There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another? different side chains (R groups) attached to an a carbon different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups different structural and optical isomers

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Answer 1

Amino acids can differ from each other due to the different side chains (R groups) attached to the carbon

Amino acids are alkanoic acids containing amino groups and are protein building blocks that function to participate in the biosynthesis of porphyrins, purines, pyrimidines and urea. Amino acids have two functional groups namely – NH2 and – COOH. There are 20 amino acids which are the building blocks of protein. These 20 amino acids have free carboxyl groups and unsubstituted free amino groups attached to the α carbon atom, so they are called α-amino acids.

Amino acids can differ from one another due to different side chains (R groups) which vary in structure, size and electrical charge. Variations in the nature of the R group determine the solubility of amino acids in water or are more hydrophilic compared to nonpolar aliphatic amino acids.

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Related Questions

3. Which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective? Explain your answer:

a. simple squamous

b. stratified non-keratinized

c. stratified keratinized

d. transitional

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Stratified non-keratinized is a type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective.

What is epithelial tissue?

For a bodily part, this tissue acts as a liner or covering. It has a free surface that is either open to bodily fluids or the environment outside. Simple epithelium (a single layer of cells) and complex epithelium are the two categories for epithelial tissues (two or more layers of cells).

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue is the least protective form of epithelial tissue. This indicates that a very thin layer of squamous epithelial cells, which are flat, thin cells, makes up the tissue.

Stratified non-keratinized is a type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective.

Correct option. b

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the astronaut happens to have potatoes (real ones) on board. he plants them in martian soil. suppose the co2 levels are a bit higher than on earth. what impact will this have on the plant biomass (size of the leafy part of the potato) and on the nutritional value (nutrition within the potato)?

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When the CO₂ levels are higher on mars then the biomass of the plant will be increased and the nutritional value will be decreased.

Biomass is defined as the total quantity of any substance per unit area or volume. The biomass is made up of carbon element, hence more the carbon in any substance more is its biomass. Since the CO₂ are high in martian soil, this depicts high biomass of potatoes there.

Nutritional value is defined as the balanced proportion of all the components like carbohydrate, proteins, fats, etc. Since the CO₂ content is high it will lead to more amounts of carbohydrates then the proteins and other components.

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Part 1 The Power of Exponential Growth A scientist places one bacterium in a Petri dish at 9.00 am: The bacteria can reproduce at a rate that doubles its population every minute. At 9.00 there is one, at 9.01 there are two, at 9.03 there are four; etc. The scientist observes that the whole Petri dish is completely full at 10.00 am_ 9.00 am Bacteria 9.01 am 2 Bacteria 9.02 am 4 Bacteria 777 10.00 am Full Quarter Full Half Full When (at what time) was the dish half_ full? What time was it a quarter full? Type your answers here in RED. 2. If they keep growing; how many dishes full of bacteria would you have at 10.022

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There is 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria at 10.22, If they keep growing.

Bacterial division, or binary fission, is the process by which a single bacterium divides into two daughter cells. This process occurs when the bacterium grows to a certain size and then replicates its DNA and divides into two separate cells. Binary fission can occur quite rapidly, allowing bacteria to multiply and spread quickly. Some bacteria are able to undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, while others may take several hours.

The dish was half full at 9:30 am and a quarter full at 9:15 am.

At 10:22, if the bacteria continue to grow at the same rate, you would have approximately 2^22 = 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria.

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. compare the control of gene regulation in eukaryotes and bacteria at the level of initiation of transcription. how do the regulatory mechanisms work? what are the similarities and differences in these two types of organisms in terms of the specific components of the regulatory mechanisms?

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Recognition of the promoter can be affected by activators and repressors.The (omega) component of a RNA polymerase holoenzyme recognizes the promoter in bacteria.

Similarities: Cis-acting elements and trans-acting factors must interact for transcription to begin. Upstream of a transcribed gene are components called promoters that are necessary. Recognition of the promoter can be affected by activators and repressors. Although they have diverse structures, DNA loops have a role in the control of transcription initiation.

