trina wants to be a nurse practitioner or doctor for her future career. which ctso would be best for trina to join?

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Answer 1

Trina intends to pursue a career as a doctor or nurse practitioner. Trina would be best to join HOSA.

HOSA, formally known as HOSA-Future Health Professionals, is a career and technical student organization (CTSO) that focuses on educating students for occupations in the Health Science career cluster.

Through education, teamwork, and experience, HOSA's members are given the tools they need to become leaders in the global health community.

For secondary, postsecondary, adult, and collegiate students engaged in health science education and biomedical science programs or with an interest in pursuing careers in the health professions, HOSA offers a special program of leadership development, motivation, and recognition.

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Related Questions

the nurse observes the client looking to the corner of the room and mumbling to himself. which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

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Monitor for signs of psychosis and refer to a mental health professional for further evaluation.

what is acute psychosis?Psychosis is a severe mental disorder in which a person has difficulty distinguishing between reality and their own thoughts and delusions. Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and difficulty functioning in everyday life. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications, psychotherapy, and supportive services. It is important to get help as soon as possible, as psychosis can have serious consequences if left untreated. Acute psychosis is a relatively short-term episode of psychosis that is characterized by sudden onset and rapid progression. It usually lasts for a few weeks or months, and can be triggered by extreme stress, a traumatic event, or the use of certain drugs or medications. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications and psychotherapy. The goal is to help the person stabilize and to reduce the symptoms. Early intervention and treatment can be critical in helping the person regain

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Monitor for signs of psychosis and refer to a mental health professional for further evaluation.

What is acute psychosis?Psychosis is a severe mental disorder in which a person has difficulty distinguishing between reality and their own thoughts and delusions. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications, psychotherapy, and supportive services. As soon as possible, get assistance because, if untreated, psychosis can have major negative effects. Acute psychosis is a relatively short-term episode of psychosis that is characterized by sudden onset and rapid progression.It usually lasts for a few weeks or months, and can be triggered by extreme stress, a traumatic event, or the use of certain drugs or medications. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications and psychotherapy.

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a child is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. the nurse reinforces home care instructions to the parents about the care of the child. which instruction would the nurse provide to the parents?

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Infectious mononucleosis has no known cure, and there is no vaccination to shield people from getting it.Within two to eight weeks, most symptoms go away on their own.

What safety measures are taken for mono? Infectious mononucleosis has no known cure, and there is no vaccination to shield people from getting it.Within two to eight weeks, most symptoms go away on their own.The doctor for your child could advise you to give him or her lots of rest as well as other strategies to help them feel better while they are recovering.Infectious mononucleosis cannot be prevented by a vaccination.Avoid kissing anyone who have infectious mononucleosis and refrain from sharing food, drinks, or personal objects like toothbrushes with them.Fever and sore throat symptoms typically go away in a couple of weeks.But it's possible that symptoms like lethargy, swollen lymph nodes, and a bloated spleen persist for a few more weeks.

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a patient with limited stage small cell lung cancer (sclc) has undergone chemotherapy with a good initial response to therapy. what will the provider tell this patient about the prognosis for treating this disease?

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The provider will inform the patient with Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC) who has undergone chemotherapy with a good initial response to therapy that: the relapse is likely due to poor prognosis for treating the disease.

SCLC is the malignant type of cancer which is most probably caused due to smoking. The initial symptoms of the cancer include coughing and shortness of breath. It is rare type but very quickly growing form of cancer.

Prognosis is the opinion or judgment that a doctor makes based on one's medical experience and the condition and severity of the disease. It is an anticipation based on the specificity of the case of the patient.

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which nursing intervention and rationale applies to a client who has just iven birth to her fifth child?

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Nursing intervention and rationale applies to a client who has just given birth to her fifth child should be need to palpating her fundus frequently as  she is at increased risk for uterine atony

uterine atony is a serious condition which occur after the childbirth where the uterine fails to contract after the childbirth., if uterine fails to contract there is large amount of blood loss and death could occur.

It usually can occur after multiple childbirths., this could also lead to life threatening condition known as postpartum hemorrhage.

symptoms of it include, large amount of blood loss, decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate.

