The selection coefficient of a single mutant, or its fitness in comparison to a common reference genotype, can be calculated using information about the progeny size, growth rate, or other relevant quantities.
Natural selection can lead to macroevolution, or a change in allele frequencies over time, with fitness-increasing alleles becoming more prevalent in the population over several generations. Relative reproductive success can be measured by fitness.
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Classify the following characteristics of water-soluble hormones and lipid-soluble hormones in the appropriate category.
1. receptor located on plasma membrane
2. initiates pathways that involve second messengers
3. functions as transcriptional activator or inhibitor
4. can influence multiple genes in a cell
receptor located in cytosol and nucleus
The water-soluble hormone has characteristics: receptor located on the plasma membrane and initiates pathways that involve second messengers. While lipid- soluble hormones have characteristics are: function as transcriptional activators or inhibitors and can influence multiple genes in a cell receptor located in the cytosol and nucleus.
Hormones that are water-soluble are amines and proteins that actively flow through the cell membrane. The target cell membrane's extracellular surface is where the receptors for each type of water-soluble hormone are expressed.
Lipid-derived (soluble) hormones can enter the cell by passing through the plasma membrane, binding to DNA, and changing the activities of the cell by encouraging the creation of proteins that have an overall impact on the cell's long-term structure and function.
Lipid-soluble hormones enter the target cell and diffuse through the plasma membrane where they bind to a receptor protein. Water-soluble hormones attach to a protein receptor on the cell's plasma membrane.
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a new experimental pesticide is being tested by a large agricultural chemical company. an unfortunate side effect in plants treated with this new product is a decrease in nadph production in the chloroplasts due to an inhibition of the enzyme nadp reductase. the photosynthetic etc and the proton gradient are not affected. (interestingly, reduction of nad to nadh in the mitochondria is unaffected.) given this observation, what specific change(s), if any, would you expect to observe in the amounts of the following molecules in the chloroplasts of these plants:
Photosynthesis is the process that produces carbon sugars using the energy derived from light. One component of photosynthesis, the light dependent reactions, produces ATP and NADPH which is necessary for other reactions in photosynthesis.
An organic substance called adenosine triphosphate (ATP) gives energy to a multitude of biological functions in living cells, such as muscular contraction, nerve signal transmission, condensate dissolution, and chemical synthesis. ATP, which is sometimes referred to as the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer, is present in all known forms of life. It either transforms into adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or adenosine diphosphate (ADP) when absorbed via metabolic activities (AMP). There are several ways to recover ATP. The body of the typical person recycles as much ATP per day as they weigh. It also performs a number of other tasks as a coenzyme and precursor to DNA and RNA.
The complete question is:
A new experimental pesticide is being tested by a large agricultural chemical company. An unfortunate side effect in plants treated with this new product is a decrease in ATP production in the chloroplasts. (Interestingly, the production of ATP in the mitochondria is unaffected.) Given this observation, which of the following would be expected to be DIRECTLY affected by the new pesticide?
A. the transport of electrons along the photosynthetic electron transport chain
B. the oxidation of RuBP by rubisco
C. the carboxylation of RuBP by rubisco
D. the synthesis of triose phosphates from 3-phosphoglycerate
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The earliest land plants were liverworts, mosses and ferns. Using the information that you learned in the section, why do you think that these plants were successful in the humid and moist ancient environment? What about these plants makes them unable to thrive in areas with drier climates today? What makes angiosperms and gymnosperms more successful in these climates?
The earliest land plants, such as liverworts, mosses, and ferns, were successful in the humid and moist ancient environment because they were well-adapted to absorb and retain water in their tissues. These plants have simple root systems and lack vascular tissue, which helps them to absorb water and nutrients from their surroundings more efficiently. They also have a high surface area to volume ratio, which allows them to absorb water through their leaves and stems as well.
