​The two major items tested in integration test are the interfaces and the expected results.T/F

Answers

Answer 1

The statement that the only items tested in integration testing are interfaces and expected results is not valid. Integration testing covers a broader range of testing criteria to ensure the seamless integration and functioning of different system components.

Are the only items tested in integration testing the interfaces and the expected results?

False.

The statement is not entirely accurate. While interfaces and expected results are important components of integration testing, they are not the only items tested.

In integration testing, the primary focus is on testing the interactions between different components or modules of a system.

This includes testing the integration of individual units, subsystems, or external systems to ensure they work together correctly.

Integration testing aims to identify defects or issues that may arise due to the interactions between these components.

It involves testing how data flows between modules, how different modules collaborate, and how they handle inputs and outputs.

While testing interfaces (how components communicate with each other) and expected results (whether the desired outcomes are achieved) are certainly crucial aspects of integration testing, other aspects are also considered.

This includes testing boundary conditions, error handling, exception handling, performance, security, and other relevant factors depending on the nature of the system being tested.

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Related Questions

historically, a manual file system was composed of a system of file folders and filing cabinets. True or False

Answers

True. Historically, a manual file system was composed of a system of file folders and filing cabinets. This system relied on physical documents and paper files that were organized and stored in filing cabinets.

The manual file system was a common method used by businesses and organizations for decades before the introduction of digital systems. In a manual file system, each document was assigned a file folder and stored in a designated location within a filing cabinet. The filing cabinets were often arranged alphabetically or numerically to make it easier to locate specific files. However, manual file systems can be time-consuming and require a lot of physical storage space. With the advancements in technology, many businesses have now shifted to digital file systems, which allow for easier access, organization, and storage of documents. Despite this shift, manual file systems still play a role in many industries and are used by some organizations to this day.

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currently james's company is using radius for aaa services to connect wireless users to the windows active directory domain. however, the company wants to upgrade to a cisco-based wireless network and would like to upgrade the older radius. which option would james recommend as an upgrade to raduis?

Answers

There are a few options that James can recommend for upgrading the older radius system. The first option is to upgrade to Cisco's Identity Services Engine (ISE), which is a comprehensive solution that provides centralized access control for all network devices, including wireless access points.

ISE also provides advanced features such as identity-based access policies, endpoint profiling, and guest access management.Another option is to use Cisco's Access Control Server (ACS), which is a centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) system that provides granular control over network access. ACS can be used with a variety of network devices, including wireless access points, and can integrate with Active Directory to provide user authentication.Lastly, James can recommend using Cisco's Secure Access Control System (ACS), which is a scalable, high-performance AAA system that provides centralized authentication and authorization for network devices, including wireless access points. ACS supports a variety of authentication protocols, including RADIUS, TACACS+, and LDAP, and can integrate with Active Directory to provide user authentication.Overall, the choice of which option to use will depend on the specific needs and requirements of James's company. Each option has its own unique features and benefits, and James should carefully evaluate each one to determine which one is the best fit for his company's needs.

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what command-line tool is installed when you install the windows server backup feature?

Answers

The command-line tool installed when you install the Windows Server Backup feature is WBADMIN.


WBADMIN is a command-line tool that allows for scheduling and performing backups and restores for Windows Server Backup. It can be used to create system state backups, backup individual files and folders, and perform full server backups. WBADMIN also allows for automation of backup tasks through scripting.

The wbadmin tool is used to manage and configure Windows Server Backup operations from the command line. This tool allows you to create backups, restore backups, and manage other aspects of the Windows Server Backup feature without using the graphical user interface.

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if the vlan tag is present in an ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?

Answers

If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, the maximum frame size is 1522 bytes.

Ethernet frames typically have a maximum size of 1518 bytes (not including the preamble and start frame delimiter). However, if a VLAN tag is present, an additional 4 bytes are added to the frame for the tag. Therefore, the maximum frame size becomes 1522 bytes. This is because the maximum Ethernet frame size of 1518 bytes was defined before the introduction of VLAN tagging, which adds additional information to the frame. The 4-byte VLAN tag includes a 2-byte tag protocol identifier (TPID) and a 2-byte tag control information (TCI) field.

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Which keywords are used to complete the deletion of a column previously
marked with SET UNUSED?
1. DELETE UNUSED COLUMNS
2. DROP UNUSED COLUMNS
3. UNSET UNUSED COLUMNS
4. DROP SET COLUMNS

Answers

To complete the deletion of a column previously marked with SET UNUSED, you should use the following keywords: DROP UNUSED COLUMNS. Option 2 is correct.

