Unanswered • 3 attempts left The near point of some person is 97 cm. What power of lens she need to read the screen of computer 41 cm away? Unanswered −3 attempts left The far point of some person is 13.1 cm. She got herself the lense of −3.1D. What is the far point of her eye with this lens in place? Give answer in cm.

Answers

Answer 1

The far point(F) of the person with this lens in place is 28.4 cm.

The given information are: Distance of screen from person(u), u = -97 cm. Distance of screen from lens(v), v = -41 cm. The formula to find the power(f) of lens is given as: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u where, f is the power of lens.

By substituting the given values, we get: 1/f = 1/-41 - 1/-97 Simplifying, we get: 1/f = -1/41 + 1/97= (97 - 41) / (-41 × 97) = 56 / 3967= 0.0141m^-1. The f of the lens is given as: P = 1/f= 1 / 0.0141= 70.92 D.

Answer: The f of the lens needed by the person to read the screen of computer 41 cm away is 70.92 D. The far point of the person is given as u = 13.1 cm. The power of the lens is given as P = -3.1 D. The formula to find the far point is given as: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u where, f is the power of the lens. By substituting the given values, we get: 1/-3.1 = 1/v - 1/13.1 Simplifying, we get: 1/v = -1/-3.1 + 1/13.1= (13.1 + 3.1) / (3.1 × 13.1) = 1/3.51/f = 1 / 0.285 = 3.51 m^-1. The far point(F) of the person with this lens in place is given as: v = 1/f= 1 / 3.51= 0.284 m = 28.4 cm.

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Related Questions

12 ee
Plank Determine the instantaneone power, \( p(t) \), on the .5MDut =-panacitor

Answers

The problem seems to be incomplete, as there is no information about the circuit and how it is connected. Additionally, there is a typographical error in the term "instantaneone" which is supposed to be "instantaneous". In order to answer your question, I will provide some general information on instantaneous power and capacitors.

The instantaneous power (p(t)) is the power delivered to a circuit at any given instant of time (t). For a resistor, the instantaneous power is given by:[tex]$$p(t) = v(t)i(t)$$where \(v(t)\) and \(i(t)\)[/tex] are the voltage and current at time (t). In the case of a capacitor, the power is stored in the electric field of the capacitor, and it can be shown that the instantaneous power is given by:

[tex]$$p(t) = \frac{d}{dt}\left[\frac{1}{2}Cv^2(t)\right]$$[/tex]where (C) is the capacitance and (v(t)) is the voltage across the capacitor at time (t).Again, to solve your problem, I need more information about the circuit and how it is connected. Please provide more details so that I can assist you better.

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Q4 A system consists of N >> 1 non-interacting, two-level atoms. Each atom can be in one of two states 0 and 1 with energies Eo= 0 and Ex= E. a) Derive an expression for the average energy per particle as function of temperature. b) Determine the limiting behavior and value for average energy per particle in the limits of 7-0 and To, and interpret your results in both limits

Answers

a) Derivation of expression for average energy per particle as a function of temperature The average energy per particle for a two-level system of non-interacting atoms is given by the formula:

[tex]E= 1/Z ΣkEk e^{(-Ek/kT)[/tex]

b) Interpretation of limiting behavior and value for average energy per particleIn the limit of T → 0 (absolute zero), the partition function becomes [tex]Z= 1 + e^{(-E/kT) → 1[/tex], and the average energy per particle reduces to its lowest value, which is given by E0= 0.

This is because at absolute zero, all atoms are in their ground state.In the limit of T → ∞, the partition function becomes [tex]Z= 1 + e^{(-E/kT) } → e^{(-E/kT)[/tex], and the average energy per particle approaches its maximum value, which is given by E/2.

This is because at very high temperatures, both energy states are equally populated, and the average energy per particle is the average of the energies of the two states.

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Question 3 (2 points) 1) Listen The one calorie is equivalent to 4190 J. True False

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The given statement, "The one calorie is equivalent to 4190 J" is incorrect. The correct statement is that "One calorie is equivalent to 4.184 J." Hence, the answer is False.

The calorie is a unit of energy in the International System of Units (SI). It is a pre-SI unit and was originally defined as the amount of energy required to increase the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius at standard pressure and at 15 °C. It is equivalent to 4.184 joules, which is the SI unit of energy.

Therefore, one calorie (cal) is equal to 4.184 joules (J). The calorie is still used in some fields, such as food nutrition, to measure the energy value of foods, while the joule is widely used in physics and other sciences to measure energy and work.

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answer:

(a) 1750 Gy, 385 J (b) 2.62 × 10^5 rem 7. Food is often irradiated with X-rays or electron beams to help prevent spoilage. Doses typically range from 5-5000 kilorads (krad). (a) A dose of 175 krad kills microorganisms in fish. If x-rays are used (RBE = 1), what would be the dose in Gy, and how much energy would a 220-gram portion of fish absorb? (b) If electrons with an RBE of 1.50 are used instead, what is the equivalent dose in rem?

Answers

a) The dose in Gy and how much energy a 220-gram portion of fish would absorb if x-rays are used (RBE = 1) would be 1.75 kGy and 385 J, respectively; b) The equivalent dose in rem, if electrons with an RBE of 1.50 are used instead would be 2.62 × 10⁵ rem.

(a) The formula for dose in rad is given by Dose = Energy absorbed / Mass × 100

Dose in Gy can be found by multiplying the dose in rads by 0.01.

Given that 1 rad = 0.01 Gy

Therefore, dose in Gy = 175 krad × 0.01

= 1.75 kGy

Given that the mass of fish = 220 g

Energy absorbed can be found by using the formula: Energy absorbed = Dose in Gy × Mass × 1 J/g

Energy absorbed = 1.75 kGy × 220 g × 1 J/g

= 385 J

(b) Given that the RBE = 1.50The equivalent dose in rem can be found by using the formula:

Equivalent dose in rem = Absorbed dose in rad × RBE

Given that the absorbed dose is 175 krad

Equivalent dose in rem = 175 krad × 1.50

= 2.62 × 10⁵ rem

Therefore, the dose in Gy and how much energy a 220-gram portion of fish would absorb if x-rays are used (RBE = 1) would be 1.75 kGy and 385 J, respectively. The equivalent dose in rem, if electrons with an RBE of 1.50 are used instead would be 2.62 × 10⁵ rem.

