the yeast saccharomyces cerevisiae can grow as haploid or diploid cells. you have two haploid yeast strains that each carry recessive mutations that affect regulation of the genes required for galactose metabolism. one strain has a deletion of the region of the genome on chromosome ii that lies between the gal1 and gal10 genes (deltauas). the other strain carries a mutant allele of the gal7 gene that produces no functional gal7 protein and thus cannot metabolize galactose. the gal7 gene is also located on chromosome ii, 4 cm away from the gal1/gal10 uas sequences. you cross this gal7- mutant strain to the deltauas strain to get diploid progeny. for your own reference, write down the diploid genotype. expression of the gal1 and gal10 genes in these diploid progeny will be

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Answer 1

The diploid genotype of the progeny resulting from the cross between the gal7- mutant strain and the deltauas strain can be written as follows:

Gal7- / Gal7- deltauas / deltauas

This means that the diploid cells will carry two copies of chromosome ii, one from each parent. Each chromosome ii will have a mutation affecting galactose metabolism: one will have a deletion of the uas region between gal1 and gal10 genes, and the other will have a mutant allele of the gal7 gene that produces no functional protein.

Since the gal1 and gal10 genes are regulated by the uas sequences, the deletion of these sequences in one chromosome ii will result in a reduced expression of these genes. On the other hand, the gal7 gene is required for galactose metabolism, and its absence in one chromosome ii will prevent the cells from metabolizing galactose.

However, in diploid cells, both chromosomes can complement each other's deficiencies. This means that if one chromosome has a mutation that affects a certain metabolic pathway, the other chromosome may have a functional copy of the same gene that can compensate for the defect.

In the case of the galactose metabolism mutations, the diploid cells will have one functional copy of the gal7 gene and one copy of the uas region, which can partially compensate for the defects in the other chromosome.

Therefore, the diploid progeny resulting from the cross between the two haploid strains will have a reduced ability to metabolize galactose, but they will still be able to grow on a galactose-containing medium due to the partial complementation of the mutations.

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Related Questions

Which accessory gland is that last to add contents to the semen before the semen enters the urethra?.

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The accessory gland that is the last to add contents to the semen before it enters the urethra is the prostate gland. The prostate gland secretes a milky fluid that contains enzymes, citric acid, and zinc, which help to nourish and protect the sperm. The fluid also helps to neutralize the acidic environment of the male urethra and female reproductive tract, increasing the chances of fertilization. The prostate gland is located just below the bladder and surrounds the urethra, allowing it to release its contents directly into the urethra during ejaculation. Overall, the prostate gland plays a crucial role in the composition and function of semen.
Hi! The accessory gland that is last to add contents to the semen before it enters the urethra is the bulbourethral gland, also known as Cowper's gland. This gland produces a clear, slippery fluid called pre-ejaculate, which helps to neutralize any residual acidity in the urethra and provide lubrication during sexual activity. The bulbourethral glands are located below the prostate and release their secretions just before ejaculation, making them the last glands to contribute to the composition of semen. Overall, accessory glands, such as the bulbourethral glands, play a crucial role in the male reproductive system by producing and maintaining the optimal conditions for sperm transportation and fertilization.

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For the first time in a laboratory setting, scientists recently observed a dramatic color change in what kind of aquatic animal?.

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The aquatic animal that recently underwent a dramatic color change in a laboratory setting is the Hawaiian bobtail squid.

The Hawaiian bobtail squid is a small, nocturnal cephalopod that has a symbiotic relationship with bioluminescent bacteria. The squid is able to control the intensity of the bacteria's light emission to match the amount of moonlight or starlight above, which helps the squid avoid being seen by predators. However, scientists recently discovered that the squid also has the ability to change the color of its skin from brown to bright red in response to environmental stressors.

This finding could have significant implications for the study of animal behavior and physiology, as well as for the development of new technologies that rely on color-changing materials.

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What is the maximum number of alleles that a diploid individual can have at each locus? Consider only loci found on autosomal chromosomes

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The maximum number of alleles that a diploid individual can have at each locus on autosomal chromosomes is two. This is because autosomal chromosomes are inherited in pairs, with one copy coming from each parent.