This statement is used to permanently remove columns that have been marked as unused, indicating that they are no longer needed in the database. The "DROP" command is commonly used to eliminate database objects, such as columns, tables, or views, from the database schema.

By specifying "UNUSED COLUMNS," it specifically targets and deletes the columns that have been marked as unused using the "SET UNUSED" command. This process helps to optimize the database structure by removing unnecessary columns and reducing storage requirements, thus improving overall performance.

Option 2 holds true.

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what protocol is used by the ping utility to send echo request and echo reply packets?

Answers

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) packets

what is the primary advantage and disadvantage of using the element vs. ?

Answers

The primary advantage of using an element depends on its unique properties and suitability for a specific application, while the primary disadvantage arises from potential limitations or hazards associated with the element's properties or availability. The choice of the appropriate element requires careful consideration of these factors and the overall goals of a particular project.

The primary advantage of using an element in a given context depends on its properties and applications. An element is a pure substance made up of only one type of atom, and its characteristics are determined by the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons it contains. The unique properties of each element make them suitable for specific uses and applications, which can provide advantages in those particular situations.
For example, the primary advantage of using copper as an element in electrical wiring is its high electrical conductivity, which allows for efficient transmission of electric current. Similarly, using carbon as an element in the form of graphite has a primary advantage as a lubricant due to its low friction properties.
However, the primary disadvantage of using a specific element is that its properties may not be suitable for every application or context. Elements can also be reactive, toxic, or scarce, which can lead to limitations in their availability or the need for specialized handling and disposal procedures. These disadvantages may outweigh the advantages for certain applications, making alternative materials or processes more desirable.

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Which of the following is true about 64-bit drivers that run in kernel mode on Windows 10?
a.have limited access to the computer
b.can run in 32-bit Windows versions
c.must be digitally signed by Microsoft
d.can be used to control printers

Answers

The following statement is true about 64-bit drivers that run in kernel mode on Windows 10:c. must be digitally signed by Microsoft

Starting with Windows Vista, all 64-bit drivers that run in kernel mode on Windows must be digitally signed by Microsoft to ensure that they have not been altered or corrupted since they were created by the vendor. This is known as driver signature enforcement.Driver signature enforcement helps improve the security and stability of the operating system by preventing the installation of unsigned or improperly signed drivers that may be malicious or cause system crashes. It also ensures that all device drivers that run in kernel mode have been tested and certified to work with Windows, which can help reduce compatibility issues.In summary, 64-bit drivers that run in kernel mode on Windows 10 must be digitally signed by Microsoft to ensure their authenticity and improve the security and stability of the operating system.

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A(n) ________ indicates a problem that occurs while a program executes.
a. syntax error
b. omitted import
c. missing semicolon
d. exception

Answers

The correct answer to the question is d. exception. An exception is a problem that occurs while a program executes, indicating an unexpected or erroneous situation that prevents the program from continuing to run normally.

Exceptions can be caused by a wide range of issues, including invalid user input, hardware malfunctions, network errors, and coding errors, among others. When an exception occurs, the program will typically stop running and display an error message that provides information about the type of exception that occurred and its location in the code. Developers can use this information to diagnose and fix the underlying problem, allowing the program to continue running without errors. Exceptions are an important concept in computer programming because they allow programs to handle unexpected situations in a controlled and predictable manner, improving their reliability and robustness. In summary, an exception indicates a problem that occurs while a program executes and is an important tool for error handling in programming.

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Which of the following is a TRUE statement when considering using databases instead of lists?
-Data can be easily shared among users. -Data-entry errors can be minimized with databases. -Data integrity can be ensured with a database. -all of the above

Answers

The statement "all of the above" is true when considering using databases instead of lists. Databases offer the ability to easily share data among users, minimize data-entry errors through the use of data validation and constraints, and ensure data integrity through features such as referential integrity and transaction management.

Firstly, databases provide a central location for storing and managing data, which can be accessed and shared by multiple users simultaneously. This makes it easy to share data and collaborate on projects.

Secondly, databases can minimize data-entry errors by providing data validation and constraints, such as required fields and data types. This helps to ensure that only accurate and consistent data is entered into the system.

