Under certain conditions, the vocal folds act as a sphincter that prevents air passage. T/F

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Answer 1

True. Under certain conditions, the vocal folds act as a sphincter that prevents air passage.

Under certain conditions, the vocal folds can act as a sphincter to prevent air passage. The vocal folds, also known as vocal cords, are located in the larynx and play a crucial role in regulating airflow during various activities. In certain reflex actions such as coughing or throat clearing, the vocal folds close tightly to momentarily block the airflow. This closure helps build pressure below the vocal folds, contributing to the forceful expulsion of air and aiding in clearing the airway. Similarly, during activities like breath-holding or bearing down, the vocal folds can close to restrict the flow of air. While the primary function of the vocal folds is speech production, they can exhibit sphincter-like behavior under specific circumstances to control and prevent the passage of air.

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Related Questions

which vessel carries deoxygenated blood from cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the heart

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The vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the heart is called the superior vena cava.

The superior vena cava is a large vein that brings deoxygenated blood from the upper body and head back to the heart. When blood circulates through the body, it delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and organs, and picks up waste products and carbon dioxide. The deoxygenated blood returns to the heart through the veins, and enters the right atrium through the superior vena cava. From there, it is pumped to the lungs where it gets oxygenated before returning to the left side of the heart to be pumped out to the rest of the body. Understanding the function and anatomy of the superior vena cava is important in understanding the circulatory system and how blood flows through the body.

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The vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the heart is the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava.

These are the largest veins in the body and they return deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation back to the right atrium of the heart.

The superior vena cava collects blood from the upper body, including the head, neck, and upper limbs, while the inferior vena cava collects blood from the lower body, including the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs.

Oxygen-poor blood returns from the body to the heart through the superior vena cava (SVC) and inferior vena cava (IVC), the two main veins that bring blood back to the heart.

The oxygen-poor blood enters the right atrium (RA), or the right upper chamber of the heart.

From there, the blood flows through the tricuspid valve (TV) into the right ventricle (RV), or the right lower chamber of the heart.

The right ventricle (RV) pumps oxygen-poor blood through the pulmonary valve (PV) into the main pulmonary artery (MPA).

From there, the blood flows through the right and left pulmonary arteries into the lungs.

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a Crate example of good scientific ur gown? two learning questions of yo​

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A skillfully crafted inquiry in the field of science could be framed as such: "What is the effect of various levels of air pollution on the lung function of children residing in urban regions?"

How to answer this research question?

To facilitate this line of investigation, two supplementary inquiries can be made:

1) "What are the primary sources that instigate air pollution in urban locales?"  

2) "What are the fundamental indicators to gauge a child's lung function?"

By delving deeper into these auxiliary inquiries, researchers can gain better insights into the environmental conditions and yardsticks to measure lung function, leading to a more comprehensive exploration of the primary research question.

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The Complete Question

Can you provide an example of a well-structured scientific research question, along with two learning questions that support the main inquiry?

who discovered and produced the first form of spectra?

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The first form of spectra was discovered by Isaac Newton in the 17th century, who used a prism to split white light into its component colors and observed the resulting spectrum. However, the study of spectra as a tool for understanding the nature of light and matter was pioneered by Gustav Kirchhoff and Robert Bunsen in the mid-19th century. They developed the spectroscope, which allowed them to analyze the spectra of different substances and identify the unique spectral lines associated with each element. Their work laid the foundation for the field of spectroscopy, which is now used in a wide range of scientific disciplines.

which layer of the epidermis is characterized by prominent cytoplasmic granules in the cells?

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The layer of the epidermis that is characterized by prominent cytoplasmic granules in the cells is the stratum granulosum.

The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of several layers, including the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and stratum corneum. The stratum granulosum is the third layer from the bottom and is characterized by prominent cytoplasmic granules in the cells. These granules contain a protein called keratohyalin, which helps to form keratin, a tough, fibrous protein that gives skin its strength and water-resistant properties. The cells in the stratum granulosum also begin to lose their nuclei and other organelles, preparing them for their final stage of becoming flat, dead cells in the stratum corneum.


