list in descending order of importance from the first to the last choice. all options must be used
Spouse, Adult child, Parent Sibling, Close relative or friend, Public Guardian/ Conservator n these order the family members can be selected.
What is the order of selection typically chosen from among family members?When a client has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding, a guardian is typically appointed to make decisions on their behalf.The order of selection for a guardian is typically based on the client's family members, with priority given to the closest relatives. The order of selection typically starts with the client's spouse, followed by adult children, parents, siblings, and close relatives or friends. If no suitable family members are available or willing to serve as a guardian, a public guardian or conservator may be appointed by the court. It's worth noting that the selection process is not always based on a rigid order, and the court may select a guardian that it believes is in the best interest of the client.it may also take into consideration the willingness of the candidate to take on the role and the financial resources of the candidate.To learn more about order of selection refer:
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The order of selection of a guardian is as follows: (1) Spouse, (2) Adult children/ grandchildren (3) Parents (4) adult siblings (5) Adult nieces/nephews
What is the order of selection typically chosen from among family members?When a client has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding, a guardian is typically appointed to make decisions on their behalf.
The order of selection for a guardian is typically based on the client's family members, with priority given to the closest relatives.
The order of selection typically starts with the client's spouse, followed by adult children, parents, siblings, and close relatives or friends.
If no suitable family members are available or willing to serve as a guardian, a public guardian or conservator may be appointed by the court.
It's worth noting that the selection process is not always based on a rigid order, and the court may select a guardian that it believes is in the best interest of the client.
it may also take into consideration the willingness of the candidate to take on the role and the financial resources of the candidate.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a client on the mental health unit who has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding. A guardian has been appointed. The nurse knows that guardians are typically selected from among family members. From the list of family members, what is the order of selection of a guardian for this client? List in descending order of importance from the first to the last choice. all options must be used.
(1) Parents
(2) Spouse
(3) Adult Children/ grandchildren
(4) Adult nieces/ nephews
(5) Adult siblings
which condition is the nurse concerned about for a patient with laennec cirrhosis who has an increased abdominal girth of 12 cm over the measured abdominal girth from a previous admission?
The nurse may be concerned about ascites, a condition in which fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity due to the impaired function of the liver in patients with Laennec cirrhosis.
What other symptoms has the patient been experiencing that may be related to the increased abdominal girth? The patient may be experiencing a variety of symptoms related to their increased abdominal girth, such as difficulty breathing, abdominal pain or cramping, nausea, vomiting, and/or constipation. Additionally, the patient may be experiencing an inability to exercise, fatigue, and poor sleep. Other symptoms may include a feeling of fullness after eating small amounts of food, loss of appetite, and unintentional weight gain. In some cases, the patient may experience an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen (ascites), which can cause a rapid increase in abdominal girth. In some cases, the patient may also experience changes in urination, such as an increased frequency or difficulty starting or stopping the flow of urine. Finally, the patient may also experience abdominal bloating and swelling, which can be accompanied by pain or discomfort.To learn more about laennec cirrhosis refer to:
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which is the most therapeutic instruction for the nurse to provide to a client with preeclampsia regarding methods for improving her health?
Preeclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy, it begins at the onset of it.It is related with high blood pressure and high amount of urine in the body. Nurse would be high on alert when treating a patient with preeclampsia, as it could lead to eclampsia.
Nurses should form a strong bond during the whole pregnancy with the patient and check her thoroughly her every monthly checkup.
Educating patient is also a first line defence mechanism after supporting her emotionally and mentally, as patient suffering from it is unaware.
Postpartum care is also important, women also experience a long term trauma after such a short term symptoms, so nurse carry some of the emotional burden during such a distressing time can reduce short- and long-term trauma.
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a client with a nasogastric (ng) tube who is 2 days postoperative bowel resection is reporting increased abdominal pain and nausea. which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
action by the nurse would be most appropriate is avoid replacing the NG tube if it is accidentally dislodged.