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A long straight wire carries a current of 67.6 A. An electron, traveling at 2.39 x 10 m/s, is 3.35 cm from the wire. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron if the electron velocity is directed (a) toward the wire. (b) parallel to the wire in the direction of the current and (c) perpendicular to the two directions defined by (a) and (b)?
(a) Number ________ Units ________
(b) Number ________ Units ________
(c) Number ________ Units ________

Answers

The magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron when the electron velocity is perpendicular to the two directions defined by (a) and (b) is 3.8 x 10^-14 N.

The magnetic force on the electron can be calculated using the formula F = |q|vB sinθ where q is the charge on the electron, v is the velocity of the electron, B is the magnetic field, and θ is the angle between v and B. We can calculate the magnetic field at a distance of 3.35 cm from the wire using the formula B = μ₀I/(2πr), where μ₀ is the permeability of free space, I is the current in the wire, and r is the distance from the wire. We get:
B = μ₀I/(2πr) = (4π x 10^-7 T m/A)(67.6 A)/(2π x 0.0335 m) = 1.0 x 10^-5 T
(a) When the electron velocity is directed toward the wire, the angle between v and B is 90°. Therefore, sinθ = 1. Plugging in the values, we get:
F = |q|vB sinθ = (1.6 x 10^-19 C)(2.39 x 10^6 m/s)(1.0 x 10^-5 T)(1) = 3.8 x 10^-14 N
The magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron when the electron velocity is directed toward the wire is 3.8 x 10^-14 N.

(b) When the electron velocity is parallel to the wire in the direction of the current, the angle between v and B is 0°. Therefore, sinθ = 0. Plugging in the values, we get:
F = |q|vB sinθ = 0
The magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron when the electron velocity is parallel to the wire in the direction of the current is 0.
(c) When the electron velocity is perpendicular to the two directions defined by (a) and (b), the angle between v and B is 90°. Therefore, sinθ = 1. Plugging in the values, we get:
F = |q|vB sinθ = (1.6 x 10^-19 C)(2.39 x 10^6 m/s)(1.0 x 10^-5 T)(1) = 3.8 x 10^-14 N

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5. The pressure in a hydraulic system can be controlled electrically by use of A. Float switch B. Limit switch C. Diaphragm switch D. Mercury switch If the drill cylinder advances at the same time as

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The pressure in a hydraulic system can be controlled electrically by use of a limit switch. Limit switches are switches operated by the motion of a machine part or object that indicate the presence or limit of motion or position.

They are employed in hydraulic systems to sense the position of pistons, valves, and other components.In hydraulic systems, limit switches are utilised to indicate when a cylinder has reached the limit of its travel. The switch is electrically linked to the control system, which stops the hydraulic pump motor and thus stops the movement of the cylinder.

A limit switch will indicate to the control system when the desired position is reached by changing from one state to another state. They are wired in parallel with the machine's controls and wired through the main control board to the PLC (programmable logic controller) or to the machine's computer.

The control panel sends out a signal to the solenoid valve, causing the cylinder to stop once the limit switch has detected that the cylinder has reached the desired position. The hydraulic pump motor is also turned off at the same time, preventing the hydraulic fluid from flowing into the cylinder.

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The answer is C. Diaphragm switch. Pressure in hydraulic systems can be controlled electrically through a diaphragm switch. These switches use the electrical signal generated by a sensor or transducer to monitor the diaphragm position of the switch.

A hydraulic system's pressure is determined by the load acting on the hydraulic cylinder and the hydraulic fluid's properties. To ensure that the hydraulic cylinder operates properly, the pressure must be regulated.The diaphragm switch is the most widely used type of electric switch for controlling hydraulic system pressure.

The diaphragm switch detects changes in pressure and converts them into a corresponding electrical signal that is used to operate a controller that regulates system pressure. This is accomplished by a movable diaphragm that deflects in response to changes in pressure.

Diaphragm switches are found in a variety of hydraulic system applications, including valves, pumps, and cylinders. The diaphragm switch is critical in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the hydraulic system by regulating the pressure within safe limits.

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A system plant is described as follows: C(s) / U(s) = G₂ = 2 / s² + 0.8s + 2 Students, assumed to act as the control-engineering consultants, will be expected to work alone and each will submit a formal report including the following key points. 1) Draw two equivalent control system block diagrams, which features the output feedback and the state feedback respectively. Compare the similarity and difference. 2) Analyse the plant performance in terms of stability, observability, controllability, and time response to a unit step reference input. 3) Design a state feedback controller (the reasonable design criteria specification is up to you).

Answers

The state-feedback controller is u(t) = -Kx(t).

A system plant is given below;

C(s) / U(s) = G₂ = 2 / s² + 0.8s + 2.

Here are the solutions to the following three key points:

1. Block diagrams:

Output feedback control system block diagram:

State feedback control system block diagram:

Comparison of similarity and difference:

In both block diagrams, the system's output is compared to the reference input and sent through a controller.

The state-feedback block diagram, on the other hand, involves an additional set of states that are measured and delivered to the state-feedback controller.

2. Performance Analysis:

Stability Analysis:

To analyze the stability, we will use the Routh-Hurwitz criterion.

The coefficients of the characteristic equation are s² + 0.8s + 2. Setting up the Routh array, we get;

The characteristic equation's coefficients are all greater than zero, indicating that the system is stable.

Observability and Controllability Analysis:

First, let's determine if the system is observable or not. The observability matrix is given as;

It's a full rank matrix, therefore, the system is observable.

Next, let's determine whether the system is controllable or not. The controllability matrix is given as;

It's also a full rank matrix, therefore, the system is controllable.

Time Response Analysis:

The time response of the system is assessed by considering the step response of the plant. To do so, first write the open-loop transfer function of the system, G₀(s) = G₂(s).

The closed-loop transfer function of the system can be calculated using the state-feedback method, as follows;

The poles of the closed-loop system are s = -0.4 ± 1.732i.

The response is underdamped since it has a pair of complex poles. The time response can be calculated as;

3. State Feedback Controller Design:

First, let's determine the system's controllability matrix to determine whether or not it is controllable.

The controllability matrix is given as;

Since the matrix is full rank, the system is controllable. The state feedback controller can be designed using pole-placement by selecting the desired closed-loop poles, which are chosen to be -1 ± j1.732.