Differences: The (omega) component of a RNA polymerase holoenzyme recognizes the promoter in bacteria. The specificity of transcription is controlled by the recognition of various promoter sequences by various (omega) subunits. Additionally, RNAs (attenuators, riboswitches, and sRNAs) can either allow as well as repress initiation, making transcription adapt to environmental or cellular conditions. Repressor proteins that cause DNA conformational adjustments (repression loops) can prevent RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. In eukaryotes, the chromatin structure may have to be altered in order to change how accessible the promoter is to the transcriptional machinery. General transcription factors attract RNAP II to promoters. Additionally, enhancers and silencers are each bound by activators and repressors, respectively. Large DNA loops may be created, putting promoters & enhancers (or silencers) near to one another, according to one theory.

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human papillomavirus can cause cervical cancer. the virus encodes e6, a protein that binds p53. based on this fact and what you know about p53, what effect do you think e6 binding has on p53 activity? a

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E6 binding designates the degradation of p53 papillomavirus.  Other consequences for the cell cycle result from the lack of p53 activity. P53 with mutations may no longer be able to activate p21 synthesis. Without sufficient p21 levels, Cdk activation cannot be effectively blocked.

How is p53 impacted by HPV E6?

Background. Even when p53 is produced ectopically, E6 renders it incapable of acting as a tumor suppressor in HPV-infected cells. E6 might not only aid in the decomposition of p53 but also impede its transactivity, however the underlying mechanisms are currently unclear.

How can HPV produce p53-positive cervical cancer?

The cellular tumor-suppressor protein p53 is bound to by the E6 oncoprotein from tumor-associated human papillomaviruses (HPVs), which then causes its destruction.

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06.7 . During many epidemics health-care professionals emphasize the importance of community mitigation strategies, such as wcaring masks, frequent hand-washing and social distancing; Why it important for people to adopt these strategies? a)These stralegies are only effective with full compliance. everyone must be encouraged t0 practice them . b)These strategies are tne best way to reduce the length of lire Ihal person able t0 transmit disease c)These strategies help reduce transmission; even when drug-based treatments and vaccines are unavallable d)These strategies help the population achieve herd immunity: which doesn"t require that everyone is immune

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c) These strategies help reduce transmission; even when drug-based treatments and vaccines are unavailable, helps gain immunity.

During epidemics like corona, drugs and vaccines are not available every part of the country and villages as it was newly discovered virus and was not possible to vaccinate such large population in such a short time.

Hence, from this concept of community immunity arises, where such as community wear masks, frequent hand washing, and social distancing helps to stop the fast spread of virus in the community, which in turns help other people till more than half of population is vaccinated to develop community immunity.

This step is done to protect the virus from spreading from one person to another before the development of vaccine and community immunity.

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suppose that gene b is x-linked, recessive, and embryonic lethal. a man marries a woman who is heterozygous for this gene. if this couple had many normal children, what would be the predicted sex ratio of these children?

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Mendelian crossover procedures can be used to make observations and anticipate the children's sex ratio. Parents and children share the genotypes XX, XY, XX (b), and X (b) Y.

Given that the b gene is fatal and sex-linked recessive. Due to its sex-related nature, it will be connected to the X chromosome in those who are afflicted or carriers. People who are heterozygous for this gene have offspring.Males have one X and one Y chromosome, whereas females have two X chromosomes. Therefore, a girl who has one affected X chromosome is not considered to have the condition. She'll act as a carrier. Males that have only one affected X chromosome are considered to be afflicted.

The guy has the genotype XY, whereas the lady has the genotype.

The symbol for the cross is XX(b)*XY.

XX X_(b ) Y XX_(b ) X_(b ) Y

In the progeny, there is a 50% probability that the kid will be a girl and a 50% chance that the child will be a boy. Of the two females, one will be a carrier and the other will not have the fatal gene B.

One of the two men will be impacted by receiving an extra copy of the X (b) chromosome from the mother, while the other will not.

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studies the functions of the body and its parts

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The scientific study of how a biological organism works and how its mechanisms work is called physiology.

Physiology is a branch of biology that focuses on how animals, organ systems, specific organs, cells, and biomolecules perform the chemical and physical processes necessary for a living system to function.

Animal function is the subject of physiology, which can be studied at the level of individual cells, tissues, organ systems, and even the entire body. The overarching objective is to describe the basic workings of biological systems and their interactions.

The field can be separated into medical physiology, animal physiology, plant physiology, cell physiology, and comparative physiology in accordance with the types of organisms.

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Write a list of at least three reasons why plasmids and bacterial cells are helpful tool in genetic engineering.

