The Scrum Master will monitor the handling of conflicts within the team and _______________________ themselves first.

Answers

Answer 1

The Scrum Master will monitor the handling of conflicts within the team and prioritize resolving the conflicts themselves first.

Understanding the Role of Scrum Master

Scrum Master is a role within the Scrum framework, which is a widely used agile project management methodology.

The Scrum Master is responsible for facilitating the implementation of Scrum practices and ensuring that the Scrum team adheres to the principles and values of Scrum.The Scrum Master acts as a servant leader for the team, helping to remove any obstacles or impediments that may hinder the team's progress. They promote collaboration, facilitate meetings such as daily stand-ups, sprint planning, and retrospectives, and ensure that Scrum events are conducted effectively.The Scrum Master also coaches and guides the team on self-organization, continuous improvement, and adherence to Scrum principles. They help foster a positive and productive team dynamic, monitor the project's progress, and facilitate communication between the team and stakeholders.

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Related Questions

Given an upward-sloping aggregate supply curve, a reduction in aggregate demand would tend to
a. decrease the level of equilibrium real GDP and the overall price level.
b. increase the level of equilibrium real GDP and the overall price level.
c. increase the level of equilibrium real GDP but decrease the overall price level.
d. decrease the level of equilibrium real GDP but increase the overall price level.

Answers

If an upward-sloping aggregate supply curve encounters a reduction in aggregate demand, the level of equilibrium real GDP will decrease while the overall price level may decrease or increase.

An upward-sloping aggregate supply curve implies that the level of output increases with the price level. A reduction in aggregate demand means that there is less demand for goods and services at any given price level. As a result, firms will reduce output, and the economy will move to a new equilibrium point with a lower level of real GDP and a lower price level. This is because with lower demand, there is less need for production, which will cause a decrease in GDP.

Whether the overall price level decreases or increases depends on the relative magnitudes of the shifts in aggregate demand and supply. If the reduction in aggregate demand is greater than the shift in aggregate supply, the overall price level will decrease. Conversely, if the shift in aggregate supply is greater than the reduction in aggregate demand, the overall price level will increase.

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american/national identity in period 2 (1607-1754)

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From 1607 to 1754, numerous influences played a role in molding the American identity.

What are the roles in American Identity?

The creation of the thirteen British colonies in North America, each with their own unique religious, cultural, and economic roots, served as a cornerstone for the development of a distinct American character.

As colonial assemblies emerged and democratic principles flourished, the concept of self-governance and personal entitlements gained prominence.

Moreover, the colonists' ability to adapt to unfamiliar and difficult circumstances and their encounters with Native American factions and European nations contributed to a feeling of solidarity and perseverance.

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A(n) ____ is a group of ____ needed to create and deliver an intermediate or final output.
a) Process; value chains
b) Activity; tasks
c) Task; activities
d) Activity; processes

Answers

The answer is option b) Activity; tasks.

In any organization, there are various activities or tasks that need to be performed in order to produce a product or service. An activity is a logical unit of work that needs to be performed to achieve a specific goal, and a task is a specific action that is performed as part of an activity.

For example, in a manufacturing company, the activity of assembling a product may involve several tasks such as attaching components, testing for functionality, and packaging. In a service-based organization, the activity of delivering a service may involve tasks such as scheduling appointments, performing the service, and following up with customers.

Therefore, a group of tasks or activities is needed to create and deliver an intermediate or final output. These tasks or activities may be grouped together to form a process, which is a series of interrelated tasks or activities that work together to achieve a specific goal. The collection of processes that a company uses to produce its products or services is often referred to as a value chain.

In conclusion, while processes and value chains are important concepts in business operations, the key unit of work is the activity or task, which is essential in creating and delivering an intermediate or final output.