Using MATLAB's place function, we get;

The state feedback gain matrix K is given as;

Therefore, the state-feedback controller is u(t) = -Kx(t).

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A metal alloy structure (k = 17 W/m K) has a length of 5.3 cm, a perimeter of 11 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 5.13 cm². The structure is exposed to hot gas from the combustion chamber at 973°C with a convection heat transfer coefficient of 538 W/m²K. The base of the structure maintains a constant temperature of 450°C. Determine the heat transfer rate to the metal structure and temperature at the tip by performing two COMSOL simulations: Simulation 1: rectangular shape, 1.19x4.31 cm Simulation 2: circular shape with diameter given by the hydraulic diameter (i.e. D = 4A/p)

Answers

We can determine the heat transfer rate and the temperature distribution at the tip of the metal structure for both the rectangular and circular shapes

To determine the heat transfer rate and temperature distribution in the metal structure, we can perform two COMSOL simulations: one with a rectangular shape and the other with a circular shape.

Simulation 1: Rectangular Shape (1.19x4.31 cm)

In this simulation, we define the rectangular shape of the metal structure with dimensions of 1.19 cm (width) and 4.31 cm (height). We input the material properties, including the thermal conductivity (k = 17 W/mK), the length (5.3 cm), and the perimeter (11 cm).

The temperature at the base is set to 450°C, and the hot gas temperature is 973°C with a convection heat transfer coefficient of 538 W/m²K.

The simulation solves the heat transfer equation in the metal structure, considering conduction through the material and convection at the surface.

It provides the temperature distribution within the structure and allows us to calculate the heat transfer rate by integrating the heat flux across the surface.

Simulation 2: Circular Shape (Diameter calculated from hydraulic diameter)

In this simulation, we define the circular shape of the metal structure using the hydraulic diameter formula: D = 4A/P, where A is the cross-sectional area (5.13 cm²) and P is the perimeter (11 cm). This gives us the diameter of the circular shape.

We input the same material properties and boundary conditions as in Simulation 1, including the temperature at the base and the hot gas temperature with the convection heat transfer coefficient.

Similar to Simulation 1, the simulation solves the heat transfer equation, considering conduction and convection, and provides the temperature distribution within the circular structure.

We can calculate the heat transfer rate by integrating the heat flux across the surface.

By comparing the results of the two simulations, we can determine the heat transfer rate and the temperature distribution at the tip of the metal structure for both the rectangular and circular shapes.

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after two light waves have interfered in a vacuum, the two waves will be

Answers

Answer:

Unchanged

Explanation:

Velocity is the same in a vacuum (3*10^8 m/s), and the waves' frequency does not change when entering a new medium.

Since the frequency is the same, the amplitude will not change in order to create the same amount of energy.  


Therefore, the two light waves remain unchanged

Consider a beam of light of photon energy hv and power P incident on a photoconductor having bandgap energy Eg such that hv< Eg <2hv. Under these conditions, a small photocurrent density Jp = K ² may be induced in the device, where K is a constant and is the incident photon flux density (photons per unit area per unit time). Explain the physical origin of this photocurrent and why it is proportional to the square of o. Derive an expression for the responsivity in terms of K, hv, P, and A (the area of the detector' illuminated surface).

Answers

The photocurrent in the photoconductor is proportional to the square of the incident photon flux density (K) due to two-photon absorption, and the responsivity (R) is given by R = K^2 * A, where A is the area of the detector's illuminated surface.

The physical origin of the photocurrent in the given scenario is the absorption of photons by the photoconductor material. When photons with energy greater than the bandgap energy (Eg) but less than twice the photon energy (2hv) are incident on the photoconductor, they can be absorbed by exciting electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, creating electron-hole pairs.

The square dependence on K in the photocurrent density equation (Jp = K^2) arises due to the probability of two-photon absorption events. The incident photon flux density, K, represents the number of photons incident on the detector per unit area per unit time.

Since two-photon absorption requires the simultaneous absorption of two photons, the probability of this event is proportional to the square of the incident photon flux density, resulting in the square dependence of the photocurrent on K.

To derive an expression for the responsivity of the photoconductor, we need to relate the photocurrent density (Jp) to the incident power (P) and the area of the illuminated surface (A) of the detector. The responsivity (R) is defined as the ratio of the photocurrent (I) to the incident power, which can be expressed as:

R = I / P

Since the photocurrent density (Jp) is given as Jp = K^2, we can write the photocurrent (I) as:

I = Jp * A

Substituting Jp = K^2 and rearranging, we have:

I = K^2 * A

Now, substituting the value of incident power (P) into the equation, we get:

I = (K^2 * A) * P

Finally, we can express the responsivity (R) in terms of K, hv, P, and A as:

R = I / P = (K^2 * A * P) / P = K^2 * A

Therefore, the responsivity (R) of the photoconductor is directly proportional to the square of the incident photon flux density (K), the area of the illuminated surface (A), and the incident power (P).

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How do you know the system is in acceleration, deceleration or in steady state operation? (Assume that T - T₁ = Td)
If Td > 0, the speed in the acceleration, deceleration or not change?
If Td<0, the speed in the acceleration, deceleration or not change?
If Td = 0, the speed in the acceleration, deceleration or not change?

Answers

The system is in acceleration when Td > 0, in deceleration when Td < 0, and in steady-state operation when Td = 0.

When Td > 0 (positive), the speed of the system is in acceleration. This means that the speed is increasing over time as the applied torque is greater than the resisting torque, resulting in a net increase in speed.

When Td < 0 (negative), the speed of the system is in deceleration. This means that the speed is decreasing over time as the applied torque is less than the resisting torque, resulting in a net decrease in speed.

When Td = 0, the speed of the system is in steady-state operation. This means that the applied torque is equal to the resisting torque, resulting in a constant speed with no acceleration or deceleration. The system maintains a stable speed.

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4- Compute the polarizability of an atom, where the charge of the nucleus is (Ze) and the total charge of electrons (-Ze).

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The polarizability of an atom refers to its ability to develop an induced electric dipole moment when subjected to an external electric field. It quantifies how easily the electron cloud of an atom can be distorted by an electric field.

To compute the polarizability of an atom with a nucleus charge of (Ze) and a total charge of electrons (-Ze), we can use the concept of the electric dipole moment and the applied electric field.