However, these plants are not well-suited to thrive in drier climates because they lack the specialized structures that allow them to conserve water and protect themselves from desiccation. They also have limited capabilities for seed production and dispersal, which can make it difficult for them to colonize and establish themselves in new environments.
Angiosperms and gymnosperms, on the other hand, are more successful in drier climates because they have developed specialized structures and strategies to conserve water and protect themselves from desiccation. These include features such as thick, waxy cuticles on their leaves, stomata that can open and close to regulate water loss, and seed production and dispersal mechanisms that allow them to colonize new environments more effectively. These adaptations allow angiosperms and gymnosperms to thrive in a wider range of environments, including those with drier climates.
Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?
(a) nutrient availability, soil pH, light
(b) precipitation, wind, temperature intensity
(c) predation, competition, disease
(d) all of the above
d) all of above are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities.
Abiotic components or abiotic variables are non-living chemical and physical elements of the environment that have an impact on living things and the health of ecosystems in biology and ecology. Biology as a whole is supported by abiotic causes and the phenomena that go along with them. They have an impact on a wide range of species, including marine and land animals, in many kinds of environmental settings. Abiotic elements of a species' habitat can be created or altered by humans. For example, human-produced greenhouse gases can alter the pH levels of the ocean and have an impact on the habitat of snails.
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What is the correct order of mitosis?
There are five of these phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. As the final physical cell division after telophase, cytokinesis is frequently regarded as the sixth stage of mitosis.
Which sequence do the five stages of mitosis follow?Traditionally, mitosis is broken down into 5 phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis.
How do mitosis and meiosis work?The process of cell division that produces sperm and egg cells is known as meiosis. A crucial aspect of life is mitosis. A cell divides into two identical daughter cells after duplicating every component of it, including its chromosomes, during the mitotic process.
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Order the species pairs from fewest single nucleotide differences (1) to most single nucleotide differences (4).
Rank the options below.
chimpanzee and gorilla
tiger and frog
human and mouse
finch and earthworm
Gorillas and chimps,Mouse and human,Frog with a tiger,earthworm and finch
The Sequence Viewer suitable methods may be used to look for reference SNPs from the NCBI SNP database for human sequences, such as rs4970989. If the SNP is located in the assembly or molecule, the view shifts to be near the SNP, and a marking is placed automatically. The genomes of the chicken & duck should differ the least from one another. Humans and chimpanzees share nearly all of the same genes. The OPN1LW gene, that enables both animals to see the color red, is present in both. The Indian muntjac is the mammal species with the fewest chromosomes known to exist, with just 6 in females and 7 in males (the extra chromosome being the Y chromosome).
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asian long-horned beetles, introduced into north america, lay their eggs in almost any available deciduous tree. the larvae eat the soft bark and sap, making it difficult for nutrients to reach other parts of the tree, then burrow into the middle of it, leaving large tunnels and weakening the tree. adult beetles emerge from the tree by burrowing through the bark, leaving large holes. many trees do not survive these infestations. asian long-horned beetles thus impact native species by
The adult beetles apparently hitchhiked from China in wooden packing materials, emerging once the materials arrived in New York Harbor.
How did Ontario get the Asian longhorned beetle?When infested wood from plantations was utilized as packaging material for goods being exported to North America, the beetle was introduced into Canada. In the early 1990s, ALB was initially discovered in the US and Canada.
How harm trees do longhorn beetles?Asian longhorned beetles feed on the tissue of the trees they attack, tunneling through the trees and causing serious damage. Eggs are laid in tree bark by adult Asian longhorn beetles. Next, the larvae burrow into the tree. They are larvae that devour tree tissue for the majority of their lives.
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which phylogenetic tree has trait marks on all the branches where evolution occurs?Choanoflagellates + Porifera +Ctenophora Cnidaria Bilateria Choonoflagellates Porifera -Ctenophora Cridaria Bilateria Choanoflagellates Porifera -Ctenophora Cnidaria + Bilateria Choanoflagellates Porifera -Ctenophora Cnidaria cridoria Bilateria
All branches on the tree are highlighted with a verticle trait mark where evolution occurs. The correct option to this question is C.