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a rectangular area that can contain a document, program, or message is called a:.
a) dialog box
b) form
c) frame
d) window

Answers

A window is a fundamental element of modern computer interfaces that allows users to interact with software applications and programs. So the correct option is d) window

A rectangular area that can contain a document, program, or message is called a window. A window is a graphical user interface element that displays the contents of an application or program. It can be moved, resized, minimized, and closed using various buttons and controls. The contents of a window can vary depending on the application or program running in it. For example, a text editor program would display a blank document in a window, while a web browser would display a webpage. The purpose of a window is to allow users to interact with the contents of an application or program in a visual and intuitive way.

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A mass attached to the end of a spring is stretched a distance x0 from equilibrium and released.
a. At what distance from equilibrium will it have velocity equal to half its maximum velocity?
b. At what distance from equilibrium will it have acceleration equal to half its maximum acceleration? Answer in terms of x0
.

Answers

a. The mass will have a velocity equal to half its maximum velocity at a distance of 0.707x0 from equilibrium.

b. The mass will have an acceleration equal to half its maximum acceleration at a distance of 0.5x0 from equilibrium.

The motion of a mass attached to a spring is described by the equation:

x = A cos(ωt + φ)

where x is the displacement from equilibrium, A is the amplitude of the motion, ω is the angular frequency (ω = sqrt(k/m) where k is the spring constant and m is the mass), t is time, and φ is the phase angle.

The maximum velocity and acceleration occur at the equilibrium position (x=0) and are given by:

v_max = Aω

a_max = Aω^2

To find the distance from equilibrium where the velocity is half its maximum value, we can solve for the displacement x when v = v_max/2:

v = -Aω sin(ωt + φ) = v_max/2

sin(ωt + φ) = -1/2

ωt + φ = -π/6 or 7π/6

Substituting ω = sqrt(k/m) and t = T/4 (where T is the period of the motion) gives:

sqrt(k/m)T/4 + φ = -π/6 or 7π/6

Solving for A cos(φ) (which is the displacement from equilibrium) gives:

A cos(φ) = ±(sqrt(3)/2)A

Therefore, the distance from equilibrium where the velocity is half its maximum value is 0.707x0.

To find the distance from equilibrium where the acceleration is half its maximum value, we can solve for the displacement x when a = a_max/2:

a = -Aω^2 cos(ωt + φ) = a_max/2

cos(ωt + φ) = -1/2

ωt + φ = ±2π/3

Substituting ω = sqrt(k/m) and t = T/3 gives:

sqrt(k/m)T/3 + φ = ±2π/3

Solving for A cos(φ) gives:

A cos(φ) = ±0.5x0

Therefore, the distance from equilibrium where the acceleration is half its maximum value is 0.5x0.

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a desired state configuration script can be created by the integrated scripting environment (ise).

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The Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) is a tool for creating and editing PowerShell scripts on Windows operating systems.

Desired State Configuration (DSC) is a feature of PowerShell that allows administrators to define the configuration of a system as code. Using the ISE, administrators can create DSC scripts that can be used to configure and manage multiple machines in a consistent and efficient manner.

The ISE provides a user-friendly interface for creating PowerShell scripts, with features such as syntax highlighting, code completion, and debugging. DSC allows administrators to define and manage system configurations in a declarative manner, meaning that they specify the desired state of a system, and the DSC engine takes care of enforcing that state. DSC scripts can be used to configure various aspects of a system, such as user accounts, software installations, and network settings. By defining configurations as code, administrators can more easily manage and automate the configuration of multiple machines, ensuring that they are consistent and up to date. The ISE is a valuable tool for creating and editing DSC scripts, making it easier for administrators to manage their systems more effectively.

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if weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your ifr flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for

Answers

The missing portion of the statement is "fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed at 10,000 feet." This is known as the "Alternate Airport Fuel Reserve" and is a requirement for IFR flights in case weather or other factors prevent landing at the intended airport.