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which information will be included in medication education for a patient prescribed an antidepressant? select all that apply

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The information included in medication education for patients prescribed antidepressants:

The goal of antidepressant therapy is the remission of symptoms.It generally takes one to three weeks of antidepressant therapy for the mood to improve.It may require a change in prescription to identify the most effective antidepressant.Antidepressant therapy may trigger psychosis in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia.

Antidepressants are drugs used to treat depression. This drug works by balancing natural chemical compounds in the brain called neurotransmitters. This way of working can help improve and balance the mood and emotions of people with depression.

The mechanism of action of antidepressant drugs inhibits the uptake of serotonin which has been secreted in synapses (gaps between neurons)

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a patient in the emergency department (ed) has just gone into cardiac arrest. intravenous and intraosseous access is unsuccessful. the ed nurse understands the endotrachael route is also an option. how much of a medication increase, times the normal dose, does the nurse understand she will have to administer?

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Provides a rapid means of accessing the systemic circulation when intravenous routes cannot be estab- lised in emergent situations.

What is the purpose of endotracheal anesthesia?

Endotracheal anesthesia is a surgical anesthetic method that uses an endotracheal tube to preserve airway patency, assist tracheal aspiration, and regulate breathing.

Suction, an appropriate-sized bag and mask, an oxygen source, appropriate-sized endotracheal tubes (including one size larger and one size smaller), a laryngoscope and appropriate-sized laryngoscope blades (including one size smaller and one size larger), and endotracheal tube-securing equipment are all included in the kit (tape or other),

Intravenous injection is the most effective method for swiftly and precisely delivering a specific quantity throughout the body. It is also utilized for irritant solutions that would induce discomfort and tissue damage if administered by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection.

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the nurse leader is giving a speech on leadership skills to followers. which questions enable the nurse leader to evaluate the understanding level of the followers? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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Questions that allow the nurse leader to evaluate the level of understanding of followers

"How can you resolve conflicts at work?""What did you 'hear' in the process of this communication?"

What is leadership in loss management?

Entity leadership is about having a vision and empowering staff. They also added that nurses must have skills, such as self-confidence, respect for others, and being ability to build a team effectively.

Nurse leaders manage departments for care organizations and ensure that included units have the manpower and resources they need to create a positive practice environment and provide high-quality care.

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a nurse is preparing to administer nystatin 400,000 units po. available is nystatin powder 500,000 units/ 0.125 tsp. the nurse reconstitutes a container of nystatin to yield a final concentration of 500,000units/ 120 ml. how many ml?

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The diluent (solvent, liquid) commonly used for reconstitution is sterile water or sterile normal saline solution, prepared for injection.

what is nystain powder?

NYSTATIN (nye STAT in) treats fungal or yeast infections of the skin. It belongs to a group of medications called antifungals. It will not treat infections caused by bacteria or viruses. This medicine may be used for other purposes; ask your health care provider or pharmacist iApply enough nystatin to cover the affected area. For patients using the powder form of this medicine on the feet: Sprinkle the powder between the toes, on the feet, and in socks and shoes.For topical dosage form (powder): For fungus infections: Adults and children—Apply to the affected area(s) of the skin two or three times a dayNystatin is available under the following different brand names: Mycostatin, Nilstat, Nyamyc, Nystat Rx, Nystatin Systemic, Nystex, and Nystop.

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he nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository antipyretic medication. which action by the nurse is correct?

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After inserting suppositories, patients should lie down for 20 minutes. It is not recommended to soften the suppository. Patients should sleep on their left side rather than their right.

It is best to use a water-soluble lubricant. nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository antipyretic medication.  action by the nurse is correct A suppository is a medicine delivery type that is inserted into a bodily orifice where it dissolves or melts to exert local or systemic effects. Rectal suppositories are to be inserted into the rectum, vaginal suppositories into the vagina, and urethral suppositories into the urethra of a man. Suppositories are suitable for newborns, the elderly, and post-operative patients who are unable to swallow oral drugs, as well as those suffering from severe nausea and/or vomiting.

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the nurse is drawing blood from a patient to determine the blood alcohol level. which step is an appropriate action for the nurse to take? (select all that apply.)

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An appropriate action for the nurse to take the area with an antiseptic swab.

What is meant by nurse?