A phylogenetic tree is a branching diagram or tree that depicts the relationships that have developed over time between different biological species or other entities based on the similarities and variances in their genetic or physical traits. One evolutionary tree represents all life on Earth and shows their shared ancestry.
Three major groupings are represented by the tree's branches: Eukaryota (middle branch, letters j to p), Bacteria (left branch, letters a to I and Archea (right branch, letters q to z). The list of organisms that go with each letter.
Phylogenetic trees can be used to describe and understand character evolution as well as to predict the future as dynamic hypotheses of genealogy and character change.
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Which of the following is not a form of derivative classification?
It is not derivative classification to copy or duplicate already-classified information, such as by photocopying a document.
What in the derivative categorization process is not a step?Every stage in derivative classification is listed here, WITH THE EXCEPTION of the initial judgement that information has to be protected from unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
What categories do derivatives fall under?
The term "derivative classification" refers to the process of integrating, paraphrasing, restating, or creating in new form already classified information and classifying the newly created material in accordance with the classification markings that apply to the source information.
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camillia is iron deficient. which of the following actions should she take to enhance her body's iron absorption? check all that apply.check all that applyconsume vitamin c-rich foods or supplements along with iron-containing plant foods.consume vitamin c-rich foods or supplements along with iron-containing plant foods.eat heme and nonheme iron foods together.eat heme and nonheme iron foods together.eat high-fiber foods that are rich sources of phytic and oxalic acids.eat high-fiber foods that are rich sources of phytic and oxalic acids.
She should take steps to improve her body's absorption of iron, such as eating foods high in vitamin C or taking supplements, in addition to plant foods that contain iron.
How can we boost and improve iron absorption?Vitamin C improves the absorption of both heme and non-heme iron. Four ounces, or half a cup, of orange juice is all that is required to increase iron absorption. Additional sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, fresh bell peppers, strawberries, melon, and broccoli.
How can the preparation of low-fat foods containing beta-carotene improve the body's absorption of this provitamin?After cooking, you can add margarine or olive oil to the vegetables. The general populace occasionally uses vitamin supplements for medicinal and/or preventive purposes.
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In the Southern Hemisphere, winds associated with a low-pressure system blow ____.
In the Southern Hemisphere, winds associated with a low-pressure system blow clockwise toward the center.
In the Southern Hemisphere, winds move clockwise around areas of high pressure and anticlockwise around areas of low pressure. Take a ball (or an apple, an orange, or anything spherical! ), and you can easily understand why this is the case. Indicate a location on your sphere's poles and equator, and then mark another location in the "northern hemisphere" and "southern hemisphere." Turn the sphere. Tilt your sphere so that you are looking at it from the North Pole while it is still rotating; the northern hemisphere point should be rotating counterclockwise. Now, tilt the sphere so that you are staring at the "south pole," making sure to maintain rotating it in the same way. The point in the southern hemisphere should be revolving counterclockwise. The Coriolis effect is not explained by this demonstration.
Hence, low-pressure system winds flow clockwise in the direction of the centre in southern hemisphere.
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Which of the following is the best definition of cross contamination?
In cross-contamination, hazardous bacteria are physically moved or transferred from one person, object, or location to another. Cross-contamination must be avoided if foodborne illness is to be avoided.
What does contamination mean in its simplest form?To taint, pollute, defile, or to make impure or dirty. To be contaminated means to be exposed to or come into contact with mud or other unpleasantness (logically enough, it derives from the Latin word tangere, meaning "to touch").
What three forms of cross contamination are there?Cross contamination can take a variety of forms. It occurs when bacteria or other germs are transferred from one substance to another. Transfer of chemicals, poisons, or allergens in food are examples of other types of cross contamination.
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For sneaky snakes, being rude (R) is dominant to being respectful (r). Complete the cross below, and determine the phenotype (dominant : recessive) ratio.