The pilot must calculate the fuel needed to fly to the intended airport, hold for a specified time, and then fly to the alternate airport and still have 45 minutes of fuel remaining at the end of the flight. This is important for safety reasons, as it ensures that the pilot has enough fuel to reach the alternate airport and have a reserve in case of unexpected delays or diversions. It is also a regulatory requirement in many countries.

In practical terms, the pilot will need to carefully calculate fuel requirements based on factors such as the aircraft's fuel consumption rate, expected winds and weather conditions, and any additional fuel needed for contingencies such as holding patterns or missed approaches. The pilot must also consider the fuel required for any planned or unplanned deviations from the flight plan, such as changes in altitude or routing due to weather or air traffic control instructions. By carefully planning fuel requirements and ensuring that the Alternate Airport Fuel Reserve is met, the pilot can help ensure a safe and efficient flight.

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Which of the following statements about corrosion is false? A. Patina is the layer of tarnish that gives silver a richer appearance. B. The oxidation of most metals by oxygen is spontaneous. C. Most metals will develop a thin oxide coating, which protects their internal atoms from ox D. A car exposed to the elements will rust faster in the Midwest than in Arizona. E. All of these are true.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is E. All of these are true.

A. Patina is the layer of tarnish that gives silver a richer appearance. This is true. Patina is a thin layer of corrosion that forms on the surface of metals, such as silver, copper, and bronze. It can be a variety of colors, including green, blue, and brown. Patina is often considered to be desirable, as it gives the metal a more aged and rustic appearance.

B. The oxidation of most metals by oxygen is spontaneous. This is true. The oxidation of metals is a chemical reaction in which the metal reacts with oxygen to form an oxide. This reaction is spontaneous, which means that it will happen on its own without any input of energy.

C. Most metals will develop a thin oxide coating, which protects their internal atoms from oxidation. This is true. The oxide coating that forms on the surface of metals is a barrier that prevents the metal from reacting with oxygen. This barrier is very thin, but it is very effective at preventing oxidation.

D. A car exposed to the elements will rust faster in the Midwest than in Arizona. This is true. The Midwest is a region of the United States that is known for its humid climate. The humidity in the air causes the metal to rust more quickly. Arizona, on the other hand, is a desert state with a very dry climate. The dryness in the air prevents the metal from rusting as quickly.

Therefore, all of the statements about corrosion are true.

Explanation:

.What is the proper term for associating a Group Policy to a set of AD DS objects? a. Linking b. Connecting c. Implementing d. Granting

Answers

The proper term for associating a Group Policy to a set of AD DS objects is "linking." The correct option is option a. This involves selecting the appropriate Group Policy Object (GPO) and linking it to the desired objects or OUs within the AD DS structure.

When managing a network of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) objects, Group Policies are an effective way to configure and control settings across multiple objects. One important aspect of using Group Policies is the ability to associate them with specific AD DS objects, such as users, computers, or organizational units (OUs). This process allows you to apply the same policy settings to a group of objects, ensuring consistency and simplifying management. The proper term for associating a Group Policy to a set of AD DS objects is "linking." This involves selecting the appropriate Group Policy Object (GPO) and linking it to the desired objects or OUs within the AD DS structure. By linking GPOs to specific objects, administrators can easily manage policies across their network and ensure that all objects are configured correctly.

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The syntax of the IF function is =IF(logical_test,value_if_true,value_if_false). T/F

Answers

True.

The syntax of the IF function in Microsoft Excel (and other spreadsheet programs) is =IF(logical test ,value if true, value if_ False). The IF function is used to perform a logical test and return one value if the test is true and another value if the test is false. The logical test argument can be any logical expression that returns either true or false. The value if true argument is the value that the function returns if the logical test is true, while the value if false argument is the value that the function returns if the logical test is false. The IF function is a powerful tool for performing conditional calculations and making decisions based on data in a spreadsheet.

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a structure that stands alone, or that is separated from adjoining structures by firewalls, is defined as a(n) ? .