Therefore, each individual will have two copies of each autosomal chromosome, and consequently, two copies of each locus.

The presence of two alleles at each locus provides genetic diversity, which is important for adaptation and survival of a population. However, in some cases, having multiple alleles at a locus can cause genetic disorders or diseases.

It's important to note that this answer only applies to autosomal chromosomes. Sex chromosomes, such as X and Y chromosomes, have different inheritance patterns and can have varying numbers of alleles at each locus.

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If people sustain damage to the somatosensory association cortex, their deficits are related to _____.

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If people sustain damage to the somatosensory association cortex, their deficits are related to the processing and interpretation of sensory information.

The somatosensory association cortex is a region of the brain that integrates information from different sensory modalities, such as touch, proprioception, and temperature, to form a coherent perception of the body and its surroundings. Damage to this region can lead to deficits in somatosensory perception, including difficulties in recognizing objects by touch, locating the position of body parts, and distinguishing between different textures and temperatures.

Patients with somatosensory association cortex damage may also experience altered body awareness and difficulties in performing motor tasks that require the integration of sensory information. These deficits can significantly impact daily life activities, such as dressing, grooming, and eating, and can contribute to social and emotional difficulties. Treatment options for somatosensory association cortex damage include rehabilitation therapy to improve sensory perception and motor function, as well as assistive devices to aid with daily living activities.

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true or false: the presence of e. coli in water indicates that dangerous pathogens are present in the water.

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Answer: True

Explanation: The presence of E. coli in water indicates recent fecal contamination and may indicate the possible presence of disease-causing pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

the prescence of e. coli in water means that there was a fecal infection in that water. this is dangeous and most likely if not 100% means you are at risk for pathogens (germs) in that water. do not drink that water.

have a great day God bless :)

does double stranded dna formation increase or decrease electrostatic repulsion? how would the addition of salt impact this effect? how does this impact connect with the experimental data found by marmur and doty?

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Double stranded DNA formation decreases electrostatic repulsion.

When DNA strands are single-stranded, the negatively charged phosphate groups on the nucleotides repel each other, resulting in electrostatic repulsion. However, when the two strands come together to form a double helix, the phosphate groups are shielded from each other by the nitrogenous bases, reducing the electrostatic repulsion between them.

The addition of salt can impact this effect because salt ions can neutralize the negative charges on the phosphate groups. As a result, adding salt can decrease the electrostatic repulsion between the strands, making it easier for them to come together to form a double helix.

This impact connects with the experimental data found by Marmur and Doty, who observed that the addition of salt to DNA samples resulted in increased stability of the double helix structure. This is because the salt ions neutralized the negative charges on the phosphate groups, reducing the electrostatic repulsion between the strands and making it easier for them to stay together.

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if the pituitary stalk is accidentally severed during a surgery, which hormone will be present in higher levels in the blood after surgery?

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If the pituitary stalk is accidentally cut during surgery, the prolactin hormone will be present in the blood at high levels after the surgery. Here option B is the correct answer.

The pituitary gland is a small pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain that secretes a variety of hormones that regulate various bodily functions. The pituitary stalk is a narrow stalk-like structure that connects the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus in the brain. The hypothalamus secretes various hormones that regulate the pituitary gland's hormone secretion.

If the pituitary stalk is accidentally severed during surgery, it can cause disruption in the hormone secretion process. Specifically, the disruption can cause an increase in the secretion of hormones that are regulated by the hypothalamus but inhibited by the pituitary gland.

One such hormone is prolactin, which is regulated by the hypothalamus but inhibited by the pituitary gland. If the pituitary stalk is severed, the inhibition of prolactin secretion is lost, leading to an increase in prolactin levels in the blood.

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Complete question:

If the pituitary stalk is accidentally severed during a surgery, which hormone will be present in higher levels in the blood after surgery?

A) Growth hormone

B) Prolactin

C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

which of these is not a correct statement about mitochondria? group of answer choicesmitochondria are in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.
mitochondria are thought to have evolved from a bacterial ancestor inside a larger cell.
mitochondria have linear chromosomes and 80s (large) ribosomes.
mitochondria are important for making atp, the usable energy molecule in cells.