(PUNNETT SQUARE)
... R r
r #1 #2
r #3 #4
2 (#5) : 2 (#6)
Column A
1.__#1
2.__#2
3.__#3
4.__#4
5.__#5
6.__#6
Column B
a.sneaky
b.Rr
c.sweet
d.RR
e.rude
f.respectful
g.rr
The male snake will have genotype RRSS, in accordance with the question, whereas the female snake will have genotype rrss.
The four identical gametes that the male snake produces will contain the genetic combination "RS," whereas the four identical gametes that the female snake produces will have the genetic combination "rs."
Attached is a cross that shows the genotypes of their progeny.
The "Punnett square diagram" makes it evident that all of their offspring will have the genotype "RrSs," which simply implies that all of their offspring will be heterozygous dominant and, as a result, phenotypically rude and cunning. Additionally, it suggests that there will be no kids with the rrss genotype, which might make it receptive and sincere, making the chance zero.
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According to the question, the female snake will have genotype rrss, whereas the male snake will have genotype RRSS.
The genetic combination "RS" will be present in the four identical gametes that the male snake produces, whereas "rs" will be present in the four identical gametes that the female snake produces.
A cross that displays the genotypes of their offspring is attached.
The genotype "RrSs" simply denotes that all of their offspring will be heterozygous dominant and, as a result, phenotypically rude and cunning. The "Punnett square diagram" makes it clear that all of their progeny will have this genotype. Additionally, it implies that there won't be any offspring with the rrss gene, which may make them receptive and truthful, effectively eliminating the possibility.
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human milk naturally contains antibodies and other unique immune system factors that are not in infant formulas.
human milk includes unique immune system , antibodies, white blood cells, stem cells, and other live cells that cannot be added to formula.
Antibodies in human milk have the ability to combat illness. Colostrum, the first human milk produced after childbirth, has significant concentrations of such antibodies. However, during a mother's nursing period, antibodies are still present in breastmilk.Additionally, ear infections and gastrointestinal ailments are less common in breastfed infants. Human milk carries antibodies from the mother to the newborn. These antibodies help protect newborns from sickness and support the development of their unique immune systems.
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which of the following procedures could be used to verify that a new promoter has been cloned into the receving plasmid?
Successful cloning of student promoters can be verified by change of colony color, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or DNA sequencing.
A given DNA segment can be quickly multiplied (amplified) into millions or billions of copies using the polymerase chain reaction (abbreviated PCR), allowing for more in-depth analysis. In PCR, a section of the genome to be amplified is chosen using short synthetic DNA fragments called primers.
Multiple rounds of DNA synthesis are then used to amplify that segment. Finding the nucleic acid sequence, or the order of nucleotides in DNA, is the process of DNA sequencing.
The four bases—adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine—are arranged in this way using any technique or technology.
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the study of eukaryotic organisms that invade the body and cause disease is specifically referred to as ___
Parasitology is the scientific paper of eukaryotic organisms which infect humans and cause illness.
Eukaryotes come in four different categories: protists, fungus, animals, and plants. An creature called a eukaryote has cells with a more intricate internal structure. Eukaryotes, one of three kingdoms of life, make up all vast complex creatures. A cellular membranes, cell wall, mitochondria, or cytoskeleton may make up a eukaryotic cell.Parasitology is the scientific paper of eukaryotic organisms which infect humans and cause illness. The large collection of different microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, and eukarya, that make up the human GI tract is referred to as the "gut microbiota." Eukaryotes include protists, fungi, plants, and animals. Eukaryotes are all multicellular creatures. Eukaryotes can have just one cell.
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Which oceanic zone has the most organisms?; Which zone is in the open ocean?; Which zone or layer of the ocean is the largest of the ocean zones?; Which zone has the most biodiversity?