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A structure that stands alone or is separated from adjoining structures by firewalls is defined as a detached structure. Detached structures are typically single-family homes, sheds, garages, or other types of outbuildings that are not physically attached to a main structure.

These types of structures are often located on residential properties and may be used for a variety of purposes, including storage, recreational activities, or as a living space for guests or family members. Detached structures are commonly found in suburban and rural areas, where properties tend to be larger and more spread out. They are often constructed using similar materials and techniques as the main structure, but may have different design features or finishes to distinguish them from the primary building. In terms of building codes and regulations, detached structures are often subject to the same rules and requirements as main structures, but may also have specific guidelines related to their location, size, and use.A structure that stands alone or is separated from adjoining structures by firewalls is defined as a freestanding building. These buildings have independent structural systems and are designed to prevent the spread of fire to adjacent properties.

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What amount of work should the Scrum Team do to a selected Product Backlog item to complete the Sprint?

Answers

The amount of work that the Scrum Team should do to complete a selected Product Backlog item for the Sprint depends on several factors, including the complexity of the item, the skills and availability of the team members, and the Sprint Goal.

As a general rule, the team should aim to complete all of the work necessary to achieve the Sprint Goal and deliver a potentially shippable increment of the product.

To achieve this, the team should collaborate closely with the Product Owner to understand the requirements and refine the item until it is well-defined and ready for implementation. They should then break the item down into manageable tasks, estimate the effort required for each task, and assign them to individual team members based on their skills and availability.

During the Sprint, the team should work together to complete the tasks, with regular check-ins and reviews to ensure that they are on track and making progress towards the Sprint Goal. If the team encounters any obstacles or issues, they should collaborate to find solutions and adjust their plan accordingly.

Ultimately, the amount of work that the team does will depend on the specific circumstances of the Sprint, but by following the Scrum framework and principles, they can maximize their efficiency and deliver high-quality results.

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Which Scrum ceremony provides customer feedback on working software from the team?

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The scrum ceremony that provides customer feedback on working software from the team is Sprint review

What is a Scrum ceremony?

The Sprint Review is a Scrum ritual that allows customers to provide feedback on team-developed functioning product.

The team presents the iteration of the product that they have built throughout the sprint during the Sprint Review, which is held at the conclusion of each sprint. The team shows the functioning software to the stakeholders—including the client—during the review and solicits their comments.

This input enables the team to comprehend the customer's viewpoint, verify their presumptions, and make any necessary alterations or enhancements to the product prior to the following sprint.

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Match the USB connector types on the left with the image labels on the right.
1. USB 3.0 Type-A
2. USB 3.0 MIcro-B
3. USB 3.0 Type-B
4. USB 2.0 Type-A

Answers

Matching the USB connector types on the left with the image labels on the right:

USB 3.0 Type-A - Image Label: DUSB 3.0 Micro-B - Image Label: BUSB 3.0 Type-B - Image Label: CUSB 2.0 Type-A - Image Label: A

USB 3.0 Type-A: This connector type, labeled as D in the images, is the standard USB connector that is commonly used for connecting devices such as computers, laptops, and USB hubs. It is rectangular with a flat interface and is designed for USB 3.0 technology, which offers faster data transfer speeds compared to USB 2.0.

USB 3.0 Micro-B: This connector type, labeled as B in the images, is a smaller version of the USB 3.0 Type-B connector. It is commonly used for connecting portable devices such as smartphones, tablets, and external hard drives. It has a trapezoidal shape with a wider top and a narrower bottom, and it provides faster data transfer speeds and improved power delivery compared to its predecessor, USB 2.0 Micro-B.

USB 3.0 Type-B: This connector type, labeled as C in the images, is a square-shaped connector that is commonly used for connecting printers, scanners, and other peripherals to computers and laptops. It is designed for USB 3.0 technology and offers faster data transfer speeds and improved power delivery compared to USB 2.0 Type-B.