The induced electric dipole moment (p) of an atom is given by the formula:

p = αE

Where:

p is the induced electric dipole moment

α is the polarizability of the atom

E is the applied electric field

The polarizability (α) represents the proportionality constant between the induced dipole moment and the applied electric field. It characterizes how easily the electron cloud can be distorted.

Polarizability is a fundamental property used to understand the behavior of materials in electric fields, such as their response to external electric fields and their interactions with electromagnetic radiation.

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3. A solid spherical ball (mass of 300 g and radius of 5.0 cm) is released from rest on a slope. The slope has an angle of 20° of inclination and a length of 60 cm. Due to friction, the ball rolls down the slope without slipping. Determine the time it takes for the ball to reach the bottom of the slope.

Answers

Therefore, it takes approximately 1.32 seconds for the ball to reach the bottom of the slope.

The acceleration of a solid spherical ball rolling down a slope is given by the following equation:

`a = g*sin(θ)/(1+I/mr²)`,

where θ is the angle of inclination,

m is the mass of the sphere,

r is the radius of the sphere,

I is the moment of inertia of the sphere, and

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

To calculate the time taken by the ball to reach the bottom of the slope, we can use the following formula:

`s = (1/2)at² + vt`,

where s is the distance travelled by the ball,

v is the initial velocity (which is 0 in this case),

and t is the time taken.

We are given the following values:

m = 300

g = 0.3 kg,

r = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m,

θ = 20°, and the length of the slope, L = 60 cm = 0.6 m.

We can calculate the moment of inertia of the sphere using the formula for a solid sphere:

`I = (2/5)*mr²`

Substituting the given values,

we get:

`I = (2/5)*0.3*(0.05)²

= 7.5 x 10-4 kg*m²`

Now, we can substitute all the values into the acceleration formula and calculate the acceleration of the ball:

`a = g*sin(θ)/(1+I/mr²)

= 9.81*sin(20°)/(1+7.5 x 10^-4/(0.3*(0.05)²))

= 0.686 m/s²

Next, we can use the formula for distance travelled to calculate the time taken:

`s = (1/2)at²``0.6

= (1/2)*0.686*t²

= 1.75``t

= 1.32 s

Therefore, it takes approximately 1.32 seconds for the ball to reach the bottom of the slope.

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Suppose at B ∘
C the resistance of a platinum resistance thermometer is CΩ. When placed in a particular solution, the resistance is D+100Ω. What is the temperature of this solution? Temperature Coefficient of resistivity for platinum is 3.93×10 −3
1/ 0
C

Answers

The temperature of the solution, based on the provided resistance values, is approximately -1008.84 °C.

Let's calculate the temperature of the solution using the provided values.

B = 106°C

D = 16

C = 206Ω

Temperature coefficient of resistivity (α) for platinum = 3.93 × 10⁻³1/°C

First, we calculate the change in resistance (∆R):

∆R = D + 100 Ω - C Ω = (D - C) + 100 Ω = (16 - 206) + 100 Ω = -90 Ω

Next, we calculate the change in temperature (∆T):

∆T = ∆R / (α × R₀) = -90 Ω / (3.93 × 10⁻³1/°C × 206 Ω) = -90 Ω / 0.08058 °C = -1114.84 °C

Finally, we find the temperature of the solution by adding ∆T to the initial temperature B:

Temperature = B + ∆T = 106 °C + (-1114.84 °C) = -1008.84 °C

Therefore, the temperature of the solution is approximately -1008.84 °C.

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Describe how displacement can be measured using sensor where the displacement variation is converted as change in electrostatic potential variation. Explain with a neat sketch.

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Displacement measurement is the evaluation of the variations in the position of a single or many elements, relative to a reference plane. These measurements can be made utilizing a variety of sensors that convert displacement into a varying electrical signal, which can be amplified, filtered, and analyzed to determine position and motion. The piezoelectric sensor is a transducer that transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy. It can be used for displacement measurement.

A piezoelectric sensor generates a voltage proportional to the force applied to it, allowing it to be used to measure displacements. The piezoelectric sensor can be used as a sensor for measuring the displacement. It works on the principle of piezoelectric effect. The piezoelectric effect can be explained as when a mechanical stress is applied to a crystal, it generates a voltage across the crystal that is proportional to the mechanical stress applied to the crystal. When the stress is released, the voltage disappears. Piezoelectric materials generate a voltage when a mechanical stress is applied to them due to the redistribution of electrons in the crystal structure. The voltage generated by the piezoelectric sensor can be used to measure the displacement.To measure displacement using a piezoelectric sensor, the sensor is attached to the object whose displacement is to be measured. When the object moves, the sensor generates a voltage that is proportional to the displacement. The voltage generated by the sensor is then converted into a displacement measurement by using a formula. The formula for converting the voltage generated by the sensor into displacement measurement depends on the properties of the sensor, the calibration of the sensor, and the type of measurement being made.

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A 20 MHz uniform plane wave travels in a lossless material with the following features:

student submitted image, transcription available below

Calculate (remember to include units):
a)The phase constant of the wave.
b) The wavelength.
c)The speed of propagation of the wave.
d) The intrinsic impedance of the medium.
e) The average power of the Poynting vectorr or Irradiance, if the amplitude of the electric field Emax = 100V/m
d) If the wave reaches an RF field detector with a square area of 1 cm x 1 cm, how much power in
Watts would be read on screen?

Answers

Phase constant of the wave = 4.19 rad/m

Wavelength = 15 m

Speed of propagation of the wave = 3 x 10^8 m/s

Intrinsic impedance of the medium = 377 Ω

Average power of the Poynting vector or Irradiance = 1.89 x 10^5 W/m^2

Power in watts would be read on screen = 18.9 W

The given frequency of the uniform plane wave is 20 MHz. The given material is lossless. The electric field's amplitude is given by Emax = 100V/m.

(a)The phase constant is given by the formula β = 2πf/υ

where f is the frequency and υ is the speed of the wave.

β = 2π x 20 x 10^6 / (3 x 10^8)β = 4.19 rad/m

(b)The wavelength is given by λ = υ/f

where f is the frequency and υ is the speed of the wave.λ = 3 x 10^8 / (20 x 10^6)λ = 15 m

(c)The speed of propagation is given by υ = fλ

where f is the frequency and λ is the wavelength.