Answers

The membrane-bound organelles known as mitochondria are present in eukaryotic cells.The statement that "Mitochondria and chloroplasts may be found in the same cell" is correct in regards to mitochondria and chloroplast. Hence (c) is the correct option.

For instance, mitochondria are organelles that create the majority of the energy needed by eukaryotes, a chemical known as ATP. Since prokaryotes lack mitochondria, they make ATP on the cell surface membrane. The nucleus' chromosomes contain the majority of the DNA, although mitochondria also have a minor quantity of their own DNA. MtDNA, or mitochondrial DNA, is the name for this genetic material. Electron transport enzymes are located in the outer membrane.

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which of these is not a correct statement about mitochondria?

a. mitochondria are in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.

b. mitochondria are thought to have evolved from a bacterial ancestor inside a larger cell.

c. mitochondria have linear chromosomes and 80s (large) ribosomes.

d. mitochondria are important for making atp, the usable energy molecule in cells.

On your lecture outline, a seed is described as a baby in a box with its lunch. The box is the seed coat. What is the food derived from, in a pine seed?

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Great question! In a pine seed, the food is derived from the endosperm, which is the tissue surrounding the embryo (the "baby" in the box with its lunch).

The endosperm provides the nutrients and energy that the embryo needs to grow and develop until it can photosynthesize and produce its own food.

So, in a way, the endosperm is like the lunch for the baby pine tree!


In a pine seed, the food for the developing embryo, also referred to as its "lunch," is derived from the endosperm. The endosperm is a tissue within the seed that provides nutrients, such as starch and proteins, to support the growth of the embryo as it germinates and develops into a new plant.

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Radioactive iodine treatment is so successful at treating hyperthyroidism that it has virtually replaced thyroid surgery. To the nearest full day, determine how long it will take for 400 millicuries of i-131, which has a half-life of 8 days, to decay to 3. 125 millicuries.

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It will take 32 days for 400 millicuries of I-131 to decay to 3.125 millicuries.

This involving radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism and thyroid surgery.

1. First, identify the initial amount of I-131 (400 millicuries) and the final amount (3.125 millicuries).
2. Determine the half-life of I-131, which is 8 days.
3. Use the formula N = N0 * (1/2)^(t/T), where N is the final amount, N0 is the initial amount, t is the time elapsed, and T is the half-life.
4. Plug in the given values: 3.125 = 400 * (1/2)^(t/8).
5. Solve for t: t/8 = log2(3.125/400) or t/8 = -4 (rounded).
6. Multiply both sides by 8: t = -4 * 8, which gives t = -32.

To the nearest full day, it will take 32 days for 400 millicuries of I-131 to decay to 3.125 millicuries.

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Point source pollutants are
a) pollutants that can be traced to a specific source like a factory.
b) pollutants that come from multiple sources and cannot be easily traced.
c) pollutants that come from multiple sources and can be easily traced.
d) pollutants that cannot be identified or traced to any source.

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Point source pollutants are pollutants that can be traced to a specific source like a factory.

The correct option is A.

What are point source pollutants?

A single observable source of air, water, thermal, noise, or light pollution is referred to as a point source of pollution.

Point-source pollution is defined as pollution coming from a single, distinguishable source, such as a factory or sewage plant output pipe.

Smokestacks, discharge pipelines, and drainage ditches are a few examples.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. DDT is _____-soluble so it accumulates in _____.

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DDT is fat-soluble so it accumulates in fatty tissues.

DDT, or dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, is a synthetic pesticide that was widely used in the mid-20th century to control insect populations. Its fat-soluble properties allowed it to accumulate in the fatty tissues of animals, leading to biomagnification up the food chain.

As a result, DDT and its breakdown products have been found in the bodies of animals worldwide, including humans. Because of its harmful effects on the environment and human health, DDT has been banned in many countries since the 1970s.

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Depending on if the owl ate a bird or rodent the pellet will contain ________________ or ________________.