USB 2.0 Type-A: This connector type, labeled as A in the images, is the standard USB connector that has been widely used for various devices over the years. It is rectangular with a flat interface and is compatible with USB 2.0 technology. It is commonly used for connecting devices like keyboards, mice, flash drives, and many other USB peripherals.

Each USB connector type serves different purposes and has specific applications based on the devices and technologies they are designed for. The matching of the connector types with the image labels provides a visual representation of these different USB connectors.

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how to install the prier quarter-turn frost free anti-siphon outdoor hydrant with threaded connection

Answers

The installation process for the Prier quarter-turn frost free anti-siphon outdoor hydrant with threaded connection involves installing a mounting bracket, connecting the water supply line, and securing the hydrant in place. Always make sure to turn off the water supply and check for leaks before using the hydrant.

To install the Prier quarter-turn frost free anti-siphon outdoor hydrant with threaded connection, follow these steps:
1. Turn off the water supply to the area where the hydrant will be installed.
2. Determine the location for the hydrant and mark the spot where the mounting bracket will be installed.
3. Install the mounting bracket using screws and anchors suitable for the material of the wall.
4. Connect the water supply line to the threaded connection on the mounting bracket.
5. Install the hydrant onto the mounting bracket and secure it in place.
6. Turn on the water supply and check for leaks.
7. To use the hydrant, turn the quarter-turn handle to the open position.

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The following program should draw a circle on the screen
1 function start(){
2 var circle = new Circle(40);
3 circle.setPosition(getWidth() / 2, getHeight() / 2);
4 circle.setColor(Color.blue);
5 }
But when we run this code, we don't see the circle. What is missing from our start function?

Answers

To draw the circle on the screen, the start() function needs to include a command to actually draw the circle. This can be done by adding a command such as "add(circle);" to the function, which will add the circle object to the screen and display it.

In the given code snippet, you are trying to draw a circle on the screen using a start() function. The circle should have a radius of 40, be positioned at the center of the screen, and have a blue color. The code creates a circle object, sets its position and color, but it is missing one crucial step - adding the circle to the screen. To make the circle visible, you need to add it to the canvas using the add() function.

Here's the updated start() function with the missing step:

```
function start(){
 var circle = new Circle(40);
 circle.setPosition(getWidth() / 2, getHeight() / 2);
 circle.setColor(Color.blue);
 add(circle); // This line was missing
}
```

The reason the circle was not visible is that it was not added to the screen. By adding the line "add(circle);" to the start() function, the circle will be displayed on the screen as expected.

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Determine the moments of inertia of the Z-section about its centroidal xo- and yo-axes. -125 mm 20 mm yo 185 mm 20 mm 20 mm 125 mm Answers: Ixo i (106) mm4 %3D i (106) mm4

Answers

The moments of inertia of the Z-section about its centroidal xo- and yo-axes are given as -125 mm, 20 mm, yo, 185 mm, 20 mm, 20 mm, and 125 mm.

The moment of inertia measures an object's resistance to rotational motion around a particular axis. For the Z-section, we need to calculate the moments of inertia about its centroidal xo- and yo-axes.

To determine the moments of inertia, we need to consider the geometry and distribution of mass of the Z-section. The Z-section consists of two rectangular flanges connected by a central web. Each flange has dimensions 20 mm (thickness) and 125 mm (width), and the web has dimensions 20 mm (thickness) and 185 mm (height).

The formula for the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an axis parallel to its centroidal axis is given by:

I = (1/12) * b * h^3,

where I is the moment of inertia, b is the width of the section, and h is the height of the section.

For the Z-section, we have two flanges and a web. We can calculate the moments of inertia of each component and then sum them to obtain the total moment of inertia about the centroidal axes.