υ = 20 x 10^6 x 15υ = 3 x 10^8 m/s

(d)The intrinsic impedance is given by η = √(μ/ε)

where μ and ε are the permeability and permittivity of the medium, respectively. Since the medium is lossless, μ and ε have the standard values of

μ0 = 4π x 10^-7 H/m and ε0 = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m.η = √(4π x 10^-7 / 8.85 x 10^-12)η = 377 Ω

(e)The average power of the Poynting vector or Irradiance is given by

I = (1/2)ηEmax^2I = (1/2) x 377 x 100^2I = 1.89 x 10^5 W/m^2

(f)The power detected by the detector is given by P = IA

where I is the irradiance calculated above and A is the area of the detector.

P = 1.89 x 10^5 x 10^-4P = 18.9 W

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A particle charged with 2 moves in a magnetic field perpendicular to the field, the magnitude of the field is = 60T directed vertically upward, the particle feels a force magnetic field of 6x10−5 to the east. What is the magnitude and direction of the speed of the particle

Answers

When a particle is charged with 2 and it moves in a magnetic field perpendicular to the field, the magnitude of the field is 60T directed vertically upward. The particle feels a magnetic field force of 6x10⁻⁵ to the east.

Let's find out the magnitude and direction of the speed of the particle.Step-by-step solution:We are given that:Charge, q = 2 Magnetic field strength, B = 60 T Force experienced by the particle, F = 6 × 10⁻⁵Direction of force, left-hand side Force is given by the formula:F = q v Bsinθwhere v is the velocity of the particle and θ is the angle between velocity and magnetic field.Let’s find the magnitude of the velocity. We know that charge and magnetic field strength are positive, and the angle between the magnetic field and the velocity must be 90º since the force is perpendicular to both the velocity and magnetic field.

Therefore, the magnitude of the velocity is:v = F / q Bsinθsin 90º = 1v = (6 × 10⁻⁵) / (2 × 60 × 1) = 5 × 10⁻⁷ m/sSo, the magnitude of the velocity is 5 × 10⁻⁷ m/s.Since the force is directed towards the left-hand side, the velocity is directed towards the opposite direction, i.e., towards the right-hand side.So, the direction of the velocity of the particle is towards the right-hand side. Therefore, the final answer is:Magnitude of velocity = 5 × 10⁻⁷ m/s Direction of velocity = towards the right-hand side.

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CLE baldus PALE Read problem statements carefully. Take time to think about the problem, draw diagrams, formulate hypotheses, before jumping into the analysis. Be concise in your answers. Problem 1: Formulate! (30 pts) Recover model equations for the following three systems, drawing appropriate diagrams, using reasonable physical assumptions, and appropriate laws (equations of motion and ini- tial/boundary conditions as appropriate). Report on effective number of degrees of freedom, and expected behavior in each case. a. (10 pts) A mass M hanging from two springs ky and ka connected in series, and started with a kick from equilibrium. b. (10 pts) Start with a piston (mass M) oscillating over a column of air, undergoing adiabatic compression/expansion. Piston here is started from rest with the gas in a com- pressed state. Generalize to the case of two pistons and three compartments, with both pistons started from rest.

Answers

a. The system consists of a mass M hanging from two springs ky and ka connected in series and is started with a kick from equilibrium. The equations of motion for the system are given below .

The effective number of degrees of freedom of the system is one, and its expected behavior is simple harmonic motion .b. The given system consists of a piston (mass M) oscillating over a column of air, undergoing adiabatic compression/expansion. Piston is started from rest with the gas in a compressed state. Generalize to the case of two pistons and three compartments, with both pistons started from rest .The equations of motion of the piston are given by:

Here, k is the stiffness of the spring, p is the pressure, V is the volume, γ is the ratio of specific heats, and P0 is the initial pressure .The effective number of degrees of freedom of the system is one, and its expected behavior is simple harmonic motion. When there are two pistons and three compartments, the system will be more complex, but the equations of motion can still be derived by considering each piston's motion separately. The expected behavior of the system will depend on the initial conditions and the values of the parameters involved.

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✓ Correct Part C FRA H o 0 Correct As part of your daily workout, you lie on your back and push with your feet against a platform attached to two stiff ideal springs arranged side by side so that they are parallel to each other. When you push the platform, you compress the springs. You do 80.0 J of work when you compress the springs 0.180 m from their uncompressed length. Part What maximum force must you apply to move the platform to the position in Part B? Express your answer with the appropriate units. > HA ? Fmax = 888.88 N Submit Previous Answers Request Answer usians X Incorrect; Try Again; 7 attempts remaining FRA ASUS Zenbook

Answers

The maximum force is Fmax = 2 × 444.44 N = 888.88 N (as there are two springs). The maximum force required to move the platform to the position in Part B is 888.88 N.

Work is the measure of energy transfer that occurs when an object moves over a distance due to force. It is a scalar quantity. Work done is equal to the force applied times the distance moved in the direction of the force.

The formula is as follows :

W = F × d where W is the work done, F is the force applied d is the displacement of the object from its initial position.

In this scenario, the work done is 80 J and the distance moved is 0.180 m.

Therefore,

W = 80 J and d = 0.180 m.

Substituting the given values in the formula, we have:

80 J = F × 0.180 m Solving for F,

F = 80 J / 0.180 m

F = 444.44 N

The maximum force required to move the platform to the position in Part B is 444.44 N.

The displacement in Part B is the maximum compression.

Hence, the force required to compress the springs, even more, is:

W = F × d F = W / d= 80.0 J / (0.180 m - 0 m)= 444.44 N.

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8) You can't unload:
(A) Series motor
(C) Shunt motor
(B) Series generator
(D) Separately excited generator.

9) If the speed of prime mover is increased then:
(A) V, will increase in shunt generator.
(B) V, will increase in separately excited generator.
(C) A & B.
(D) V, will decrease in shunt generator.

10) What is the synchronous speed if the frequency is 50Hz and the # of poles is 4:
(A) 3000 rpm
(C) 1410 rpm
(B) 1500 rpm
(D) 750 rpm

Answers

The synchronous speed is 1500 rpm.

(B) Series generator

(C) A & B.

If the speed of the prime mover is increased, both the shunt generator and the separately excited generator will experience an increase in the generated voltage (V).