Finally, databases can ensure data integrity by using features such as referential integrity and transaction management. Referential integrity ensures that all relationships between data are maintained and consistent, while transaction management ensures that all database transactions are completed successfully or rolled back in case of errors.

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attributes of an entity-relationship data model are best used to describe __________.

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Attributes of an entity-relationship data model are best used to describe the properties or characteristics of entities and the relationships between them within a database. The entity-relationship data model is a conceptual tool that simplifies the process of designing and understanding complex database systems.

It allows for the representation of real-world objects and the connections between them, which are essential for organizing and managing data effectively. Entities are the primary components in this model, representing objects or concepts in the real world. Examples of entities can include people, products, or organizations. Attributes, on the other hand, describe the specific details or characteristics of these entities. For instance, attributes of a person entity could include their name, age, and address.

Relationships in the entity-relationship data model depict the associations between different entities. These connections help illustrate how entities interact with each other and share information. For example, a relationship could exist between a customer entity and a product entity, indicating that the customer has purchased the product.

Overall, the attributes of an entity-relationship data model are essential in describing and defining the structure of a database system, facilitating a clear understanding of its components and the associations between them. By employing this model, database designers can effectively organize and manage data, making it easier to retrieve and manipulate information when needed.

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what are two wan connection enhancements that are achieved by implementing pppoe? (choose two.)

Answers

PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a network protocol that is commonly used for connecting to the Internet Service Provider (ISP) over a broadband connection. There are several WAN connection enhancements that are achieved by implementing PPPoE. Here are two of them:

1. Authentication and Security: One of the main benefits of using PPPoE is that it provides a secure connection between the client and the ISP. PPPoE allows for user authentication, which means that each client must provide their unique username and password before they can connect to the Internet. This ensures that only authorized users can access the network and prevents unauthorized access to sensitive data. Additionally, PPPoE supports encryption, which helps to protect the privacy of data being transmitted over the network. 2. Dynamic IP Address Assignment: Another advantage of using PPPoE is that it allows for dynamic IP address assignment. With PPPoE, the ISP can assign a different IP address to each client each time they connect to the network. This means that the client does not have a fixed IP address, which can improve network security by making it harder for attackers to target specific devices. Additionally, dynamic IP address assignment can help to conserve IP address space, since the ISP can reuse IP addresses that are no longer in use. In conclusion, PPPoE is an effective way to enhance WAN connections, providing authentication, security, and dynamic IP address assignment benefits.

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what part of the url, , represents the top-level dns domain?

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The top-level DNS domain is represented by the last part of the URL, known as the top-level domain (TLD). The TLD is the portion of the domain name that comes after the final dot, such as ".com", ".org", ".net", or ".edu". These TLDs are managed by the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), which oversees the global DNS system.

The top-level DNS domain serves as an identifier for a particular website or web resource on the internet. It helps users to locate and access the desired content by providing a standardized naming system for websites. For example, if a user wants to access a particular website, they can type in the URL with the TLD at the end, such as "www.example.com". The DNS system will then translate this URL into an IP address, allowing the user's device to connect to the web server hosting the website. Overall, the top-level DNS domain is a critical component of the internet infrastructure, enabling users to access the vast array of resources available on the web.

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retro viruses counter the ability of antivirus programs to detect changes in infected files. true or false?

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False. Retroviruses do not counter the ability of antivirus programs to detect changes in infected files.

Antivirus programs use various techniques to detect malware, including retroviruses. Retroviruses are a type of virus that inserts its genetic material into the DNA of the host cell and uses the cell's machinery to replicate itself. They are more challenging to detect than other types of viruses, but antivirus programs have evolved to detect and remove retroviruses. Antivirus programs use signatures, behavioral analysis, heuristics, and other methods to identify malware, including retroviruses. Signatures are unique patterns in the code of the malware that the antivirus program recognizes as a threat. Behavioral analysis looks for suspicious behavior, such as changes to the registry or network connections. Heuristics identify malware based on its behavior, even if it does not match a known signature. In summary, retroviruses do not counter the ability of antivirus programs to detect changes in infected files, as antivirus programs use various techniques to detect malware, including retroviruses.

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You want to create a Service Level Agreement policy to ensure that all tickets submitted by members of Organization 1 with urgent priority get a first reply within 45 minutes.
Which set of conditions should be selected in the Meet All section when building this new policy?

Answers

When building a Service Level Agreement (SLA) policy, you can use the following set of conditions in the "Meet All" section of the policy:

Ticket: Organization is Organization 1Ticket: Priority is Urgent

What are the conditions?