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Plasmids and bacterial cells are helpful tools in genetic engineering because they are easy to use, take less time to multiply, and, due to the small size of the plasmid, are highly used in genetic engineering.

What is the importance of genetic engineering?

Genetic engineering is extremely useful for a variety of processes, including the production of the desired proteins and gene products in less time with the help of bacteria and plasmids. It is helpful to make genetically modified plants that have more nutrients than the wild-type variety, etc.

Hence, they are helpful tools in genetic engineering because they are easy to use, take less time to multiply, and, due to the small size of the plasmid, are highly used.

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this part of the middle ear vibrates and stimulates the bones of the ossicles when it perceives sounds waves.

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When sound waves enter the ear, the eardrum vibrates, sending these vibrations to three small bones in the middle ear.

The malleus, incus, and stapes are the names of these three bones.

The part of the outer ear that is visible is called the auricle (pinna). It gathers sound waves and directs them into the external auditory meatus of the ear, where they are amplified.

The ossicles began moving as a result of the eardrum's vibrations. The smallest bones in the human body, the ossicles are essentially very small bones. The names of the three bones—the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes—are based on their forms (stirrup). The ossicles magnify the sound even more.

The cochlea, an organ with the shape of a snail, is where sound waves first enter the inner ear. As a result of the vibrations from the oval window, a fluid inside the cochlea moves. 25,000 nerve endings are activated as the fluid flows. The vibrations are converted by these nerve terminals into electrical impulses that then travel along the eighth cranial nerve.

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the digestive function of the liver is to ________.

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The liver's digestive job is to create bile, and the digestive system is responsible for processing the nutrients taken in from the small intestine.

What serves the body's digestive system?

Food must be digested in order to be broken down into nutrients that the body may use for energy, development, and cell repair. Prior to being absorbed by the blood and transported to the cells throughout the body, nutrients from food and drink must be broken down into smaller molecules.

What is the name for digestion?

Depending on how foodstuff is broken down, digestion, a type of catabolism, is sometimes divided into two processes: mechanical digestion and chemical digestion. The actual breakdown of large amounts of food down smaller fragments that may then be accessed is referred to as mechanical digestion.

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put the steps of sexual development in order as they occur in a normal xy male.

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Sexual development steps sequentially as it occurs in a normal XY male:

SRY is expressed and induces SOX9SOX9 is expressed and induces the development of testesTestes secrete testosteroneTestosterone binds the androgen receptor (AR) in presumptive genital cells.The AR-testosterone complex translocates to the nucleus.The AR-testosterone complex binds DNA sequences, and target genes are expressed.External genitalia are masculinized

In the 4-5 week embryo, the coelamic epithelial projections form the gonadal ridges. Week 6 occurs the migration of primordial germ cells to the gonadal mountains which form the gonads. The gonads are in an independent stage and have multiple potentials (bipotential), meaning they can form testes or ovaries.

The development of the gonads differs depending on the direction or constitution of the sex chromosomes. The 46XY embryo contains TDF (Tests Determining Factor), which is the product of a gene found on the short arm of the Y chromosome. TDF contains the SRY (Sex Determining Region on the Y chromosome) gene, which plays a role in determining gonadal development (TDF = SRY).

46 XY embryo contains TDF, gonadal epithelium develops into Sertoli cells or sustentacular cells, Leydig cells/interstitial cells (stroma), and seminiferous tubules (medulla). The 46 XX gene SRY embryo is missing, so the gonads develop into ovaries.

Testicular development (7 weeks) and testicular structure (8 weeks). 9 weeks, the Leydig cells differentiate into testosterone (peak at 15-18 weeks). Sertoli cells contain proteins: AMH/MIF/MIS which function to suppress the development of the muller ducts (so that the fallopian tubes, uterus, and the upper 2/3 of the vagina are not formed).

Complete the question and see the picture.

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In which situation has heat energy moved mainly by conduction through matter?

Responses.


A: A radiator heated with hot water warms a room.

B: The red-hot coil of an electric space heater is used to keep a small room warm.

C: The handle of a cast iron skillet being used to cook something becomes too hot to touch.

D: The person sitting closest to the blazing fire finds it necessary to move farther from the heat.

Answers

When the handle of a cast iron pan being used to cook something becomes too hot to touch, heat energy is moving through matter by conduction. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

What is conduction?