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Which of the following are processes that change the allele frequencies of a gene in a population? There are 5 correct answers. Natural selection Sexual selection Mutation Gene flow Inbreeding Sexual reproduction Genetic drift
The factors that alter the allele frequencies of a gene in a population are natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow.
What is natural selection?
The method through which populations of living things adapt and transform is called natural selection. The fact that each person in a population is unique in certain aspects is referred to as natural variation. Because of this difference, some people have characteristics that are more environment-appropriate than others. A person is more likely to survive and reproduce if they possess adaptive traits, or traits that give them an advantage. The adaptive features are then transmitted to the progeny by these people. These helpful qualities spread across the population over time. Positive qualities are passed down across generations through this process of natural selection.
It is possible for natural selection to result in speciation, in which one species gives rise to a brand-new, distinctly unique species.
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Do sister chromatids separate in mitosis?
M Phase: The M phase is when mitosis actually starts. Sister chromatids split off from the original chromosomes by the time M phase is complete, creating a new cell.
Sister chromatids split apart during meiosis?As the sister chromatids separate during meiosis II, haploid cells with non-duplicate chromosomes are produced. Prophase II: Haploid cells produced during meiosis I serve as the starting cells. The chromosomes compact. At the metaphase plate, chromosomes align in metaphase II. Sister chromatids divide and go to the opposite ends of the cell during anaphase II.
Sister chromatids: do they exist during mitosis and meiosis?During mitosis or the second division of meiosis, the two sister chromatids are divided into two distinct cells and separated from one another.
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a hormone responds to food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release wuizlet
A hormone responds to the food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release a)bicarbonate. So, correct option is A.
The pancreas is an organ of the stomach related framework and endocrine arrangement of vertebrates. In people, it is situated in the midsection behind the stomach and works as an organ.
The stomach related proteins emitted by the pancreas into the small digestive tract require a marginally basic pH for ideal working.
These proteins are:
1. Proteases for protein breakdown.
2. Lipase for fat breakdown.
3. Amylase for starch breakdown.
Since the Chyme (the liquid containing somewhat processed food and gastric acids coming from the stomach to the small digestive system) is acidic, the arrival of bicarbonate and water by the pancreas kills this acidic chyme and make a marginally basic pH in which the pancreatic stomach related enzymes can work.
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
a hormone responds to the food entering the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release?
a) bicarbonate.
b) acid.
c) bile.
d) mucus.
It is not advised to introduce solid foods to an infant before 4 months of age because Multiple Choice 8 the young Infant's Gl tract is not mature enough to digest complex carbohydrates and proteins. the young Infant's kidney function is limited, the young infant is not able to sufficiently control his head and neck. All of these are reasons to delay the introduction of solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Prenatal dietary supplements containing iron may cause in some women. Multiple Choice 51:01 high blood sugar O brain fog gastrointestinal bleeding O constipation and nausea. For young children (ages 4 to 6), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends Multiple Choice 16 O limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day. limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid Ounces per day. consuming at least 8 fluid Ounces per day of fruit juice. limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid Ounces per day, Obesity during pregnancy is associated with BO Multiple Choice 00:50:29 O high blood pressure. O diabetes. O surgical complications. All of the choices.
All of these are reasons to wait to offer solid foods to a baby until they are between 4 and 6 months old, hence it is not recommended to do so before that age.
Some women may experience nausea and constipation from taking iron-rich prenatal nutritional supplements. The American Academy of Pediatrics advises between 112 and 212 litres per day for young children (ages 4 to 6), depending on age and gender. 100% fruit juices have been associated to obesity, fatty liver, and metabolic syndrome despite being widely believed to be a significant source of potassium and vitamin C for kids. Pregnancy obesity is linked to risks from surgery, diabetes, and high blood pressure.
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The introduction of invasive plant species all over the world and the resulting extinction of native, endemic species has led to reduced need for conservation taxonomic homogenization Alee effects habitat fragmentation
Taxonomic homogeneity has resulted through the global importation of invasive plant species and the subsequent demise of native, endemic species.