To create an SLA policy for Organization 1 tickets with urgent priority, use these conditions: Organization 1 member and urgent priority.

Therefore,  Use both conditions in "Meet All" to apply policy to tickets by Org 1 with urgent priority.

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If a system is down at the time a recurring regularly scheduled task is supposed to run, which task scheduling service will run the task when the system is back up again?

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If a system is down at the time a recurring regularly scheduled task is supposed to run, the task scheduling service that will run the task when the system is back up again depends on the specific scheduling service being used.

However, in most cases, the scheduling service will automatically reschedule the task to run at the next available time slot. Most modern task scheduling services have built-in mechanisms to handle missed or failed tasks. These mechanisms allow the service to reschedule the task for the next available time slot, ensuring that the task is completed as soon as possible. Some scheduling services also have options for specifying how many times a task should be retried before it is marked as failed. Overall, it is important to choose a reliable and robust scheduling service that can handle unexpected system downtime and ensure that all scheduled tasks are completed on time. Additionally, it is recommended to regularly check the status of recurring scheduled tasks to ensure that they are running as expected and make any necessary adjustments to the scheduling settings if needed.

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which attribute enhances usability in modern browsers?

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There are several attributes that can enhance usability in modern browsers, depending on the context and specific needs. Some examples include:

"placeholder" attribute: This attribute allows you to provide a hint or example text inside an input field, which disappears when the user starts typing. It can help users understand what type of information is expected in the field and reduce errors.

"autocomplete" attribute: This attribute provides suggestions for input based on the user's past entries, helping to save time and reduce typing errors.

"required" attribute: This attribute requires the user to fill in a specific field before submitting a form, reducing errors and incomplete submissions.

"tabindex" attribute: This attribute allows you to specify the order in which the user moves through interactive elements on a page using the "tab" key, making navigation more intuitive.

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The J-K flip-flop has the features of all the other types of flip-flops.
True
False

Answers

The J-K flip-flop is a type of sequential logic circuit that is commonly used in digital electronics. It has some unique features that make it different from other types of flip-flops such as the D, T, and S-R flip-flops.

The J-K flip-flop can be used as a binary memory device that can store a single bit of information. It has two inputs, J and K, which can be used to set or reset the flip-flop, respectively. When both inputs are high, the J-K flip-flop toggles, which means it changes its output state from low to high or vice versa.
In conclusion, the statement "The J-K flip-flop has the features of all the other types of flip-flops" is false. While the J-K flip-flop has some similarities to other flip-flops, it has its own unique features that set it apart from the others.

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If an array is partially initialized, the uninitialized elements will contain "garbage." T/F

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It is true that When an array is partially initialized, the uninitialized elements will contain whatever data happens to be stored in that memory location. This data is often referred to as "garbage" because it can be random or unpredictable.

The reason for this is that when an array is created, a contiguous block of memory is reserved to store the elements of the array. If only some of the elements are initialized, the remaining memory locations will still contain whatever data was previously stored there, which could be leftover data from other programs or processes.

To avoid these issues, it's important to fully initialize all elements of an array before using them. This can be done by assigning a value to each element individually, or by using a loop to initialize all elements at once.

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what type of backup solution is a point-in-time, read-only copy of data?

Answers

This type of backup solution is commonly known as a snapshot A point-in-time, read-only copy of data is a type of backup solution that creates a copy of data at a specific moment in time and makes it available for read-only access.

Snapshots are typically taken by backup software or storage systems, and they capture the state of a file, database, or virtual machine at a specific point in time.

Once the snapshot is taken, it can be used for a variety of purposes, including disaster recovery, testing, and data analysis.

One of the key benefits of using a snapshot-based backup solution is that it allows users to restore data to a specific point in time, which can be crucial in the event of a data loss or corruption.

In addition, because the snapshot is read-only, it provides an extra layer of protection against accidental modifications or deletions.

Another advantage of snapshot-based backups is that they are typically much faster and more efficient than traditional backups.

Because only the changes made since the last snapshot need to be backed up, snapshot backups can be completed in a fraction of the time required for a full backup.

However, it is important to note that snapshot-based backups are not a replacement for traditional backups.

While snapshots can be useful for restoring data to a specific point in time, they do not provide a complete backup solution, and it is still important to regularly perform full backups to ensure that all data is protected.

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what is the relationship between advances in information technology and the practice of profiling?