1. Moment of Inertia about the xo-axis:

The flanges contribute to the moment of inertia about the xo-axis.Using the formula, the moment of inertia of each flange is (1/12) * 125 * 20^3.Since there are two flanges, the total moment of inertia contributed by the flanges is 2 * (1/12) * 125 * 20^3.

2. Moment of Inertia about the yo-axis:

The flanges and the web contribute to the moment of inertia about the yo-axis.The moment of inertia of each flange about the yo-axis is (1/12) * 20 * 125^3.The moment of inertia of the web about the yo-axis is (1/12) * 185 * 20^3.The total moment of inertia contributed by the flanges and the web is 2 * (1/12) * 20 * 125^3 + (1/12) * 185 * 20^3.

By calculating the above expressions, we can find the moments of inertia of the Z-section about its centroidal xo- and yo-axes.

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from symmetry, what must be the shape of the magnetic field in this toroid?

Answers

The magnetic field in a toroid must have cylindrical symmetry.

This is because the current flows around the toroid's circumference, creating a magnetic field that wraps around the toroid's center. Due to the symmetry, the magnetic field lines are concentric circles that are perpendicular to the toroid's axis. The magnitude of the magnetic field at any point inside the toroid is proportional to the current flowing through the toroid and inversely proportional to the distance from the toroid's center.

In conclusion, the shape of the magnetic field in a toroid is determined by its symmetry and the direction of the current flow. The magnetic field lines form concentric circles that are perpendicular to the toroid's axis, and the magnitude of the magnetic field is dependent on the current and the distance from the toroid's center.

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What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
A. Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.
B. Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.
C. After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

Answers

When the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL, the correct procedure is to immediately notify ATC (Air Traffic Control) and request an altitude below 24,000 feet. So the correct answer is A. Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.

This is because DME is required above this altitude for navigation and separation purposes. Continuing in VFR (Visual Flight Rules) conditions and reporting the malfunction is not sufficient because DME is a crucial instrument for instrument flight. After notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made. In conclusion, safety is the top priority in aviation, and following proper procedures during equipment malfunctions is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone onboard.

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Other people than the Scrum Team can attend the Sprint Planning in order to provide _____________.

Answers

Sprint Planning is an important ceremony in Scrum methodology where the team plans for the upcoming sprint. Other people than the Scrum Team can attend the Sprint Planning in order to provide their inputs or expertise.

During Sprint Planning, the Scrum Team discusses and decides on the work items to be accomplished during the upcoming sprint. However, there may be instances when other people outside of the Scrum Team can attend this ceremony. Other people than the Scrum Team can attend the Sprint Planning in order to provide their inputs or expertise. These people could be stakeholders, subject matter experts, or managers who can provide valuable insights that can help the team in their planning. However, it's important to note that only the Scrum Team has the authority to decide on what work items to include in the Sprint Backlog. Sprint Planning is a collaborative effort where the Scrum Team can benefit from the inputs of other people outside of the team. As long as these inputs are aligned with the overall goals of the Sprint and do not disrupt the autonomy of the Scrum Team, attending Sprint Planning can be a beneficial practice.

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If an inspector determines that one or more aspects of a process deviate outside acceptable limits, when must an adjustment be made?

Answers

When an inspector determines that one or more aspects of a process deviate outside acceptable limits, it is important to address the issue as soon as possible. Making an adjustment to the process depends on various factors, including the severity and potential consequences of the deviation, the type of process, and the availability of resources.

In some cases, an adjustment may need to be made immediately to prevent further deviations from occurring. For example, if a safety limit has been breached, an adjustment would need to be made immediately to avoid any potential harm to employees or customers.In other cases, adjustments may not be needed immediately but should still be made in a timely manner. This could include situations where a deviation is identified but is not immediately impacting the quality of the product or service being produced. In these cases, an adjustment can be scheduled for a later time but should not be delayed for too long, as prolonged deviations can negatively impact the overall quality of the process. Ultimately, the timing of the adjustment should be determined based on a risk assessment and an analysis of the potential consequences of not making the adjustment. It is important to address deviations outside of acceptable limits promptly to ensure that the process can continue to produce quality products or services.