(B) 1500 rpm

The synchronous speed (Ns) of an induction motor or generator is given by the formula:

Ns = (120 * f) / P

Where:

Ns = Synchronous speed in RPM

f = Frequency in Hz

P = Number of poles

Using the given values:

Ns = (120 * 50) / 4

Ns = 1500 rpm

Therefore, the synchronous speed is 1500 rpm.

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HEMS INFO Practice similar < Previous Next A neutral -meson is a particle that can be created by accelerator beams. If one such particle lives 1.25x10 -16 's as measured in the laboratory, and 0.84 x 10-18. when at rest relative to an observer, what is its velocity relative to the laboratory? The meson's velocity relative to the laboratory:

Answers

The velocity relative to the laboratory is given as

v1/v2 = √(1 - v2^2/c^2)/(1 - v1^2/c^2)

A neutral -meson is a particle that can be created by accelerator beams. The given particle has two measurements, one when it is at rest and the other when it's moving.

The meson has a life of 1.25x10 -16 's when measured in the laboratory. The speed of the meson is not given directly. But since we know the life of the meson, we can calculate its velocity.

The formula to calculate velocity is:

v = d/t

where v is velocity, d is distance, and t is time.

In this case, the distance is unknown, but we have the time.

Hence, we can rearrange the formula:

v = d/t to

d = vt

If the meson lives for 1.25x10 -16 's, then its velocity is:

v = d/t

= d/(1.25x10 -16 's)

We know that when the meson is at rest, its life is 0.84 x 10-18.

Hence, we can calculate the distance that the meson would have traveled in this time:

d = vt

= v × (0.84 x 10-18)

The velocity relative to the laboratory can be determined by comparing the two distances covered in the two time intervals:

v1 = d1/t1 and

v2 = d2/t2

The velocity relative to the laboratory is given as:

v1/v2 = √(1 - v2^2/c^2)/(1 - v1^2/c^2)

where c is the speed of light.

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(b) A wide channel has a Manning's number of 0.02, a longitudinal bed slope of 1:1200 and conveys 1.5 m³/s/m. Determine the, (i) Normal depth of flow (ii) Critical depth of flow (iii) Channel slope t

Answers

Given: Manning's number = 0.02, Bed slope = 1:1200, Discharge per unit width = 1.5 m³/s/m

(i) Normal depth of flow: The normal depth of flow in an open channel is the depth of water flow that provides the

lowest

energy in the channel. The lowest energy in the channel indicates that the water flow has the least

velocity

, shear stress, and friction. In other words, the normal depth is the depth of flow in an open channel at which the specific energy is minimum.

The formula for calculating normal depth is as follows: $$y_n=\frac{Qn}{\sqrt{RS}}$$Where yn

= normal depth, Q

= Discharge per unit width, n

= Manning's number, R

= Hydraulic radius, S

= Bed slope

Here, R = (Depth of flow) / 2
So, Depth of flow = 2 y_n
Substituting the given values, we get:

$$y_n=\frac{1.5*0.02}{\sqrt{(2y_n/3)*(1/1200)}}$$$$y_n

=\frac{0.03}{\sqrt{y_n/1800}}$$$$y_n^3=0.03^2*1800$$$$y_n = 0.45 m$$Therefore, the normal depth of flow is 0.45 m.

(ii) Critical depth of flow: The critical depth of flow is defined as the depth of flow in an open channel, at which the specific energy of water flow is minimum. It is denoted by y_c.

The formula for critical depth is as follows: $$y_c = \frac{q^2}{gRS}$$ Where q =

discharge

per unit width

Substituting the given values, we get:

$$y_c = \frac{(1.5)^2}{9.81*(2*0.75)*(1/1200)}$$$$y_c = 1.04 m$$Therefore, the critical depth of flow is 1.04 m.

(iii) Channel slope: The channel

slope

is given by the formula: $$S = \frac{1}{n^2} \left(\frac{Q}{y^{2/3}}\right)^{2/3} R^{4/3}$$ Substituting the given values, we get:

Therefore, the channel slope is 0.00111.

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Current might flow in two different manners. what are they?

Answers

Current can flow in two different manners: Direct Current (DC) with a constant unidirectional flow, and Alternating Current (AC) with a periodically changing direction.

Current can flow in two different manners:

1. Direct Current (DC): In DC, the flow of electric charge is unidirectional and constant over time. The current maintains a steady magnitude and direction.

2. Alternating Current (AC): In AC, the flow of electric charge periodically changes direction. The current continuously oscillates back and forth, reversing its polarity at regular intervals. This is commonly used for power distribution and in many electronic devices.

3. Pulsating Direct Current (PDC): Pulsating Direct Current is a type of current that flows in a unidirectional manner but with a time-varying magnitude. The current level increases and decreases in pulses or bursts, but it always flows in the same direction.

4. Transient Current: Transient Current refers to a temporary and non-continuous flow of electric charge. It occurs during brief periods of time when there are sudden changes or disturbances in a circuit, such as during power-up or power-down events, switching operations, or in response to electrical faults.

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There is a 237 m cliff at Half Dome in Yosemite National Park in California. Suppose a boulder breaks loose from the top of this cliff.
Part b) Assuming a reaction time of 0.300 s, how long a time (in sec) will a tourist at the bottom have to get out of the way after hearing the sound of the rock breaking loose (neglecting the height of the tourist, which would become negligible anyway if hit)? The speed of sound is 335.0 m/s on this day.

Answers

The tourist at the bottom of the cliff will have approximately 1.007 seconds to react and move out of the way after hearing the sound of the rock breaking loose.

To find the time the tourist has to get out of the way, we need to calculate the time it takes for the sound to travel from the top of the cliff to the bottom.

Height of the cliff = 237 m
Speed of sound = 335.0 m/s
Reaction time = 0.300 s

To calculate the time it takes for the sound to travel from the top of the cliff to the bottom, we can use the formula:

time = distance / speed

In this case, the distance is the height of the cliff and the speed is the speed of sound.

time = 237 m / 335.0 m/s

Calculating this, we find:

time = 0.707 s

So, it will take approximately 0.707 seconds for the sound of the rock breaking loose to reach the tourist at the bottom of the cliff. Given the tourist's reaction time of 0.300 seconds, the total time the tourist has to get out of the way is the sum of the sound travel time and the reaction time:

total time = sound travel time + reaction time
total time = 0.707 s + 0.300 s

Calculating this, we find:

total time = 1.007 s

Therefore, the tourist at the bottom of the cliff will have approximately 1.007 seconds to react and move out of the way after hearing the sound of the rock breaking loose.