The way nurses care for patients, their education, and the extent of their practice can set them apart from other healthcare professionals.Nurses work in a variety of specializations with varying degrees of prescribing power.Nurses collaborate with doctors, nurse practitioners, physical therapists, and psychologists, among other healthcare professionals.In the US, nurses normally cannot prescribe drugs, in contrast to nurse practitioners.Nurses holding a graduate degree in advanced practice nursing are known as nurse practitioners.More than half of the US has independent practitioners who work in a range of settings.Since the postwar era, nursing education has changed to focus more on advanced and specialized qualifications, and many of the established rules and provider roles are evolving.

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The nurse is drawing blood from a patient to determine the blood alcohol level. The nurse should swab the area with an antiseptic swab. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Give a brief account on how blood alcohol content is measured?

Your blood's alcohol concentration, or blood alcohol level or blood alcohol content (BAC), is measured. Beer, wine, and liquor all include alcohol (also known as ethyl alcohol or ethanol), which is a depressant. When you consume an alcoholic beverage, the alcohol is quickly absorbed and absorbed into your bloodstream by your stomach and small intestine. Because alcohol is toxic to your body, your liver metabolizes it in order to remove it from your blood. Your BAC will rise and you may experience the symptoms of intoxication, if you consume alcohol more quickly than your liver can break it down. Typically, your liver can break down one alcohol drink every hour. 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of liquor are commonly considered to equal one alcohol drink. However, the alcohol content of various beers and wines might vary.

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The complete question is mentioned below :

The nurse is drawing blood from a patient to determine blood alcohol level.

Which step is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

a. Swab the area with an antiseptic swab

b. Swab the area with an alcohol swab

c. Do not swab the area at all

d. Apply the tourniquet for 5 minutes

all of the following interventions are important for the patient receiving neuromuscular blockade (nmb) except: a. assist the patient up in a chair at least twice each day. b. provide interventions for oral care and skin care. c. administer sedatives concurrently with nmb. d. ensure that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated

Answers

For the patient getting neuromuscular blockade, it's crucial to administer sedatives at the same time as the nmb (nmb).

What is the most crucial nursing intervention for patients using neuromuscular blocking drugs?In patients using NMJ blockers, the following critical nursing interventions are carried out: Prepare emergency tools for mechanical ventilation if necessary and for maintaining airways. To lower the risk of skin breakdown, give skin care to the administration site.A neuromuscular blocker should not be administered until the patient is adequately ventilated and breathing at a controlled rate (NMB). Patient needs End Tidal CO2 Monitoring in addition to an arterial line. Ascertain that the ECG, oxygen saturation, End Tidal CO2, and arterial pressure alarms are activated with the proper alarm settings.For the patient getting neuromuscular blockade, it's crucial to administer sedatives at the same time as the nmb (nmb).      

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the nurse is preparing to provide wound care to a client with extensive burns. which characteristic of the dressing will the nurse use to select the type of topical therapy? select all that apply.

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cover the burn with a sterile dressing – usually a pad and a gauze bandage to hold it in place. offer you pain relief if necessary – usually paracetamol or ibuprofen.

what is topical therapy?

Applying medication to the skin or mucous membranes allows it to enter the body from there. Medication applied in this way is known as topical medication. It can also be used to treat pain or other problems in specific parts of the body. Topical medication can also be used to nourish the skin and protect it from harmTopical agents are used locally, where the medicine is applied on the area being treated. For example creams, ointment and lotions are applied topically on the skin. Eye drops are instilled directly into the eyes.An advantage of the topical route of drug administration is that it has a much better profile for adverse effects because they are designed for local pain treatment with minimal systemic effects. This refers especially to those groups of drugs in which systemic absorption is negligible.

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Apply a sterile dressing to the burn; typically, this consists of a pad with a gauze bandage to keep it in place. We can offer you ibuprofen / paracetamol if you need it for pain.

what is topical therapy?Medicine can enter the body from the mucous membranes or the skin when applied topically. Medicine used in this way is referred to as topical medication. Topical drugs can also be used to protect and nourish the skin.Locally administered topical drugs are used to treat the affected area. For example, creams, balms, and lotions are applied to the skin topically. Eye drops are administered directly into the eyes.Because topical therapy are intended for localised pain relief with negligible systemic side effects, they have a far better profile for negative impacts.