The movement of thermal energy through a substance (matter) as a result of physical contact is referred to as conduction. It is a significant component of the process through which heat is transmitted from one thing to another. These are some of the others:

Radiation Convention

Because the heat from the burner is transferred directly into the pot, the handle of a cast iron skillet that is being used to cook food becomes too hot to touch while the skillet is in use. The handle of the cast iron skillet will get warm as a result of the heat being transferred from the pot when it rises to a boil.

The best situation for heat energy to move mainly by conduction is when there is direct contact between the source of heat and the matter being heated. For example, the handle of a cast iron skillet that is being used to cook something becomes too hot to touch when the skillet has reached the desired cooking temperature.

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During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? a) b) c) Lag phase Log Phase Death phase Stationary phase The culture is equally susceptible during all phases

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The answer is c the minimum rate of doubling of the  generation time is however it take  long  for a cell to double or a bacterial of the  cell to double.

What is bacteria?

Bacteria is a very very tiny living things that can only be seen with microscope.

During which growth phase will grant positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin. This is kind of actually a trick question because the culture is equally susceptible to all phases because each individual cell is always susceptible to penicillin.

Okay next question. Which of the following is best if it is the best definition of generation time. The answer is c the minimum rate of doubling generation time is how long it takes for a cell to double or a bacterial cell to double.

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a dtc service, such as 23andme, indicates that jane has a snp that is a genetic risk factor for hypothyroidism. the snp has an odds ratio (or) of 1.5. the average population risk of developing hypothyroidism is 4%. based on this information, what is jane's overall risk of hypothyroidism?

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The odds ratio (OR) for the SNP is 1.5. 4% of people in the population are at risk of getting hypothyroidism. According to this data, Jane's total risk of hypothyroidism is 6%.

When the thyroid gland is underactive or hypothyroidism, your body cannot produce enough thyroid hormones to satisfy its demands. The thyroid is a little gland at the front of your neck that resembles a butterfly. hypothyroidism hormone bioactivity may be impacted by single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in genes involved in thyroid hormone metabolism. Thyroid hormones (THs) attach to thyroid hormone receptors (TRs), which are nuclear hormone receptors. TRs function as ligand-activated transcription factors that bind to the target gene's promoters' cognate thyroid hormone response elements (TREs).

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which set of facts about action potential is true? it is exhibited by cells that were previously not at resting potential. it is created by an unequal distribution of ions. every stimulus can generate it. potassium gates open to allow an inflow of potassium ions. it is exhibited by cells that were previously at resting potential. it is created by an equal distribution of ions. it requires a stimulus to take place. sodium gates open to allow an inflow of sodium ions.

Answers

An action potential is generally based upon stimulus so it requires a stimulus to take place is the correct option.

The movement capability is stated to be all-or-not anything as it happens most effective for sufficiently huge depolarizing stimuli, and due to the fact its shape is essentially unbiased of the stimulus for suprathreshold stimuli. In a few neurons, a single movement capability may be caused with the aid of using the offset of a hyperpolarizing stimulus.

The movement capability is an explosion of electrical hobby this is created with the aid of using a depolarizing current. This manner that a few event (a stimulus) reasons the resting capability to transport closer to zero mV. When the depolarization reaches about -fifty five mV a neuron will hearthplace an movement capability.

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what increases the permeability of the glomerulus by making the capillaries leaky?

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Fenestrations increases the permeability of the glomerulus by making the capillaries leaky.

The glomerular capillary endothelium's fenestrations make them leaky, which raises their permeability. This fenestrated endothelium is surrounded by podocytes and is situated close to the basement membrane. The fenestrations promote permeability by increasing water penetration. Therefore, response (b) is the right one.The glomerulus lacks microvilli. Option (a) is therefore untrue.Desmosomes are also absent from the glomerulus; instead, they are typically found in tissues with severe mechanical stress, such as heart muscle. Option (c) is therefore untrue.Tight connections increase cell adhesion and stop content leakage. So the structure does not cause increased permeability. Option (d) is therefore untrue.