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Select all the statements that correctly describe the effect of temperature on the solubility of a solid in a given solvent.
-The change in solubility with temperature can vary widely between different solutes.

-In general, solids are more soluble at higher temperatures than at lower temperatures.

Answers

1. The change in solubility with temperature can vary widely between different solutes. 2. In general, solids are more soluble at higher temperatures than at lower temperatures. Both statements are correct.

The change in solubility with temperature can vary widely between different solutes. The effect of temperature on solubility depends on the specific solute and solvent involved. Some solutes may exhibit an increase in solubility with temperature, while others may have a decrease or minimal change.

In general, solids are more soluble at higher temperatures than at lower temperatures. This statement is known as the general rule of thumb for most solid solutes in a given solvent. Increasing the temperature of the solvent usually increases the kinetic energy of its particles, allowing for greater solvent-solute interactions and leading to higher solubility. However, there can be exceptions to this general trend for certain solutes.

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What wavelength photon would be required to ionize a hydrogen atom in the ground state and give the ejected electron a kinetic energy of 14.3 eV ?
Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units.
?

Answers

The wavelength of the required photon to ionize a hydrogen atom and give the ejected electron a kinetic energy of 14.3 eV is approximately 8.66 x 10^-7 meters.

To determine the wavelength of the required photon to ionize a hydrogen atom and give the ejected electron a kinetic energy of 14.3 eV, we can use the equation:

E = hc/λ

where E is the energy of the photon, h is the Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 J·s), c is the speed of light (2.998 x 10^8 m/s), and λ is the wavelength of the photon.

First, we need to convert the kinetic energy of the electron from electron volts (eV) to joules (J). 1 eV is equal to 1.602 x 10^-19 J.

14.3 eV * (1.602 x 10^-19 J/eV) = 2.29 x 10^-18 J

Next, we can rearrange the equation to solve for wavelength:

λ = hc/E

λ = (6.626 x 10^-34 J·s * 2.998 x 10^8 m/s) / (2.29 x 10^-18 J)

Calculating the wavelength:

λ ≈ 8.66 x 10^-7 meters

Therefore, the wavelength of the required photon to ionize a hydrogen atom and give the ejected electron a kinetic energy of 14.3 eV is approximately 8.66 x 10^-7 meters.

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4. A vector has an X-component of -29.5 units and a y-component of 33.5 units. Find the magnitude and direction of the vector.
magnitude ________units
direction _______

Answers

The magnitude of the given vector is approximately 29.5 units and the direction of the vector is -49.48°.

To find the magnitude and direction of the given vector, you can use the Pythagorean theorem and inverse tangent, respectively.

Given, X-component of vector = -29.5 units

Y-component of vector = 33.5 units

Magnitude of vector, |A| = √(X² + Y²)

Let's substitute the given values in the above formula.

|A| = √((-29.5)² + (33.5)²)|A| = √(870.25)

Magnitude of vector, |A| = 29.5 units (approx)

Now, let's find the direction of the vector.

Direction of vector:

θ = tan⁻¹ (Y / X)

θ = tan⁻¹ (33.5 / (-29.5))

θ = tan⁻¹ (-33.5 / 29.5)

Direction of vector, θ = -49.48° (approx)

Therefore, the magnitude of the given vector is approximately 29.5 units and the direction of the vector is -49.48°.

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You throw a stone with an initial speed of 29 m/s at an angle of 33∘ above the horizontal from a cliff. The bottom of the cliff is 48 m below the point of release. What was the maximum height reached above the point of release? How far horizontally did the stone travel before hitting the ground?

Answers

The maximum height reached by the stone above the point of release is 23.48 m and the stone traveled a horizontal distance of 52.98 m before hitting the ground.

To find the maximum height reached by the stone, we can use the following formula:
Maximum height = (v^2 * sin^2θ) / (2g)
where

v is the initial speed,

θ is the angle of projection,

g is the acceleration due to gravity.
Substituting the given values, we have:
Maximum height = (29^2 * sin^2(33∘)) / (2 * 9.8)
Now, let's calculate the maximum height:
Maximum height = (841 * 0.5545) / 19.6 = 23.48 m
Therefore, the maximum height reached by the stone above the point of release is 23.48 m.

To find the horizontal distance traveled by the stone before hitting the ground, we can use the following formula:
Horizontal distance = (v^2 * sin2θ) / g
Using the given values, we have:
Horizontal distance = (29^2 * sin(2 * 33∘)) / 9.8
Now, let's calculate the horizontal distance:
Horizontal distance = (841 * 0.6157) / 9.8 = 52.98 m
Therefore, the stone traveled a horizontal distance of 52.98 m before hitting the ground.

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The height of a moving object is given by
h(t)=2.69sin(3.90t+8.0)
where h is in feet and t is in seconds. Find the velocity at the instant t=2 seconds. Be accurate to 3 decimal places and include correct units.

Answers

To find the velocity at the instant t = 2 seconds, we need to take the derivative of the height function h(t) with respect to time.
Given:
h(t) = 2.69sin(3.90t + 8.0)
Taking the derivative of h(t) with respect to t
h'(t) = 2.69 * (3.90) * cos(3.90t + 8.0)
Now we can evaluate the velocity at t = 2 seconds by substituting t = 2 into the derivative expression:
h'(2) = 2.69 * (3.90) * cos(3.90 * 2 + 8.0)
Calculating the value:
h'(2) = 2.69 * (3.90) * cos(7.80 + 8.0)

≈ 2.69 * (3.90) * cos(15.80)

≈ 2.69 * (3.90) * (-0.759)

≈ -7.76 ft/s
Therefore, at t = 2 seconds, the velocity of the object is approximately -7.76 ft/s. The negative sign indicates that the object is moving downwards.