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Who can remove and replace Sprint Backlog items during the Sprint?​

Answers

During the Sprint, the Product Owner is responsible for managing the Sprint Backlog and has the authority to add, remove, or change items in the Sprint Backlog. However, the team should be involved in any changes made to the Sprint Backlog and should be consulted by the Product Owner before any changes are made.

The Product Owner should only remove or add items to the Sprint Backlog if it is absolutely necessary to meet the Sprint Goal. The Product Owner should communicate any changes made to the Sprint Backlog to the team and ensure that everyone is aware of the changes and how they affect the Sprint.If the team finds that an item in the Sprint Backlog cannot be completed during the Sprint, they should bring this to the attention of the Product Owner as soon as possible. The Product Owner can then decide whether to remove the item from the Sprint Backlog or extend the Sprint to allow for the completion of the item.It is important that any changes made to the Sprint Backlog are transparent to everyone involved in the Sprint. This helps to ensure that everyone is aware of what is happening and why, and can help to prevent any misunderstandings or conflicts.In summary, the Product Owner has the authority to remove and replace Sprint Backlog items during the Sprint, but should involve the team in any changes made to the Sprint Backlog. The team should communicate any issues with the Sprint Backlog to the Product Owner as soon as possible to ensure that any necessary changes can be made.
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Please help as soon as possible

Answers

A gauge on the recirculating pump header in an over-feed system is an accurate representation of actual pump pressure. This is False.

How to explain the information

A gauge on the recirculating pump header in an over-feed system is not an accurate representation of the actual pump pressure, as the pressure drop across the orifice plate in the feeder line will cause a pressure loss between the pump discharge and the gauge location.

Therefore, the gauge reading will be lower than the actual pump pressure. To obtain an accurate measurement of the pump pressure, the gauge should be installed directly on the pump discharge.

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describe the structural changes that take place when a plain carbon eutectoid steel is slowly cooled from the austenite region to room temperature.

Answers

The structural changes that take place when a plain carbon eutectoid steel is slowly cooled from the austenite region to room temperature include the formation of pearlite and carbide precipitation.

What happens when a plain carbon eutectoid steel is cooled ?

During the gradual cooling phase, the austenite phase undergoes a pivotal metamorphosis known as eutectoid transformation. This remarkable transformation engenders two distinct phases - ferrite and cementite - through the progressive decomposition of austenite.

Simultaneously, the slow cooling process permits the precipitation of excess carbon present within the steel. This surplus carbon, owing to its inability to be fully consumed during the transformation, manifests as minute cementite particles dispersed throughout the microstructure.

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two technicians are discussing toyota and lexus hybrids. technician a says toyota and lexus hybrids use a power-splitting device that could be considered a type of cvt. technician b says these types of hybrids use voltages from 200 to 650 volts, depending on the application. who is correct?

Answers

From the description given, Technician A is correct

How to determiene the statement

Toyota and Lexus hybrids feature a power-splitting system, a sort of continuously variable gearbox (CVT), as stated by technician A.

In the hybrid system, this power-splitting component enables seamless power distribution between the engine, electric motor, and generator.

The voltage range mentioned by Technician B about the Toyota and Lexus hybrids is likewise accurate.

Depending on the particular hybrid model and its use, these hybrids often run at voltages between 200 and 650 volts. The high-voltage system offers effective power supply and permits the integration of different hybrid system components.

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if the rvr is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 rvr?

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f the RVR (Runway Visual Range) is not reported, meteorological value that can be substituted for 2400 RVR is the Prevailing Visibility.

The Prevailing Visibility refers to the greatest horizontal visibility measured throughout at least half of the horizon circle, excluding obscuring phenomena such as fog or precipitation. When RVR is not available, Prevailing Visibility is often used as a substitute to provide information about the overall visibility conditions at an airport.