Answers

Advances in information technology have significantly impacted the practice of profiling by enabling the collection, storage, and analysis of vast amounts of data about individuals and groups.

Profiling involves using data and algorithms to identify patterns of behavior or characteristics that are associated with certain groups or individuals, such as criminals, customers, or employees. Information technology has greatly expanded the scope and depth of profiling by allowing for the automated processing and integration of multiple sources of data, such as social media, financial transactions, medical records, and surveillance footage.

At the same time, advances in information technology have raised concerns about the ethics and legality of profiling, particularly when it involves sensitive data or biases in the algorithms or data sets. Critics argue that profiling can lead to unfair or discriminatory treatment of individuals or groups, especially if the data or algorithms are biased or inaccurate. Therefore, it is important to balance the potential benefits of profiling with the need to protect individual privacy and prevent unfair discrimination, and to ensure that profiling is conducted in a transparent and accountable manner.

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You have been assigned to manage a small branch office as shown in the network diagram. You have connected all devices. You now need to configure the hostname and interface descriptions on the Cisco switch. Complete the following tasks:
Set the hostname on the switch to the name indicated in the diagram (Branch1).
Configure the following interface descriptions:
Device Interface Description text
Branch1 FastEthernet0/1 Wrk1
FastEthernet0/2 Wrk2
FastEthernet0/3 Wrk3
FastEthernet0/24 Default gateway
Save your changes to the startup-config file.

Answers

To configure the hostname and interface descriptions on the Cisco switch, follow these steps:

Connect to the switch using a console cable and a terminal emulation program.Enter privileged EXEC mode by typing "enable" and providing the appropriate password if prompted.Set the hostname of the switch by typing "configure terminal" and then "hostname Branch1".Configure the interface descriptions by entering interface configuration mode for each interface. For example, to configure FastEthernet0/1, type "interface FastEthernet0/1" and then "description Wrk1". Repeat this step for FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/24 with their respective descriptions.Save your changes to the startup-config file by typing "copy running-config startup-config". Confirm the overwrite prompt if it appears.By following these steps, you will set the hostname of the switch to Branch1 and configure the interface descriptions as indicated in the diagram. Saving the changes to the startup-config file ensures that the configuration is retained even after a reboot of the switch.

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At what level of the DNS hierarchy are actual hosts, apart from the root servers?
a) At the first-level domain
b) At the second-level domain
c) At the second-level server
d) At the first-level server

Answers

Actual hosts, apart from the root servers, are located at the second-level domain in the DNS hierarchy.

Explanation:

The DNS hierarchy is a distributed system that is used to translate human-readable domain names into IP addresses that can be used by computers to communicate with each other on the internet. The DNS hierarchy consists of several levels, with the root servers at the top and the actual hosts at the bottom.

The first level of the DNS hierarchy is the top-level domain (TLD), which includes domains such as .com, .org, and .net. The second level of the DNS hierarchy is the second-level domain, which is the level below the TLD. Actual hosts, such as websites, email servers, and other network resources, are located at the second-level domain.

For example, in the domain name "www.example.com," "com" is the TLD, "example" is the second-level domain, and "www" is the host or subdomain. The second-level domain is managed by domain registrars and can be purchased by individuals or organizations to create a unique online identity.

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a virtual machine can't share the use of a network adapter with the host.
T/F

Answers

The statement is false. A virtual machine can share the use of a network adapter with the host.

Explanation: In most virtualization software, a virtual machine can share the use of a network adapter with the host. This allows the virtual machine to access the internet and communicate with other devices on the network, just like the host machine. However, there are some considerations to keep in mind.

First, the host machine's network connection may be slower or more limited when it is being shared with a virtual machine.

Second, the virtual machine may require additional configuration to access the network, such as assigning it a unique IP address or configuring port forwarding. Despite these considerations, it is possible for a virtual machine to share the use of a network adapter with the host.

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when you purchase a new computer, you can opt to establish an administrator account. T/F

Answers

When you purchase a new computer, you can opt to establish an administrator account. So the answer to your question is True.

When setting up a new computer, you will typically be prompted to create an account with administrative privileges. This account will have full control over the computer and its settings, including the ability to install software, change system settings, and modify user accounts. While it is possible to use a non-administrator account for day-to-day tasks, having an administrator account is necessary for performing certain system-level functions. However, it is important to use caution when using an administrator account, as the elevated privileges can also make the system more vulnerable to security threats. It is recommended to only use the administrator account when necessary and to use a standard user account for regular use. Additionally, it is important to protect the administrator account with a strong password to prevent unauthorized access.