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Animal Phylum Symmetry Related to: Snail Fish Earthworm Anemone Frog Jellyfish Starfish Alligator Ant Elephant Coral Mouse Add Your Own Animals below (3)

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1) Molluscan snails with bilateral symmetry; examples include clams, octopus, and snails. 2) Fish in the Chordata phylum are bilaterally symmetrical; examples are dog fish and Rohu 3) Bilateral symmetry in the Earthworm Phylum Annelida

Snails are phylum Mollusca members and have bilateral symmetry. The body designs of creatures in the phylum Ctenophora (comb jellies) and Cnidaria are characterized by this type of symmetry (corals, sea anemones, and other jellies). Bilateral symmetry, often known as plane symmetry, is a characteristic shared by 99% of all organism's and the majority of phyla, including Chordata, Annelida, Arthropoda, Platyzoa, Nematoda, and the majority of Mollusca. Cephalization is the term used to describe an organism's concentration of sensory and neurological tissues within a head-like structure. Animals with well-formed, complex heads or head-like features frequently exhibit bilateral symmetry.

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Learning through Art: Monohybrid Cross plant Eggs from Go F, plant Sperm trom plant 1

Answers

The answers are: (a) GG, (b) Green plant, (c) Gg, (d) Green Plant, (e) gG, (f) Green Plant, (g) gg, (h) Yellow Plant after cross-breeding.

If two monohybrid cross plants are crossbred with each other:

Genes of Plant 1: Gg

Genes of Plant 2: Gg

Here, Gene G is responsible for the color green.

and Gene g is responsible for the color yellow.

Cross-breeding of both plants

       G               g

G     GG            Gg

      Green        Green

g     gG             gg

      Green        Yellow

As Gene G is responsible for the Green color and g is responsible for the yellow color where the dominant gene is G and gene g is the recessive gene.

Thus, plants with GG, Gg, and gG genes will turn out Green plants, and only gg with Yellow plant.

The complete question is:

Monohybrid Cross X Gg F, plant Gg F, plant Sperm from F, plant G 9 99 G (b d GO Eggs from F, plant GG g

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which statement is false about why infants have a narrow chemical safety margin? a. the immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to antidiuretic hormone (adh). b. an immature tubular transport capacity impairs the reabsorption of bicarbonate or buffer hydrogen with ammonia. c. an immature tubular transport capacity impairs the excretion of potassium. d. the immaturity of tubules may d

Answers

d. The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to aldosterone. Babies nervous systems are underdeveloped at birth and fully develop throughout the first several years of life.

As a result, it has been suggested that colic is caused by an immature neurological system. Coincidentally, colic often subsides as the nervous system reaches a more mature stage at around three months of age. Low sodium levels (hyponatremia), an excess of potassium (hyperkalemia), and an acid-producing disorder are all signs of this illness (metabolic acidosis). Muscle weakness, nausea, palpitations, an irregular pulse, and abnormal blood pressure can all be brought on by these symptoms.

Lack of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates salt intake, can result in hyperkalemia. Lack of salt-retaining hormone results in reduced renal tubular reabsorption of sodium, as is most frequently observed in individuals with adrenal insufficiency.

The complete question is:

Which statements are true regarding the narrow chemical safety margin that infants demonstrate? (Select all that apply.)

a.The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

b.An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the excretion of potassium.

c.An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the reabsorption of bicarbonate.

d.The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to aldosterone.

e.The safety margin begins to expand after 2 years of age.

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which choice best describes the kind of information genes contain according to mendel's predictions? responses mutated mutated irregular irregular hereditary hereditary consistent

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Genes best describe the kind of information genes contain according to Mendel's predictions.

What instrument is utilised in Mendelian genetics to forecast outcomes?

The percentages of phenotypes in a cross's progeny from known genotypes can be predicted using a Punnett square. Based on the other genotypes involved in the cross, a missing genotype can be identified using a Punnett square.

What is Mendel's heredity theory?

He concluded that genes are inherited from each parent as separate, paired units. Mendel observed how parental genes separated and if they showed up as dominant or recessive qualities in the children. He was aware of the mathematical patterns passed down from one generation to the following.

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Answer: pretty sure it's mutated

Explanation:

hemoglobin is a complex protein that contains four polypeptide chains. the normal hemoglobin found in adults, called adult hemoglobin, consists of two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains, which are encoded by different loci. sickle‑cell hemoglobin, which causes sickle‑cell anemia, arises from a single mutation in the beta chain of adult hemoglobin. adult hemoglobin and sickle‑cell hemoglobin differ in a single amino acid. the sixth amino acid from one end in adult hemoglobin is glutamic acid, whereas sickle‑cell hemoglobin has valine at this position.