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Answer:

Feathers and Fur. (Cause other than their skulls, if they aren't completely well, broken up, you'll still find evidence of stray fur or feathers)

describe the relationship between the total number of mutant alleles in an individual and the concentration of cysteine in the urine.

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There is no clear relationship between the total number of mutant alleles in an individual and the concentration of cysteine in the urine. While mutations in certain genes can lead to disorders that affect cysteine metabolism and excretion, the number of mutant alleles alone does not necessarily indicate the severity of the condition or the resulting concentration of cysteine in the urine.

Other factors, such as dietary intake and overall health, can also influence cysteine levels in the urine. Therefore, it is important to consider multiple factors when evaluating cysteine levels in an individual.The total number of mutant alleles in an individual refers to the number of altered copies of a gene that an individual possesses. These mutant alleles can lead to abnormal production or function of the gene's product, which in this case is an enzyme responsible for the metabolism of the amino acid cysteine. When an individual has one or more mutant alleles that affect the metabolism of cysteine, it can result in a reducedability to break down cysteine properly. This, in turn, can lead to an increased concentration of cysteine in the urine.

In summary, the relationship between the total number of mutant alleles in an individual and the concentration of cysteine in the urine can be described as a direct relationship, where an increase in the number of mutant alleles may lead to an increase in cysteine concentration in the urine. This is because the presence of mutant alleles can affect the proper metabolism of cysteine, leading to its accumulation and excretion in the urine.

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PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because

A) all cells have DNA.
B) the RNA primer is specific.
C) all cells have RNA.
D) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA.
E) DNA can be electrophoresed.

Answers

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a powerful technique for amplifying a specific segment of DNA, and it can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because all cells have DNA.

The process involves the use of specific primers that hybridize to the target sequence, and a heat-stable DNA polymerase to synthesize new strands of DNA. By carefully designing the primers to match the DNA sequence of the target bacterium, it is possible to selectively amplify that DNA segment from a sample that contains DNA from multiple organisms.

Once the target DNA has been amplified by PCR, it can be analyzed in a variety of ways to identify the bacterial species. One common approach is to sequence the amplified DNA segment and compare it to a database of known bacterial DNA sequences to find the best match.

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classify the following activities with regard to whether they are major functions that are directly performed by the urinary system.

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Elimination of toxins, control of blood ion concentrations, control of blood volume, control of RBC formation, control of blood pH, regulation of vitamin D synthesis and erythropoietin secretion.

UNFIT FOR PURPOSE Removal of undesirable proteins, Bile production, and the storage of nutrients like glucose. Urine is the waste product that is expelled from your blood through your urinary system, also known as the renal system or urinary tract. The amount of chemicals and salts (electrolytes) in your blood and body's cells is likewise regulated, as is your blood volume and pressure.

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as the vertebrate lineage evolved to fill different niches, the region of the brain that received informationT/F

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As vertebrates evolved and diversified into different ecological niches, the region of the brain that received and processed information from the senses became more complex and specialized. True

In early vertebrates, the forebrain was the largest and most prominent region of the brain, responsible for processing sensory information, regulating basic physiological functions, and coordinating movement.

However, in more derived vertebrates such as mammals, the forebrain has undergone extensive expansion and differentiation into distinct regions, including the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for advanced cognitive functions such as perception, consciousness, and memory. This specialization of the brain is thought to have played a key role in the evolutionary success of vertebrates.

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Classify each description of an ecological research study with the major area of ecology it matches best. animal ecology Population ecology Community ecology Ecosystem ecology A researcher studies how coat thickness of brown bears impacts their ability to tolerate cold temperatures An ecologist studies how climate changes are impacting the nutrient availability and biodiversity of a coral reef. A biology team studies the impact of dwindling seagrass levels on the group of species that feed on it. An ecologist studies the breeding success of populations of a species of finch in captivity and in its native habitat.

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Animal ecology - A researcher studies how coat thickness of brown bears impacts their ability to tolerate cold temperatures

Population ecology - An ecologist studies how climate changes are impacting the nutrient availability and biodiversity of a coral reef.