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the text indicates that all of the following are metrics in the valid metrics framework except:
a. engagement
b. impact
c. influence
d. satisfaction
e. advocacy

Answers

The text indicates that all of the following are metrics in the valid metrics framework except: **influence**.

The Valid Metrics Framework (VMF) is a set of standardized metrics designed to help public relations professionals measure the effectiveness of their campaigns and activities. The framework includes six key metrics: exposure, engagement, influence, impact, sentiment, and advocacy. Exposure refers to the amount of media coverage generated by a campaign, while engagement measures the level of audience interaction and participation. Impact measures the tangible outcomes of a campaign, such as sales or donations, while sentiment measures the tone and attitude of media coverage. Advocacy measures the level of support or endorsement generated by a campaign. While influence is a commonly used metric in public relations, it is not included in the VMF. Instead, the framework focuses on metrics that can be objectively measured and linked to specific business outcomes.

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which type of port is not likely to be seen on newer notebook computers?

Answers

The type of port that is not likely to be seen on newer notebook computers is a VGA port.

This is because newer notebook computers often come with HDMI or DisplayPort connections, which provide better video quality and higher resolutions than VGA. Additionally, VGA technology is considered outdated and is being phased out in favor of newer technologies.

While some newer laptops may still come with VGA ports, it is becoming less common as manufacturers shift their focus to more advanced video connection options. In summary, the long answer is that VGA ports are not likely to be seen on newer notebook computers due to the availability of better alternatives and the trend towards more advanced technologies.

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when you resolve a m:m by creating an intersection entity, this new entity will always inherit:

Answers

When you resolve a many-to-many (m:m) relationship by creating an intersection entity, this new entity will always inherit the primary keys of the entities that it connects. Essentially, the intersection entity acts as a bridge between the two original entities and contains foreign keys from both entities. This allows for the creation of a unique relationship between them.

For example, let's say we have two entities: Customers and Products. Customers can purchase multiple products, and each product can be purchased by multiple customers. This is a classic m:m relationship. To resolve this, we would create an intersection entity called Orders.

Orders would contain two foreign keys: one from Customers and one from Products. These foreign keys would reference the primary keys of the respective entities, allowing us to create a unique relationship between each customer and the products they purchase. In summary, when you create an intersection entity to resolve an m:m relationship, it will always inherit the primary keys of the original entities. This allows for the creation of a unique relationship between the two entities and enables proper data modeling.

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what identifies the functions each user is allowed to perform and specifies which data and programs the user can access after obtaining access to an information system?

Answers

The process of identifying the functions each user is allowed to perform and specifying which data and programs the user can access after obtaining access to an information system is known as access control.

Access control is a critical aspect of information security and helps prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, and cyber attacks. Access control is implemented using a combination of hardware, software, and policies. The hardware and software components of access control systems include firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and user authentication mechanisms such as passwords, biometrics, and smart cards. Policies and procedures are also essential components of access control systems and define the rules and guidelines for granting access to users and managing access rights.

In addition to access control, other security measures such as encryption, backups, and disaster recovery plans also play an important role in protecting information systems and data. Ultimately, a robust and effective information security strategy requires a holistic approach that includes access control, data protection, threat prevention, and incident response. By implementing these measures, organizations can minimize the risk of security breaches and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their information.

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Each entry in a discretionary access control list (DACL) is called a(n):
1. access control entry (ACE).
2. user account control (UAC).
3. dynamic access control (DAC).
4. key distribution center (KDC).

Answers

Each entry in a discretionary access control list (DACL) is called an "access control entry (ACE)".A discretionary access control list (DACL) is a security mechanism used in operating systems to control access to resources, such as files, folders, or registry keys.

The DACL contains a list of access control entries (ACEs), each of which specifies a security principal and the type of access that is allowed or denied. A security principal can be a user, group, or process, and the type of access can be read, write, execute, or other permissions. The DACL is used to determine whether a security principal has permission to access a particular resource. The User Account Control (UAC) is a mechanism used in Windows operating systems to control user privileges, while Dynamic Access Control (DAC) is a feature in Windows Server that allows administrators to create centralized access policies based on user attributes. Key Distribution Center (KDC) is a component of the Kerberos protocol that is used to authenticate users in a network

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