What is abdominal pain and nausea?Both adults and children frequently experience nausea and stomach pain. Overeating, intestinal infections, stress and worry, and long-term gastrointestinal issues are some of the potential causes. Typically, stomach discomfort and nausea are transient and resolve on their own.If any of the following apply: abdominal ache that lasts for at least a week. abdominal discomfort that does not go away in 24 to 48 hours, gets worse and happens more frequently, and is accompanied by nausea and vomiting more than two days of persistent bloating. Abdominal pain mostly comes in three flavours: visceral, parietal, and referred.Hence, The action by the nurse would be most appropriate is avoid replacing the NG tube if it is accidentally dislodged.To learn more about abdominal pain and nausea refer to:
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patient presents to the hospital for a two-view chest x-ray for a cough. the radiology report comes back negative. what would be the correct codes to report to the insurance company?
The correct codes to report to the insurance company would be CPT code 71010 (Radiologic examination, chest; two views) and ICD-10-CM code R05 (Cough).
What is a diagnosis code for insurance?Diagnosis codes used for insurance purposes are usually called International Classification of Diseases (ICD) codes. These codes are assigned to describe a patient's diagnosis and can be used to determine the amount of payment for a service or procedure. For example, a patient who has been diagnosed with a heart attack may be assigned ICD-10 code I21.0 which indicates a myocardial infarction. Similarly, a patient diagnosed with a broken arm may be assigned ICD-10 code S52.6 which indicates a fracture of the upper arm. Each diagnosis code is unique and can be used to identify a specific diagnosis claim submitted to an insurance company. In addition to ICD codes, there are also codes called CPT codes which are used to describe the services or procedures associated with a diagnosis. These codes are used by insurance companies to determine which services and procedures will be covered and to calculate the cost of those services and procedures.To learn more about code for insurance refer to:
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The correct codes to report to the insurance company would be CPT code 71010 (Radiologic examination, chest; two views) and ICD-10-CM code R05 (Cough).
What is a diagnosis code for insurance?In most cases, ICD (International Classification of Diseases) codes are the name given to diagnosis codes in use for insurance purposes. These codes are assigned to describe a patient's diagnosis and can be used to determine the amount of payment for a service or procedure.
For example, a patient who has been diagnosed with a heart attack may be assigned ICD-10 code I21.0 which indicates a myocardial infarction. Similarly, a patient diagnosed with a broken arm may be assigned ICD-10 code S52.6 which indicates a fracture of the upper arm.
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a client is receiving vasopressin for the urgent management of active bleeding due to esophageal varices. what most serious complication should the nurse assess the client for after the administration?
A client is receiving vasopressin for the urgent management of active bleeding due to esophageal varices therefore the most serious complication the nurse should assess the client for after the administration is Hydronephrosis.
Who is a Nurse?
Thus is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taing care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
In a scenario where the client is receiving vasopressin, there is an increase in water retention in the kidney which is known as hydronephrosis and should be assessed so as to prevent toxicity of the blood and other body fluids.
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a client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. after treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present. which term describes the client's status?
A client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. After treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present therefore the term which describes the client's status is he/she has a chronic disease.
What is a Chronic disease?This is referred to as a human health condition or disease that is persistent or otherwise long-lasting in its effects.
Chronic disease is a long-term, continuous process and in the preclinical stage of a disease, a client may show no symptoms but will progress to clinical disease which is overtly present and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?
a. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
b. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
c. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%A client who has a temperature of 39° C (102° F)
d. A client who has a temperature of 39 C (102 F)
Answer:
Answer: A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010. Dehydration can be identified by an increased specific gravity of urine, as it is an indication of concentrated urine. A normal urine specific gravity is between 1.008-1.029.
A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010. The correct option is A.
What is dehydration?When a water molecule is lost in a chemical reaction, such as when an organic compound is being created, it is referred to as a dehydration reaction.
Synthesis is the process of generating an organic substance, often with the help of enzymes, in biology and organic chemistry.
a disorder that develops when the body loses too much of the fluids it needs to function normally, including water.
Four patients are being evaluated by a nurse for fluid balance. The client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010 should be identified by the nurse as having dehydration symptoms.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), the Institute of Medicine, and the Joint Commission have developed standards to address areas of concern for older hospitalized adults. Which of the following situations is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care
Transitions in care is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care.
Transitions in care typically describes a change in health care as patients move between multiple care settings for example to and from the operating room or intensive care unit and most commonly refers to the time when patients are discharged from the hospital setting. Transitions in care is of particular concern for an older adult with a hospitalization requiring complex care. Transition care is for older people who have been receiving medical treatment, but need more help to recover, and time to make a decision about the best place for them to live in the longer term. You can only access transition care directly from the hospital.