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the nurse is creating an education plan for a client who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. what should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

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The nurse includes inspection and treatment of the incision in the lesson plan.

What is meant by teaching plan?An outline of a single session's format and specifics is contained in a teaching plan. A thorough outline of the teaching strategies, including step-by-step instructions, an estimation of how long each teaching segment will last, and a list of the supplies and equipment required for the session constitutes a solid lesson plan.A lesson plan is a schedule that educators write to organize daily activities in their classes. It outlines the material that will be covered in each class hour as well as the instructional strategy and evaluation methods.Lesson plans serve as a teacher's daily roadmap for what material pupils should learn, how it will be taught, and how learning will be assessed. Through the provision of a thorough schedule for each class session, lesson plans assist teachers in being more productive in the classroom. pedagogical and educational activity. Methods to assess students' comprehension

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the nurse is counseling a client with a bmi of 23 about weight gain during pregnancy. the nurse teaches the client that during the second and third trimester of pregnancy, dietary intake should be increase by how many calories per day above what she was eating prior to the pregnancy?

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The pre-pregnancy healthy diet should include foods high in protein, carbs, and fibre, as well as some micronutrients such vitamins and minerals. Fruits, nuts, and veggies are absolutely necessary for a baby's development. Proper nutrition is essential to getting the body ready for conception.

What is a pre-pregnancy diet?Cabbage family leafy greens including collards, kale, broccoli, and turnip greens. legumes like pinto beans and black-eyed peas, dry beans and peas like lima beans, and canned baked beans. white bread, pasta, rice, and cereals with added iron, as well as whole-grain breads.Avoid eating fried meals, pastries, biscuits, pies, and cakes that are high in saturated fats.

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what would be the total daily amount of fat in grams that one could consume if they wants to eat at the high end of the amdr range for fat, assuming they ate around 2000 total kcal per day.?

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If one wants to eat at the high end of the AMDR range for fat, the total daily amount of fat in grams that one could consume is 78g.

What is the AMDR range in fat?For adults, the AMDR for carbohydrate is 55-70%, 15-25% for fat, and 7-20% is for the protein. Subjects who did not meet the AMDRs for carbohydrate, fat, and protein were classified as non-AMDR.The total fat guideline is now positioned using the  'Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges' in the most recent edition. The total fat range is 20%-35%, and the saturated fat range is 10%, both as a percentage of daily calorie intake.Carbohydrates have an Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) of  about 45 to 65 percent. This means that a person should consume between 225 and 325 grams of carbohydrate per day on a 2,000 calorie diet.

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while caring for a client admitted to the hospital with suspected seizure activity, the client acknowledges the use of the herbal supplement ginkgo, to the nurse. which follow-up questions by the nurse would be most appropriate? select all that apply.

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The follow-up questions by the nurse that would be most appropriate are

DO you have a history of seizure?How long have you been using ginkgo?DO you have a history of clotting disorder?Have you been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?

A seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable electrical breakdown in the brain. It can influence your behaviour, movements, and sensations, as well as your level of consciousness. The term "epilepsy" refers to two or more seizures that occur at least 24 hours apart and are not induced by a known cause. Anything that disturbs the usual connections between nerve cells in the brain might trigger seizures. A generalised tonic-clonic seizure lasting more than 5 minutes is considered a medical emergency.

For ages, Ginkgo has been used to treat blood illnesses and cognitive issues. It is now widely accepted as a means of potentially retaining memory sharpness. Ginkgo has been shown in laboratory studies to improve blood circulation by widening blood vessels and making blood less sticky. It is also an antioxidant. Ginkgo functions as an antioxidant and increases blood flow to the brain. These effects may have some benefits for certain medical concerns, but the data is mixed.

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a client with a deep partial-thickness burn to the right forearm has returned from surgery with a skin graft to the burned area. which graft site intervention would the nurse implement within the first 24 hours?

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The arm should be positioned so that the graft site is not compressed. When pressure is applied to the graft, it may move and cause harm to the graft site (2).

What is partial -thickness burn?

Utilizing less oxygen than is stoichiometrically necessary for complete coke combustion is known as partial burn operation. Water, CO, and CO2 are the primary byproducts of the burning of coke.