Community ecology - A biology team studies the impact of dwindling seagrass levels on the group of species that feed on it.

Ecosystem ecology - An ecologist studies the breeding success of populations of a species of finch in captivity and in its native habitat.

Ecosystem ecology is the interdisciplinary study of the biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) elements of ecosystems and their interactions within an ecosystem framework. This branch of science studies how ecosystems function and how chemicals, bedrock, soil, plants, and animals relate to each other.

A developing and rich area of ecology is community ecology. Ecologists look at the variables that affect species distribution and abundance, community structure, and biodiversity. These variables include interactions with the abiotic environment and the wide variety of interactions that take place between species.

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Mean departure from the origin
Compute the mean departure of a one-dimensional random walker from its starting point. In particular, use the fact that the mean excursion can be written as ãRã = (ãnrã â ãnlã)a and that the probability distribution for nr right steps out of a total of N steps is given by the binomial distribution.

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To compute the mean departure of a one-dimensional random walker from its starting point, we can use the fact that the mean excursion can be written as ãRã = (ãnrã × â ãnlã) × a, where ãnrã is the average number of right steps taken out of N steps, ãnlã is the average number of left steps taken out of N steps, and a is the length of each step.

The mean displacement of the walker after N steps can be calculated as follows:

⟨x⟩ = ⟨nl - nr⟩

= ⟨nl⟩ - ⟨nr⟩

= (N/2) - (N/2)

= 0

This means that, on average, the random walker returns to its starting point after N steps, which is not surprising given that the walker has an equal probability of moving in the positive or negative direction at each step.

However, we can also calculate the mean departure of the random walker from its starting point, which is defined as the absolute value of the mean displacement:

⟨|x|⟩ = ⟨|nl - nr|⟩

= ∑|nl - nr|P(nl, nr)

= ∑|nl - (N-nl)|P(nl)

= ∑|2nl - N|P(nl)

where P(nl) is the probability of taking nl steps in the left direction out of a total of N steps, which is given by the binomial distribution:

P(nl) = (N choose nl) * [tex](1/2)^N[/tex]

Substituting this expression for P(nl) into the equation for the mean departure, we get:

⟨|x|⟩ = ∑|2nl - N|P(nl)

= ∑(2nl - N)P(nl) (since |2nl - N| = 2nl - N when nl > N/2 and N - 2nl otherwise)

= 2∑nlP(nl) - N∑P(nl)

= 2(⟨nl⟩) - N (using the fact that ∑P(nl) = 1 and ⟨nl⟩ = N/2)

Therefore, we can express the mean departure of the random walker from its starting point as:

⟨|x|⟩ = N - 2⟨nl⟩ = N - 2(N/2) = 0

Thus, we can conclude that the mean departure of a one-dimensional random walker from its starting point is zero.

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A restriction fragment is...
A. cDNA
B. a segment of mRNA
C. a gene
D. a segment of DNA
E. a segment of tRNA

Answers

A restriction fragment is a segment of DNA that is produced when a DNA molecule is cut by a restriction enzyme. D. a segment of DNA

Restriction enzymes are enzymes that cleave DNA at specific recognition sequences, resulting in the production of fragments of various lengths.

Restriction fragments can be used in a variety of applications, including DNA fingerprinting, restriction mapping, and cloning. In DNA fingerprinting, restriction fragments are used as markers to compare the DNA profiles of different individuals. In restriction mapping, restriction fragments are used to determine the relative positions of genes and other DNA sequences on a chromosome. In cloning, restriction fragments can be used to insert specific genes or DNA sequences into plasmids or other vectors for expression in bacteria or other organisms.

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Water enters and leaves the plant cells primarily by.

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Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Plant cells are surrounded by a cell wall and a selectively permeable plasma membrane, which allows water molecules to move freely in and out of the cell through osmosis.

The water enters the plant cells from the soil through the root system and is transported through the xylem to the rest of the plant. The water leaves the plant cells through the process of transpiration, where it evaporates from the leaves and is released into the atmosphere. Water enters and leaves plant cells primarily by osmosis. Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.