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to ensure that all the staff are competent in the use of the new equipment, which action is most important for the charge nurse to implement?
Schedule practice time for each nurse on the unit to use the insulin pens.
Registered nurses care for patients, assess their requirements, and keep track of their health data. They may also advise patients on how to manage a health problem or manage a team of licenced practical nurses, nursing assistants, and clerks. Registered nurses operate in a number of contexts, and each environment or specialty may necessitate a particular set of equipment. Some instruments, however, are routinely utilised by people working in other connected occupations to nursing.
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, one of a registered nurse's job tasks is to record and measure a patient's vital signs. Stethoscopes, blood pressure cuffs, and a range of thermometers (varying from rectal thermometers to digital ones that are implanted in the ear) are included on an RN's medical equipment list to do this. A watch with such a clearly visible dial & second hand is a useful instrument for measuring a patient's pulse.
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a client recovering from deep, partial-thickness burns develops chills, fever, flank pain, and malaise. which prescribed diagnostic test would the nurse expect to confirm a tentative urinary tract diagnosis?
The prescribed diagnostic test that the nurse is expected to confirm a tentative urinary tract diagnosis is urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity. The correct option is A.
What is prescribed diagnostic test?Based on a person's symptoms and indicators, a test is done to determine what disease or condition they may have.
Diagnostic tests can also be used to generate a prognosis, plan a course of treatment, and assess how well that course of treatment is working. The varieties of diagnostic tests are numerous.
In the same way as a patient suffering from profound, partial-thickness burns experiences malaise, fever, chills, and flank discomfort.
Urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity are the recommended diagnostic tests that the nurse is required to do to confirm a potential urinary tract diagnosis.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
1.Urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity
2.Cystoscopy and bilirubin level
3.Creatinine clearance and albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio
4.Specific gravity and pH of the urine
A nurse has just inserted a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to secure the catheter?
A. Apply an IV securement device
B. Wrap tape around the circumference of the client's arm
C. Trap the IV catheter's hub securely to the client's skin
D. Place a piece of paper tape over the insertion site.
Answer:
A. Apply an IV securement device
The nurse should put on an IV safety device to secure the catheter. So, the correct option is (A).
What is Peripheral IV catheter?A peripheral venous catheter is also called a peripheral venous line or peripheral venous access catheter, or peripheral intravenous catheter. It is defined as a catheter into a peripheral vein for venous access so that intravenous therapy such as pharmaceutical fluids can be administered.
There are two types of venous catheters. The central venous catheter differs from an intravenous (IV) catheter placed in the hand or arm which is also called a "peripheral IV" in that the central line is longer, with a larger tube and is placed in a large (central) vein in the neck, upper chest, or groin.
Thus, the nurse should put on an IV safety device to secure the catheter. So, the correct option is (A).
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why were healthcare organizations merging under the aca? why might these strategies have needed to be revisited?
Administrators claim that by working together, the companies would be able to comply with ACA standards for improving clinical outcomes while spending less money.
What impact have mergers had on cost and quality of care?A 3.7 percent drop in revenue per admission was also associated with hospital mergers; this equated to a yearly saving of $10.7 million. According to a Health Affairs study, some mergers, like hospital private equity buyouts, also resulted in lower hospital expenses.
According to administrators, collaboration would enable the businesses to adhere to ACA requirements for bettering clinical results while spending less money. Some employers established wellness programs before the ACA went into effect, but these were not required to be standardized or to have quantifiable outcomes.
A standard system of coverage levels based on actuarial value was established by the ACA, allowing insurers to raise prices for health plans with higher actuarial values.
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a patient being treated for gastroesophageal reflux disease with pantoprazole reports continued symptoms. while reviewing the patient-s 24 hour dietary recall, the nurse understands that which dietary choices would likely be a contributing factor?