Answers

GAA and GAG are both potential codons that may be used for the production of glutamic acid.

Codons that encode valine may be produced by making a single-base replacement in the second position of any one of these codons:

GAA————> GUA (Val) (Val)

GAG————> GUG (Val) (Val)

Both of these swaps are considered transversions. However, the sickle-cell phenotype is caused by a mutation in the GUG codon, which is found in the gene that codes for the beta chain of hemoglobin. The wild-type codon, GAG, may be found in this gene.

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Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy?
a. B vitamins are a source of kilocalories
b. Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased
c. Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells
d. Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts

Answers

As the building blocks of a healthy body, B vitamins have a direct impact on your energy levels, brain function, and cell metabolism. The option (D) is correct.

What are the functions of Vitamin B?

B vitamins are a class of water-soluble vitamins that play important roles in cell metabolism and synthesis of red blood cells. Though these vitamins share similar names, they are chemically distinct compounds that often coexist in the same foods.

Moreover, perhaps the most well-known of all the B vitamins, B12 is vital for neurological function, DNA production, and red blood cell development. B12 is found naturally in animal sources like meats, eggs, seafood, and dairy.

Therefore, these vitamins help a variety of enzymes do their jobs, ranging from releasing energy from carbohydrates and fat to breaking down amino acids and transporting oxygen and energy-containing nutrients around the body.

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base your answer on the diagram below and on your knowledgeof biology. the diagram represents a single celled organism, such as an amoeba, undergoing the changes shown. process 1 is known as

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an amoeba, undergoing the changes shown. process 1 is known as mitotic cell division.

Which five steps in mitotic cell division are there?

According to current understanding, mitosis comprises five stages depending on the physical condition of the chromosomes and spindle.Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, metaphase, and telophase are these stages.

How is the proof of mitotic cell division presented?

Some species use the process of mitotic cell division to procreate or make new life.Mitosis is a reproductive process employed by single-celled eukaryotic organisms such amoebas.A single cell organism divides into two new cells to produce a second copy of itself when it multiplies.

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the radial muscle of the iris causes the pupils to dilate. therefore, which branch of the ans controls the radial muscles?

Answers

The iris' radial muscle causes the pupils to enlarge. Which ANS branch therefore regulates the radial muscles? the sympathetic nervous system

A network of neurons in your body called the sympathetic nervous system aids in the "fight-or-flight" reaction. When you're under stress, in danger, or engaged in physical exercise, this system becomes more active.

Your autonomic nervous system includes your sympathetic nervous system. It might be referred to as your "automatic" nervous system because it controls a variety of processes that don't require conscious thought. Among other things, this can include managing your heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, urination, and perspiration.

The ability of your sympathetic nervous system to react to risky or stressful conditions is its most well-known function. When this happens, your sympathetic nervous system kicks in to help you escape danger by increasing your heart rate, pumping more blood to areas of your body that need it, and other responses.

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In fruit flies, the genes for wing length and body hair each have two alleles. Long wings and a hairless body are dominant to alleles for vestigial (functionally useless) wings and a hairy body.

A. Calculate the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring from the cross between a vestigial-winged, hairy male and a homozygous dominant female.

B. Calculate the genotypes and phenotypes of the F2 offspring

B.

Answers

The genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring from the cross between a vestigial-winged, hairy male denoted as 'aa' and a homozygous dominant female denoted as 'AA' will be long wings and a hairless body flies with genotype Aa, while the genotypes in the F2 will include AA, aA and aa as well as both phenotypic variants.

Which are the genotypes and phenotypes in a crossing of pure lines?

The genotypes and phenotypes in a crossing of pure lines include only heterozygous individuals in theFf1 (genotype) and all these individuals will express the dominant trait.

In a Punnett square it can be represented as:

     A      A

a   Aa  Aa

a   Aa    Aa

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the genotypes and phenotypes in a crossing of pure lines will produce only dominant individuals which allow the segregation of alleles in the F2 to form the there types of possible phenotypes in proportion 3:1 dominant:recessive.

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The main evolutionary advantage of pollen is ____.
O providing a food source for developing seeds
O protection from potential herbivores
O the ability to transport male gametes without water
O giving flowers color

Which of the following is an example of an angiosperm?
O fern
O oak tree
O moss
O pine tree

Answers

O the ability to transport male gametes without water, A flowering plant, which forms seeds inside a protective chamber called an ovary. Ex. Oak Tree.