Because there isn't enough oxygen to completely burn the carbon in the coke to produce CO2, some of the carbon is instead transformed to CO as the hydrogen in the coke is oxidized to water. The amount of heat produced is significantly less than in full burn operations because oxidation to CO is far less exothermic than oxidation to CO2. In order to provide the energy needed to vaporize and crack feed at the required riser outlet temperature, heat balance necessitates higher coke make, which enables the processing of less expensive, more refractory feedstocks.

What is the most painful type of burn?

Burns to the skin's surface hurt the most at first. A patient feels agonizing agony at the least alteration in the air currents passing by the exposed superficial dermis. Nerve terminals become sensitive and exposed to stimuli when the epidermis is absent as a barrier.

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The compelte question is :

A client with a deep partial-thickness burn to the right forearm has returned from surgery with a skin graft to the burned area. Which graft site intervention would the nurse implement within the first 24 hours?

1. Monitor temperature every 12 hours.

2. Position arm to prevent pressure to the graft site.

3. Prepare to change the 1st dressing within 24 hours.

4. Perform passive range of motion exercises to the right arm.

admission sheet 2. narrative nurse's notes: narrative nurse's notes 3. medical history: medical history 4. physician's order sheet: physician's order sheet 5. graphic sheet: graphic sheet column b a.used to order diagnostic tests and treatments and to specify diets and activity status b.typed or dictated document that lists a patient's previous surgeries and medical conditions, current medication, allergies, and medical diagnosis c.document that contains essential information about the patient, including his name, address, birth date, and insurance information d.used to record patient complaints and the actions that were taken by the nursing team to provide relief e.used to record routine data, such as vital signs, frequency of urination, bowel movements, and input and output

Answers

A sort of nursing documentation called a nursing narrative note is designed to give the patient's story in clear, specific detail.

What information has to be in a nursing narrative note? It must be accurate, timely, contemporaneous, readable, and clear for documentation to support the provision of safe, high-quality care.A sort of nursing documentation called a nursing narrative note is designed to give the patient's story in clear, specific detail.The information in a narrative note is presented in the form of paragraphs and, if you will, tells a tale about the patient, the care he is receiving, his reaction to the medication, and any interventions or education given.Critical case management contacts made during the course of a case are documented in case notes, also known as narratives.Creating a case assignment is not necessary, but it could restrict the information that can be conveyed in a structured case note.

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mr. shea is a 45-year-old patient who presents to the office for multiple complaints. the examination of the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity is essential to the evaluation of the immune system because of the location of which organ? group of answer choices

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The spleen, which is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity, is essential to the evaluation of the immune system.

What is the function of a spleen?The spleen is an organ located in the upper left side of the abdomen, between the stomach and the diaphragm. It is important for filtering and storing blood, as well as producing red and white blood cells. The spleen also helps with the lymphatic system by filtering out bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances. It also helps to remove old and damaged blood cells from the circulation. Additionally, it stores platelets and helps to regulate the level of red blood cells in the blood. The spleen also helps to regulate the body's immune system by producing antibodies and helping to fight off infections. Finally, the spleen helps with digestion by secreting digestive enzymes. In summary, the spleen is essential for proper circulation, immune system regulation, and digestion.

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which characteristic of patient-centered medical homes is considered key slelect all that apply

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Engaging patients and caregivers in their care is a critical element of the PCMH paradigm.

The medical home, often known also as patient-centered medical home (PCMH), is just a team-based health care delivery model lead by a health care professional that aims to offer complete and continuous medical care to patients in order to achieve the best possible health outcomes. In addition to its medical home accreditation procedure, the AAAHC is piloting a "Medical Home Certification" program, which involves an onsite assessment to evaluate an organization against its medical home criteria. Organizations must be examined against any and all AAAHC core requirements in order to get full certification.

ACOs can improve on the coordinated care offered by PCMHs by ensuring and incentivizing communication between teams and providers working in different venues. ACOs can help with transitions and aligning resources to fulfil the population's clinical & coordinated care requirements. They can create or support systems for patient care coordination in non-ambulatory healthcare setting.

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during a physical examination, the provider discovers a bruit. what method would she be using to make this discovery? group of answer choices

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Auscultation is the approach she would use to achieve this discovery.