In plant cells, this process occurs mainly through the cell membrane and the cell wall.Plant cells regulate the movement of water through osmosis to maintain turgor pressure, which helps the plant maintain its structure and carry out essential functions such as photosynthesis and nutrient transport. Additionally, the movement of water in and out of plant cells plays a crucial role in the overall water balance of the plant.

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What is the name of the macromolecule that makes up the majority of the cell membrane?.

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The macromolecule that makes up the majority of the cell membrane is called phospholipids.

Phospholipids are complex lipids that consist of a hydrophilic (water-loving) head and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) tail. The phospholipids arrange themselves in a bilayer with the hydrophobic tails facing each other and the hydrophilic heads facing outward. This creates a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell, which helps to maintain the cell's internal environment. In addition to phospholipids, the cell membrane also contains proteins, carbohydrates, and cholesterol, which all play important roles in the functioning of the membrane.

The name of the macromolecule that makes up the majority of the cell membrane is phospholipids. Phospholipids are the primary building blocks of cell membranes, forming a bilayer that provides a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell. This structure helps regulate the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintaining a stable internal environment.

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Because genomics addresses all of the genes of a given individual's human genome working together as a whole, it has been able to enhance and expand the ______ .

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The holistic approach to nursing practise has been strengthened and expanded by genome, which focuses on how all of a person's human genes interact as a whole.  

The genome's sequencing is not a goal unto itself. The knowledge of the contents of the genome still poses a significant difficulty. Inherited variation is the subject of genetics, a branch of science. So the scientific study of inherited human variation is called human genetics. due to the Human Genome Project's goal of sequencing an organism's whole genome. In genetics, genes, genetic diversity, and heredity in living things are all investigated.

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Because genomics addresses all of the genes of a given individual's human genome working together as a whole, it has been able to enhance and expand the __________ view of nursing practice.

A patient develops bacteremia, and Culture confirms an agent that produces biofilms and is novobiocin sensitive. Name the most likely agent.

Answers

The most likely agent is Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of bacteremia, particularly in patients with indwelling medical devices such as intravascular catheters. It is also known for its ability to form biofilms on these devices, which can make treatment difficult. Novobiocin is an antibiotic that is used to differentiate between S. epidermidis (which is sensitive to novobiocin) and another species of Staphylococcus, S. saprophyticus (which is resistant to novobiocin).

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alfred hershey and martha chase used which of the following approaches in order to test whether protein or dna was responsible for heredity?they tested whether 32p or 35s from labeled s-cells ended up in the transformed r-cellsthey tested whether purified biological molecules labeled with 32p or 35s were capable of transforming r-cells.they labeled viruses with 35s and 32p to determine which one was transferred to bacteria during viral infection.all of the above

Answers

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase used the approach of labeling viruses with 35s and 32p to determine which one was transferred to bacteria during viral infection in order to test whether protein or DNA was responsible for heredity.The Hershey-Chase experiment was a landmark experiment conducted by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase in 1952 that helped confirm that DNA, rather than protein, was the genetic material in living organisms.

In the experiment, Hershey and Chase used a virus called T2 bacteriophage to infect E. coli bacteria. They labeled the DNA in the virus with radioactive phosphorus-32 (32P) and the protein coat with radioactive sulfur-35 (35S). After allowing the viruses to infect the bacteria, they separated the viral coats from the bacteria by blending them in a blender and then centrifuging the mixture to separate the bacterial cells and viral coats from the supernatant.

When they analyzed the bacterial cells and the supernatant, they found that the radioactive 32P labeled DNA was present in the bacterial cells, but not in the supernatant, while the radioactive 35S labeled protein was present in the supernatant, but not in the bacterial cells. This showed that only the DNA of the virus had been transferred into the bacterial cells during infection, confirming that DNA was the genetic material responsible for viral replication, and thus also for heredity in living organisms.

The Hershey-Chase experiment provided strong evidence that DNA, rather than protein, was the genetic material in living organisms. This discovery had significant implications for the field of genetics and paved the way for the molecular biology revolution that followed.

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What classification is based on evolutionary history?