Perhaps the most well enough and extensively researched aspect of biotic homogeneity is taxonomic homogenization, as well as the two phrases are sometimes used interchangeably. The most accurate definition of it is a loss of variety, which means that various groups are becoming more taxonomically identical over time. Flora and flora. The definition of biotic homogenization is as follows: "the process through which species extinctions and invasions enhance the genetic similarity between two or more sites over a predetermined period of time. Although it is rarely specifically defined, homogenization is the process of replacing native species with alien ones that are typically brought in by humans. Homogenization decreases geographic diversity because it frequently substitutes widely cultivated species for rare indigenous ones.
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place the following events in activation of a b cell by a microbe in the order in which they would occur.
Events in activation of a b cell by a microbe in the order
1) A mature B cell expresses a particular type of B cell receptor on its cell membrane after differentiating from a lymphocyte stem cell.
2) The B cell's gene expression is changed, and the B cell starts to divide.
3) After several cycles of cell division, a large number of B cells bearing the same B cell receptor are created.
4) A foreign antigen is bound by the BCR (B cell receptor) of the B cell with high specificity and high affinity.
5) The B cell's second messenger signaling is turned on.
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Which of the following mechanisms is not directly involved in inactivating an activated RTK?
A) digestion of the RTK in lysosomes
B) dephosphorylation by serine/threonine phosphatases
C) dephosphorylation by protein tyrosine phosphatases
D) removal of the RTK from the plas ma membrane by endocytosis
The mechanism that is not directly involved in inactivating an activated RTK is A) digestion of the RTK in lysosomes.
In the field of biology, receptor tyrosine kinase can be described as proteins present on cell membrane receptors that help in cell signaling.
In order to activate the RTK, phosphorylation of the RTK is done through phosphateses such as serine, threonine and tyrosine.
In order to inactivate the RTK, dephosphorylation is dine by the serine, threonine and tyrosine. Deactivation can also be done by removing thr RTK from the plasma memebrane through the process of endocytosis.
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which of the following is an antemortem extravascular blood discoloration? hematoma livor mortis postmortem stain coloricity
Antemortem discoloration that occurs during the course of certain diseases such as gangrene and jaundice. antemortem, pin point extravascular blood discoloration visible as a purplish hemorrhages of the skin. blood discolorations occuring after death outside the blood vascular system, ie; postmortem stain.
Discoloration before death occuring on the outside of the blood vascular system; ecchymosis, hematomea, petechia, Tardieu spots (are pinpoint hemorrhages seen in areas of advance livor mortis. The pinpoint are the capillaries rupturing leaving darks spots. Can not be removed by arterial injection)
Do not respond will to arterial treatment, often causing formaldehyde gray.
Treatments can involve arterial, surface and hypodermic.
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the rachis is group of answer choices a. harder in domesticated wheat, owing to artificial selection. b. the part of the wheat plant early farmers turned into flour. c. softer in domesticated wheat, allowing easier access to the seed. d. the soft coating surrounding fruit preferred by early farmers.
The correct answer to the question about Rachis is option A) harder in domesticated wheat, owing to artificial selection.
A rachis stalk, which is the foundational component of a grass flower, serves as the inflorescence of a wheat plant. Between two and nine distinct flowers' florets make up each spikelet. An essential axis, or "shaft," is a rachis. The primary axis of a complex structure in plants is known as a rachis. The main, flower-bearing section of an inflorescence above a supporting peduncle, as in Acacia or ferns, or the main stem of a compound leaf. These are referred to as rachillae where it splits out into other branches. When a ripe head of wild-type wheat is touched or blown by the wind, it easily breaks into dispersal units.
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a plant that was heterozygous for purple axial flowers was pollinated by a plant that had white terminal flowers. determine the genotype of each parent, the gametes that are possibly produced, and the resulting possible genotypes of the offspring. then calculate the genotypic ratio and the phenotypic ratio of the potential offspring.