Auscultation is the practise of listening to the interior noises of the body with a stethoscope. Auscultation is used to examine the circulatory and respiratory systems, as well as the alimentary canal (heart and breath sounds). Auscultation is just a skill that involves extensive clinical expertise, a high-quality stethoscope, and excellent listening abilities. During auscultation, health professionals (doctors, nurses, and so on) listen to three major organs and organ systems: the heart, the lungs, and the gastrointestinal system.

When clinicians auscultate the heart, they listen for aberrant sounds such as cardiac murmurs, gallops, as well as other additional noises that coincide with heartbeats. Electronic stethoscopes may be used as recording devices and can reduce noise and improve signal quality. Mediate auscultation is an archaic medical word for listening (auscultation) to internal body noises with an instrument (mediate), typically a stethoscope. It differs from instantaneous auscultation, which involves placing the ear immediately on the body.

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which statement by the nurse explains the reason clients prescribed corticosteroid therapy for a chronic health problem develop frequent infections?

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The nurse says that because corticosteroids have an effect on antibody-antigen protection, patients who have been taking them for a chronic health issue frequently get infections.

What is chronic health issue?In addition to lowering T-cell counts, corticosteroids also inhibit cell-mediated immunity. They lessen antibody-antigen binding and interfere with IgG (immunoglobulin G) synthesis. White blood cell mobility is restricted, inflammatory chemical synthesis is disrupted, and the inflammatory process is suppressed by corticosteroids.Broadly speaking, chronic illnesses are those that last for a year or longer, demand ongoing medical attention, limit daily activities, or both.The main causes of death and disability in the United States are chronic diseases like heart disease, cancer, and diabetes. Arthritis, Alzheimer's disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, and chronic kidney disease are typical chronic illnesses.

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which dri values would be the best choice as targets to ensure that the diet is adequate for the majority of the kids?

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The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are a set of nutrient reference values established by the Institute of Medicine (IOM) to help individuals and healthcare professionals determine the appropriate intake of essential nutrients.

To ensure that the diet is adequate for the majority of children, it is important to aim for the following DRIs:

Energy: The RDA for energy intake is based on age, gender, and activity level. It is important to ensure that children are consuming enough calories to meet their growth and development needs.Protein: The RDA for protein intake is based on age, gender, and body weight. Children need protein to build and repair tissues, and to produce enzymes and hormones.Carbohydrates: The RDA for carbohydrates is based on age, gender, and activity level. Carbohydrates are the body's main source of energy, and it's important to ensure that children are consuming enough to meet their energy needs.Fats: The RDA for fats is based on age, gender, and activity level. Fats are an important source of energy, and they also help to absorb certain vitamins and minerals.

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a young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. during a routine 3-year health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a mid-systolic click on auscultation. the patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations. what action will the provider take?

Answers

Midsystolic murmur of mitral regurgitation.

What type of murmur is heard when a mitral valve prolapse occurs?

There is a midsystolic murmur of mitral regurgitation after the prolapse. Standing causes a reduction in venous return, a decrease in left ventricular volume, and a prolapse of the mitral valve sooner in systole. As a result, the mitral regurgitation murmur becomes longer.

Assure the patient that these results are normal.

Every three years, the patient should be monitored.

Allow the patient to be admitted to the hospital for examination and treatment.

Consult cardiology to select the most relevant diagnostic testing.

Consult cardiology to select the most relevant diagnostic testing.

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which actions by the nurse increase safety in the clinical setting? select all that apply.one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The following nurse behaviours promote clinical safety:

Keeping up with new research and best practisesUse only high-quality materials, particularly websitesReporting malfunctioning equipment as soon as it is discovered

Patient safety is defined by the World Health Organization as the absence of preventable injury to patients and the prevention of needless harm by healthcare personnel. It has been stated that hazardous treatment causes the loss of 64 million disability-adjusted life years worldwide each year. Patient injury during healthcare delivery is acknowledged to be one of the top ten causes of death and disability worldwide.

Educating patients on the post-discharge care is indeed a simple yet effective way for nurses to increase patient safety. Nurses assist a successful recovery by working with patients so ensure they have a complete awareness of their medical condition or self-care regimen before they are discharged.

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In research conducted on marathon runners, what factor proved to be the best predictor of hyponatremia?
A. Gender of the runner
B. Weight gain at the end of the race
C. Time in which the race was completed
D. Body mass

Answers

Answer:

weight gain at the end of the race (aka B)

the nurse is assessing a client who, after an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ards). the nurse assesses for which most common early sign of ards?