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The classification that is based on evolutionary history is called phylogenetics. It is the study of the evolutionary relationships among different species or groups of organisms. This classification system relies on the concept of shared ancestry, where species that share a common ancestor are grouped together.

Phylogenetics utilizes molecular and genetic data to build evolutionary trees or phylogenies that represent the branching patterns of different species over time. The analysis of DNA sequences and other molecular markers can help to determine how closely related different species are and how they evolved over time.

This type of classification system is useful for understanding the origins and relationships of different species, as well as for making predictions about how organisms might evolve in the future. It is also important for conservation efforts, as it helps to identify species that are closely related and may have similar ecological roles, and therefore, may require similar conservation strategies.

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in a large population of randomly reproducing rabbits, a recessive allele r comprises 80% of the alleles for a gene. what percentage of the rabbits would you expect to have the dominant phenotype? multiple choice 64% 40% 36% 50% 32%

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In a large population of randomly reproducing rabbits, a recessive allele r comprises 80% of the alleles for a gene. The 50% of the rabbits would you expect to have the dominant phenotype.

The percentage of rabbits with the dominant phenotype can be determined by calculating the genotype of the rabbits. Since the recessive allele r comprises 80% of the alleles for a gene, then this means that 20% of the alleles are for the dominant allele R.

This means that the genotype of the rabbits would be RR (25%), Rr (50%), and rr (25%). Therefore, 50% of the rabbits would have the dominant phenotype, as the dominant phenotype will be expressed in the heterozygous, Rr, genotype.

This means that out of a large population of randomly reproducing rabbits, one can expect that 50% of the rabbits would have the dominant phenotype.

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Before endosymbiosis could occur, what must have been present?.

Answers

Endosymbiosis is a process by which one organism lives inside another and both organisms benefit from the arrangement.

This process is thought to have played a crucial role in the evolution of eukaryotic cells. However, before endosymbiosis could occur, certain conditions must have been present. First and foremost, there must have been two distinct organisms with different abilities and characteristics that could complement each other.

For example, one organism may have had the ability to produce energy, while the other could provide protection. Additionally, the host organism must have had a mechanism to allow the invading organism to enter and live inside it without being destroyed by the host's immune system.

Lastly, there must have been a mechanism for the two organisms to communicate and coordinate their activities to achieve mutual benefits. These conditions would have set the stage for the development of endosymbiosis and the eventual evolution of more complex life forms.

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_____: superior and inferior vena cava are classified as these types of vessels

Answers

The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as large blood vessels called veins. In the circulatory system, veins are responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body back to the heart. The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava are the two primary veins that perform this crucial task.


The superior vena cava, located in the upper part of the body, collects deoxygenated blood from the head, neck, upper limbs, and chest region. It then transports this blood to the right atrium of the heart. On the other hand, the inferior vena cava is responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood from the lower part of the body, including the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs, to the right atrium.



Both the superior and inferior vena cava play a vital role in maintaining the circulatory system's function, as they help to complete the blood circulation loop. By transporting deoxygenated blood back to the heart, these large veins ensure that the blood can be oxygenated once again in the lungs before being pumped to the rest of the body by the heart.

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If isolated plant cells with a water potential averaging −0.6 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of −0.2 MPa, which of the following would be the most likely outcome?
A) The pressure potential of the cells would increase.
B) Water would move out of the cells.
C) The cell walls would rupture, killing the cells.
D) Solutes would move out of the cells.
E) The osmotic pressure of the cells would decrease.

Answers

A) The pressure potential of the cells would increase.



When isolated plant cells with a water potential of -0.6 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of -0.2 MPa, water will move from the solution into the cells due to the difference in water potential.

As water enters the cells, the pressure potential will increase as the volume of the cells increases and the cell walls expand.
When two solutions of different water potential are separated by a selectively permeable membrane, water will move from the solution with higher water potential to the solution with lower water potential. In this case, the cell membrane is the selectively permeable membrane that allows water to move out of the cell


Summary: When plant cells with a lower water potential are placed in a solution with a higher water potential, water will move into the cells, causing an increase in pressure potential.

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