The genotypic and phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1:1 when a plant with heterozygous purple axial flowers is pollinated by a plant with white terminal flowers.
Let the gametes for the Heterozygous Purple Flower be (Pp), P, and p.
Let the gametes be Recessive White Flower: pp.
Fusion produces Pp (purple) and pp as a result (white).
There is a 1:1 phenotypic ratio.
It is therefore 50% purple and 50% white.
The children produced when a heterozygous purple flower (Pp) and a recessive white flower (pp) are crossed have the genotypes (Pp), (Pp), (pp), and (pp). Consequently, 50% of the offspring have purple flowers (Pp), while 50% have white flowers (pp).
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What happens to enzyme during reaction?; What do enzymes do during enzymatic reactions?; What happens to an enzyme during and after a reaction?; Are enzymes destroyed during the enzymatic reaction?
Enzymes are not reactants and are not used up throughout the reaction. An enzyme can be employed for other reactions after it has catalyzed a reaction and been freed from its binding to a substrate. This indicates that for each reaction, there does not need to be a 1:1 ratio between enzyme and substrate molecules.
Enzymes perform the critical task of lowering a reaction's activation energy—that is, the amount of energy that must be put in for the reaction to begin. In order to facilitate the chemical bond-forming and bond-breaking processes, enzymes attach to reactant molecules and keep them in place.
Enzymes are regenerated during a chemical reaction, not used up or changed as the reactants are. Enzymes are catalysts, meaning they speed up chemical reactions without being used up in the chemical reaction themselves.
Enzymes function most efficiently within a physiological temperature range. Since enzymes are protein molecules, they can be destroyed by high temperatures. An example of such destruction, called protein denaturation, is the curdling of milk when it is boiled.
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because eukaryotic genes contain introns, they cannot be translated by bacteria, which lack rna-splicing machinery. if you want to engineer a bacterium to produce a eukaryotic protein, you can synthesize a gene without introns. if you know the nucleotide sequence you can .
If we know the nucleotide sequence we can work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns.
What are Eukaryotic genes?
Eukaryotic genes are genes that are found in organisms with eukaryotic cells, such as plants, animals, fungi, and protists. They are composed of DNA which is wrapped around proteins called histones to form structures called chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes are typically larger and more complex than prokaryotic genes, and they often contain regions of non-coding DNA that are involved in the regulation of gene expression.
Define the term Introns?
Introns are non-coding regions of a gene that are removed from the pre-mRNA during the process of gene expression. They are also known as intervening sequences or intervening regions. Introns are typically found between exons, which are coding regions of a gene. They are removed from the pre-mRNA before it is translated into a protein. Introns are important for the regulation of gene expression and play a role in the evolution of genes.
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which of the following represents the correct order (from top to bottom) of the five sections of the vertebrae?
The correct order of five sections of vertebrae is cervical, thoracic, coccyx, sacrum, lumbar
The spine is made up of 33 bones, or vertebrae, that are split into five portions by the sacrum and coccyx, as well as the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine sections.
The cervical region of the spine consists of the atlas and axis, the top two vertebrae, also known as the joints that attach the cranium to the spine. The cervical region is in charge of the neck's movement and proper operation as well as the protection of the spinal cord, arteries, and nerves that connect the brain to the rest of the body.
The thoracic region of the spine is situated between the cervical and lumbar vertebrae at chest level. The rib cage is attached to the vertebrae in this area, which are designated T1 through T12.
The lumbar region is situated between the sacrum and the thoracic vertebrae. The primary weight-bearing portion of the spinal column is made up of the five lumbar vertebrae, which are numbered L1 to L5.
The part of the spine closest to the bottom is called the sacrum. Due to the fusion of its five levels, S1 to S5, it lacks discs that separate the vertebrae. At the sacrum portion, the pelvis and spinal column are joined.
The coccyx, which is made up of four fused vertebrae, is located at the very base of the spinal column.
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