Answers

The nurse looks for shortness of breath, which is typically the most prevalent early indication of acute respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS).

The stages of ARDS are ?Exudative, proliferative, and fibrotic stages are the three pathologic phases that patients with ARDS often go through as they move through the disease.Patients with ARDS are frequently given mechanical ventilation (through a ventilator) as care. A fitting face mask or a cannula placed over the nose may be used to administer oxygen to patients with less severe cases of ARDS.Breathing problems are frequently the first sign of ARDS. Other signs of ARDS include low blood oxygen levels, fast breathing, and clicking, bubbling, or rattling sounds made by the lungs during breathing.The nurse looks for shortness of breath, which is typically the most prevalent early indication of ARDS.        

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option 1: a 2-year-old child is brought into the urgent treatment clinic with persistent fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. consider the type of fluid and electrolyte losses this child is at risk for developing. be specific about fluids lost through fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. what other clinical manifestations of fluid and electrolyte imbalances will you need to watch for?

Answers

Dehydration is the main concern. The loss of fluids in a small child can become serious quickly. Fevers utilize fluids as part of the immune response. Vomiting empties the acidic contents of the stomach and prevents nourishment and fluids from passing into the small intestine for absorption.

What is Dehydration?Dehydration is, to put it simply, an imbalance in fluids and the loss of vital electrolytes. Dehydration can have negative repercussions if it persists for too long. 60–70% of the adult human body is made up of salt water. Water makes up 73% of the brain, 73% of the heart, 83% of the lungs, 50% of the blood, 64% of the skin, 79% of the muscle, and 73% of the kidneys. Every cell in the body is made up of water, and the electrolyte balance and control between the various parts of the body is what keeps it in good working order. Not simply the water itself, but also what the water contains, is the problem. If not treated right away, dehydration can have major side consequences, including the loss of function of internal muscles, which can be fatal.

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The child is at risk for developing dehydration due to the fever, vomiting, and diarrhea.

What is dehydration?

Dehydration is a condition caused by an imbalance of water and electrolytes in the body. It occurs when more fluids and electrolytes are lost than taken in, leading to a decrease in the amount of water in the body. Dehydration can be caused by a variety of factors, including excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, excessive urination, and inadequate fluid intake.

Fluid losses due to fever, vomiting, and diarrhea can include water, electrolytes such as sodium and potassium, and other minerals such as magnesium, calcium, and chloride. Clinical manifestations of fluid and electrolyte imbalances that should be monitored for include increased thirst, dry mouth, fatigue, confusion, decreased urine output, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and dizziness.

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Which of the following minerals plays the most important role in preventing dental caries or cavities

Answers

Answer:

Fluoride (F)

Explanation:

The mineral fluoride is crucial in preventing dental caries, sometimes known as cavities. Fluoride is a mineral that occurs naturally and is present in toothpaste, water, and food. Fluoride helps to build tooth enamel in the mouth, making it more resilient to the acid that causes cavities. Additionally, fluoride aids in repairing early tooth decay before a cavity forms.

Fluoride may be received in a number of ways, including fluoridated water, toothpaste, supplements, and tooth brushing. To assist prevent cavities, fluoride treatments like varnish or gel can also be administered to the teeth in a dental clinic. It's critical to remember that excessive fluoride can cause dental fluorosis, a disorder that causes white patches on the teeth. For advice on how much fluoride you or your children should be consuming, go to your dentist or pediatrician.

a client asks why they have a buildup of cerumen despite washing their ears every day. which statement will the nurse make in response?

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The nurse's response to the client who asks that why there is a buildup of cerumen despite washing their ears every day is "It is due to condition present of stenosis."

Your nerves that connect your spinal cord to your muscles may become compressed as a result of stenosis, a type of constriction. Although it can affect any portion of the spine, back and neck spinal stenosis is the most frequent type. The thoracic portion of your spine is what it is known as.

Hair follicles and glands surround the ear canal, producing cerumen, a sticky oil. There are instances when the glands create more wax than the ear can easily remove. In the ear canal, this additional wax could solidify and block the ear. The exterior, middle, and inner structures of the ear are present.

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