Eating high fat and fried foods, drinking caffeinated beverages, and eating large meals are likely contributing factors to the patient's continued symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
What is mean by gastroesophageal reflux disease and its symptoms? Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a chronic digestive disorder that occurs when stomach acid or bile flows back up into the esophagus (the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach). This backflow of acid is called acid reflux. GERD is a common condition that affects people of all ages, including infants and children, and can cause discomfort and significant health problems if left untreated. Symptoms of GERD include heartburn, chest pain, difficulty swallowing, sour taste in the mouth, regurgitation, and a chronic cough or hoarseness. In some cases, GERD can lead to more serious problems such as inflammation or damage to the esophagus, which can cause bleeding or narrowing of the esophagus, breathing problems, and even cancer of the esophagus. Treatment options for GERD include lifestyle changes, medications, and surgery.To learn more about gastroesophageal reflux disease refer to:
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 ml of normal saline with 40 meq of potassium chloride. the nurse is monitoring the client for signs of hyperkalemia. which sign/symptom would be noted in the client if hyperkalemia is present?
Normal saline solution (0.9% NaCl) or NSS, is a crystalloid isotonic IV fluid that contains water, sodium (154 mEq/L), and chloride (154 mEq/L).
what is hyperkalemia?
High potassium (called “hyperkalemia”) is a medical problem in which you have too much potassium in your blood. Your body needs potassium.Other causes of hyperkalemia include:Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency)Angiotensin II receptor blockers.Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.Beta blockers.Dehydration.Destruction of red blood cells due to severe injury or burns.Excessive use of potassium supplements.Type 1 diabetes.Hyperkalemia symptoms include:Abdominal (belly) pain and diarrhea.Chest pain.Heart palpitations or arrhythmia (irregular, fast or fluttering heartbeat).Muscle weakness or numbness in limbs.Nausea and vomiting.To learn more about potassium chloride refers to:
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why is understanding the health care system at the local level important to consider when planning an ebp implementation? conduct research and solicit anecdotal evidence from your course preceptor that you will take into consideration for your own change project.
Understanding the health care system at the local level important to consider when planning an EBP implementation because it gives you an indication of what you can expect as far as demographics and availability of resources.
Define health care system?An organization of people, institutions, and resources known as a health system, health care system, or healthcare system provides health care services to satisfy the needs of target populations.A health system, according to the World Health Organization, comprises of all institutions, individuals, and activities whose principal goal is to advance, restore, or maintain health. This covers more indirect health-improving actions as well as initiatives to change the factors that determine health.The five core components of staff, stuff, space, systems, and social support are what we constantly think of when discussing enhancing the health system at Partners In Health (PIH).The quality of life is enhanced and diseases are prevented by high-quality healthcare.To learn more about health care system refer to:
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A patient was in refractory ventricular fibrillation. A third shock has just been administered. Your team looks to you for instructions. What is your next action?
A. Check the carotid pulse
B. Give amiodarone 300 mg IV
C. Give atropine 1 mg IV
D. Resume high-quality chest compressions
Answer:
D. Resume high-quality chest compressions
Explanation:
After a third shock has been administered and the patient remains in refractory ventricular fibrillation, chest compressions should be resumed since it is important to ensure that the patient receives adequate perfusion. Amiodarone and atropine can be options during this sequence of resuscitation effort, though are not necessarily the first steps to be taken. Checking the carotid pulse is not a recommended next action.
the nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled for surgery. the nurse would include which activities in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery? select all that apply.
The nurse would include Having the client void scheduling immediately before going into surgery activities in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery.
By controlling pain, supporting oxygenation or cardiovascular stabilization, maintaining fluid balance, caring for wounds, checking bowel function, helping with movement, and limiting complications, postoperative care helps the patient recover from surgery.
Family and patient education is the primary nursing intervention throughout the preoperative phase. Utilize every chance while the patient is being evaluated and getting ready for surgery to provide them with information that will help them feel more comfortable and less anxious.
Maintaining breathing and circulation, monitoring oxygen and level of awareness, avoiding shock, and controlling pain are the key goals of immediate post-anesthesia nursing home care. The nurse should regularly check on and record the patient's respiratory, circulatory, and neurological functions.
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according to surveys, 20% to 30% of people taking prescription drugs also take herbal supplements. less than [what percentage?] of patients using herbal supplements tell their health care providers about the use?
According to surveys, less than 50% of patients using herbal supplements tell their healthcare providers about their use.
It is important for patients to inform their healthcare providers about any supplements they are taking, as some supplements can interact with prescription drugs and affect their effectiveness, or cause unexpected side effects. Failure to disclose this information can put patients at risk and can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment
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