However, it is important to note that RVR provides more specific information about runway visibility, particularly in low-visibility conditions, whereas Prevailing Visibility gives a broader picture of visibility across the airport.

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T/F: in a two-dimensional array, both dimensions must have the same number of elements, as in[10][10].

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False.

In a two-dimensional array, both dimensions do not necessarily have to have the same number of elements. For example, a 2D array could be declared as [3][4], indicating that there are three rows and four columns. This means that there are three arrays, each of which has four elements. It is possible to create a 2D array with different numbers of elements in each row, although this is less common. The important thing to remember is that when accessing elements in a 2D array, you need to specify both the row and column indices.

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a section of highway has a speed-flow relationship of the form: it is known that at capacity (which is 3100 veh/h) the space-mean speed of traffic is 28 mi/h. determine the speed when the flow is 1500 veh/h and the free-flow speed

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In fluid dynamics, the speed-flow relation describes the relationship between the velocity of a fluid flow and the volume of fluid that flows per unit of time.

The speed-flow relation can vary depending on the specific conditions of the fluid flow, such as the viscosity of the fluid, the size and shape of the channel through which the fluid flows, and the presence of any obstacles or irregularities in the flow path. Generally, the higher the velocity of the fluid flow, the greater the volume of fluid that flows per unit of time.

To answer your question, we can use the speed-flow relationship given in the problem. When the capacity of the highway is reached (at 3100 veh/h), the space-mean speed of traffic is 28 mi/h. This means that as the flow increases beyond 3100 veh/h, the speed of traffic will decrease.

To find the speed when the flow is 1500 veh/h, we can use a formula derived from the speed-flow relationship:

Speed = free-flow speed * (1 - (flow/capacity)^4)

We know that the capacity is 3100 veh/h, so we can plug in the values for flow and capacity:

Speed = free-flow speed * (1 - (1500/3100)^4)

Simplifying this equation, we get:

Speed = free-flow speed * (1 - 0.183)

Speed = free-flow speed * 0.817

We are given that the space-mean speed at capacity is 28 mi/h, so we can plug this in to solve for the free-flow speed:

28 = free-flow speed * 0.817

Free-flow speed = 34.2 mi/h

Therefore, when the flow is 1500 veh/h, the speed of traffic on the highway is approximately 22.5 mi/h.

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Anand's age after 25 years will be twice his age 5 years back. Find the present age of Anand ?

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Let's assume Anand's present age is "x".

According to the problem statement, Anand's age after 25 years will be "x + 25".

And, Anand's age 5 years back will be "x - 5".

So, as per the given condition,

x + 25 = 2(x - 5)

x + 25 = 2x - 10

x - 2x = -10 - 25

-x = -35

x = 35

Therefore, Anand's present age is 35.

When should an organization's managers have an opportunity to respond to the findings in an audit? A. Managers should write a report after receiving the final audit report. B. Managers should include their responses to the draft audit report in the final audit report. C. Managers should not have an opportunity to respond to audit findings. D. Managers should write a letter to the Board following receipt of the audit report.

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Managers should have an opportunity to respond to the findings in an audit before the final audit report is issued. This is typically done by including their responses to the draft audit report in the final audit report. This allows managers to address any inaccuracies or misunderstandings in the audit findings and provide additional information that may be relevant to the audit.

Furthermore, it is important for managers to have an opportunity to respond to the findings in order to promote transparency and accountability within the organization. By allowing managers to provide their perspectives on the audit findings, it helps to ensure that the final audit report accurately reflects the organization's operations and performance.

In some cases, managers may also write a letter to the Board following receipt of the audit report. However, this is typically done in addition to providing responses to the draft audit report.

Overall, it is important for organizations to have a structured process in place for managers to respond to audit findings in a timely and effective manner.

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