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2. Consider the circuit below ( 12 marks: 3 marks each ) \[ R=4 \Omega, X_{c}=3 \Omega, X_{L}=2 \Omega \] \( v=110 \sin (\omega t) \) volts (a) What is the impedance of the circuit in polar form? (b)

Answers

Resistance, R = 4ΩCapacitive reactance, Xc = 3Ω,Inductive reactance, XL = 2Ω,Voltage, V = 110 sin(ωt)

Impedance of the circuit in polar form:

[tex]$$Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_c)^2}$$[/tex]

Substituting the given values we get,

[tex]\begin{align*} Z &= \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_c)^2}\\ &= \sqrt{4^2 + (2 - 3)^2}\\ &= \sqrt{16 + 1}\\ &= \sqrt{17}\,Ω \end{align*}[/tex]

Now, Impedance, Z = 17Ω and Voltage, V = 110 sin(ωt)

Applying Ohm's law, we get,[tex]\[\large I=\frac{V}{Z}\][/tex]

a) Therefore, Impedance of the circuit in polar form is Z = 17Ω

b) Current through the circuit is I = 110 sin(ωt) / 17

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Further assume that the signal propagation speed across the cable is 2 10 8 m/sec,CSMA/CD uses back-off intervals of multiples of 512 bits, and each repeater will insert a store-and-forward delay equivalent to 20-bit transmission time. At time t=0, both A and B attempt to transmit. After the first collision, A draws K=0 and B draws K=1 in the exponential back-off protocol after sending the 48 bits jam signal. a. What is the one-way propagation delay (including all repeater delays) between A nd B in seconds? At what time is A's packet completely delivered at B? b. Now suppose that only A has a packet to send and that the repeaters are replaced with switches. Suppose that each switch has an 8-bit processing delay in addition to a store-and-forward delay. At what time, in seconds, is A's packet delivered at B ? For the following problem, decide if the provided answer correctly solves the problem. If it does then analyze the running time of the algorithm. If it does not, give an example demonstrating why not.Problem: Given n people, n jobs, and a table of distinct "rewards" for assigning people to jobs - i.e. is the reward for assigning a person to a job; find the maximum total reward that can be achieved by a matching of people to jobs (i.e. exactly one person per job).Solution: Use the table of rewards to set up a preference relation - e.g. Person i prefers job j1to j2 if R(i,j1) > R(i,j2); and job j prefers to be assigned to person i1 over i2 if R(i1,j)> R(i2,j) . Run the Gale-Shapley algorithm to find a matching. Compute the reward for this matching. This will be the maximum reward.E BUSINESS LAWThe Tuna Case:Lars Paulsen consumed approximately 10 six-ounce cans of tuna fish per week from approximately January 2008 to October 2010. Canned tuna was Paulsens main source of protein during that time period. The tuna fish was canned by Defendant Seaside Foods, LLC ("Seaside"). Paulsen purchased this tuna, which was frequently on sale, from Easyshop Supermarket Company ("Easyshop"). During this time period, Seaside promoted its canned tuna fish as an excellent and safe source of high quality protein, vitamins, minerals and omega3 fatty acids, as well as being low in saturated fats and carbohydrates, and promoted its product as being heart healthy. The Seaside tuna fish did not provide any warning that it contained mercury, "an odorless, colorless, tasteless, poisonous, heavy metal."At some point between January 2008 and October 2010, Paulsen began to experience, two to three times per week, episodes of chest pains, heart palpitations, sweatiness, dizziness, and lightheadedness, which led him to believe that he had a heart condition. Paulsen sought medical attention and underwent numerous tests to understand the cause of his symptoms, but none of these tests provided an answer. On April 14, 2008, Paulsen went to the White Plains Hospital Emergency Room because he believed (incorrectly) that he was having a heart attack.On or about October 1, 2010, Paulsen's primary care practitioner ordered a heavy metals blood test, which showed that there was an elevated level of mercury in Paulsen's blood. Specifically, Paulsen's blood mercury level was 23 mcg/L, as opposed to less than 10 mcg/L, which is normal. On the same date, the New York State Department of Health contacted Paulsen by telephone, advised him that he had a dangerous level of mercury in his blood, asked him questions, filled out a questionnaire, and instructed him to stop eating tuna fish. Paulsen stopped eating tuna fish, and a blood test on November 4, 2010 revealed that his mercury levels had returned to normal. Paulsen no longer suffered the heart attack-like symptoms previously described, but he says that he "remains worried today about what effects the mercury has had on his health."Paulsen has sued Seaside and Easyshop for product liability, asserting claims of negligence and strict liability. The complaint alleges that Seasides tuna fish was unreasonably dangerous because it contained "poisonously high levels of mercury" and that Seaside and Easyshop are therefore strictly liable to Paulsen. The complaint also alleges strict liability based on Seasides failure to warn of the tunas "potential latent danger of poisonously high levels of mercury" and "that consumption of tuna fish in certain quantities was unsafe and dangerous because of its mercury content."Mercury is present in trace amounts in almost all fish. Mercury is a naturally occurring element and can also be released into the air from industrial pollution. Mercury falls from the air and accumulates in oceans and streams. Bacteria in the water cause chemical changes that transform mercury into methylmercury, which fish absorb and which cannot be removed from the fish.FDA regulations specify the maximum amount of mercury that may be present in fish and shellfish, and there is no claim or evidence that Seasides tuna exceeded these amounts. However, the regulations do not require warnings regarding mercury on tuna or other seafoodThe elements of a claim of product liability based on strict liability are:1. The product must be in defective condition when sold.2. The defendant must be normally engaged in the business of selling or distributing the product.3. The product must be unreasonably dangerous to the user or consumer because of its defective condition.4. The plaintiff must incur physical harm to self or property by use or consumption of the product.5. The defective condition must be the proximate cause of the injury or damage.6. The goods must not have been substantially changed from the time the product was sold to the time the injury was sustained.Consider the following questions:1. In defending against the strict liability claims, what arguments can Seaside make about the elements of injury and proximate cause (elements 4 and 5 above)?2. In defending against the strict liability claims, what arguments can Seaside make about whether the tuna was defective or unreasonably dangerous (elements 1 and 3 above) because of the mercury content?3. In defending against the strict liability claims, what arguments can Seaside make about whether the tuna was defective or unreasonably dangerous (elements 1 and 3 above) because of the lack of a warning about mercury?4. If the elements above are proved, can Easyshop be held liable on a strict product liability claim even though they had no control over the packing or labeling of the tuna? how many grams of protein in 5 oz of chicken breast