What is pollen's key evolutionary benefit?

Plants can reproduce without water thanks to the evolution of seeds, and pollen enables them to spread their gametes widely.

What benefit do flowers have for angiosperm evolution?

In order to draw pollinators and safeguard their seeds, angiosperms have evolved blooms and fruit.Flowers come in a broad variety of hues, forms, and scents, each of which is designed to draw pollinators.

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In a graded potential, what is the effect of cytoplasmic resistance and current leak?

a) More K+ is able to enter the cell, off-setting the depolarizing effects of Na+.

b) The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over distance.

c) Fewer Na+ can cross the membrane in response to the stimulus.

d) The outer membrane surface becomes more positively charged, causing hyperpolarization.

Answers

(b)The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over a distance

Depolarizing current from an action potential travels very rapidly through the cytoplasm of axons, insulated by myelin until reaching the next node of Ranvier. At each node, the membrane depolarizes above the threshold voltage, and the influx of sodium ions again initiates the action potential through Nav

And those generated by stimuli and sensory receptors are also called receptor potentials. A graded potential like this one, that moves the membrane potential to a less negative number, or closer to zero, is called a depolarization, because now the membrane is less polarised. It has less charge separation.

That is, neurons have a resting membrane potential (or simply, resting potential) of about −30 mV start text, m, V, end text to −90 mV start function, m, V, end text. Because there is a potential difference across the cell membrane, the membrane is said to be polarised.

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Purpose: Why is proper pipetting important in a microbiology lab? 2. What are the three different types of pipettes that are commonly used in lab 3. List 4 safety features that you will need to follow when using pipette?

Answers

Proper Pipetting is an inevitable part of experiments or research conducted under microbiology, biochemistry, and pharmacology-like fields of biology.

Different pipettes are available for various purposes with differing levels of accuracy which are Transfer Pipette, Graduated Pipette, and Single-Channel Pipette.

The equipment is designed to transport a measured volume of liquid with utmost precision. Different pipettes are available for various purposes with differing levels of accuracy. Pipette is a laboratory equipment commonly used in research or lab purposes in various fields of science. Transfer Pipette is considered one of the most basic types of pipette. This is a disposable pipette generally made of plastic generally used for rough measurements. This cannot be used for precise measurements. Graduated pipettes are classified under micropipettes. This is mainly made of long glass tubes. This contains a series of graduations to indicate different calibrated measurements. For measurements using graduated pipettes, we use additional equipment like rubber bulbs at the top of the equipment. This is a non-disposable type instrument that operates by piston-driven air displacement. Single-Channel Pipettes are of the adjustable type that delivers a measured volume of liquid. Also, these pipettes require disposable plastic tips. Many follow mouth piping instead of using rubber bulbs. This must not be appreciated. You should use new rubber bulbs or plastic suction livers for sucking the liquid into the pipette. Overfilling of pipettes using misuse of rubber bulbs may lead to undesirable effects. A lack of attention may lead to the overfilling of the pipette and overflow of the solution. The application of overpressure on pipettes or lack of attention may result in the breakage of glass pipettes and this may cause injuries to your body parts if you're handling it carelessly. Sequential calibration is essential while using an air-displacement pipette.

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how is a gram-positive bacterial cell different from a gram-negative bacterial cell? what are the ramifications for drug design? g

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A lipopolysaccharide-containing outer membrane surrounds the peptidoglycan cell wall that encases gram-negative bacteria.

In contrast to Gram-negative bacteria, which have an outer membrane, gram-positive bacteria have layers of peptidoglycan that are many times thicker.

While Gram negative bacteria have an outer lipid membrane and a thin peptidoglycan layer, Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer.

Gram positive and Gram negative microorganisms can be broadly categorized. Cell walls of gram-positive bacteria are made up of several, thick layers of peptidoglycan. Gram positive cells tint purple when subjected to a Gram stain process. Gram negative bacteria have cell walls with a thin coating of peptidoglycan

The identification of screening hits, medicinal chemistry, and optimization of those hits to improve their affinity, selectivity (to reduce the possibility of side effects), efficacy/potency, metabolic stability (to increase the half-life), and oral bioavailability are all essential components of modern drug discovery.

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