The layer of the epidermis characterized by prominent cytoplasmic granules in the cells is the stratum granulosum. These granules contain keratohyalin, which helps to form keratin and give skin its strength and water-resistant properties. The cells in this layer also begin to lose their nuclei and other organelles, preparing them for their final stage of becoming flat, dead cells in the stratum corneum. The Stratum Granulosum is the third layer of the epidermis, situated between the Stratum Spinosum and Stratum Lucidum. The cells in this layer contain keratohyalin granules, which are the cytoplasmic granules responsible for the synthesis of keratin, an essential protein for the skin's strength and resilience.
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animals migrating great distances obtain the greatest energetic benefit of stored chemical energy in

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Animals that migrate great distances obtain the greatest energetic benefit from stored chemical energy in the form of body fat. Fat is the primary energy source for long-distance migrations because it contains twice as much energy per unit of weight as carbohydrates or proteins.

This means that animals can carry more energy with less weight, making it easier for them to travel long distances without having to stop and eat frequently. Before starting their migration, animals will typically consume large amounts of food to build up fat stores that they will use as fuel during their journey. For example, birds that migrate long distances will gorge themselves on insects, berries, and seeds to build up fat reserves in preparation for their journey. Similarly, animals like whales and seals will consume large quantities of food before migrating to build up their blubber stores, which they will use for energy during their long journey.

Once they begin their migration, animals will use their stored fat reserves as their primary energy source. As they burn off fat, they will lose weight, but this is an expected and necessary part of the migration process. In fact, some animals, such as birds, will lose up to half of their body weight during migration as they use up their stored fat reserves.



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darwin was very interested in the observation that animals on distant and isolated landmasses appeared to be related to animals on the mainlands. however, despite their similar appearance, the animals were indeed not related. which of the following types of evidence would help darwin make sense of his observations?

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Explanation:

Darwin's observations of animals on distant and isolated landmasses that appeared to be related to animals on the mainlands, despite not being related, suggest the possibility of a process of evolution and adaptation. To make sense of his observations, Darwin would need additional evidence to support his theory of evolution by natural selection.

One type of evidence that would help Darwin make sense of his observations is biogeography. Biogeography is the study of the distribution of species and ecosystems in geographic space and through geological time. By studying the distribution patterns of species and ecosystems across different landmasses, Darwin could compare and contrast the similarities and differences between species that are related and those that are not.

Another type of evidence that would help Darwin is fossil records. By studying the fossil records of different species, Darwin could trace the evolution of different species over time and identify similarities and differences between related and unrelated species.

Additionally, comparative anatomy and embryology could also provide evidence for Darwin's theory of evolution. By comparing the anatomical structures and developmental processes of different species, Darwin could identify similarities and differences between related and unrelated species, and infer how these structures and processes have evolved over time.

Finally, molecular biology and genetics could also provide evidence for Darwin's theory of evolution. By studying the genetic makeup of different species and comparing it across different lineages, Darwin could identify genetic similarities and differences between related and unrelated species, and trace the evolutionary history of different species.

In summary, biogeography, fossil records, comparative anatomy and embryology, and molecular biology and genetics are types of evidence that would help Darwin make sense of his observations of animals on distant and isolated landmasses that appeared to be related to animals on the mainlands, despite not being related.

Over a period of one year, which location would probably have the greatest average intensity of insolation per unit area? Assume that there is equal atmospheric transparency at each location.
(1) Tropic of Cancer, 23.5° N
(2) New York City, 41° N
(3) the Arctic Circle, 66.5° N
(4) the North Pole, 90° N​

Answers

The location that would probably have the greatest average intensity of insolation per unit area over a period of one year would be (1) Tropic of Cancer, 23.5° N.

What is the area?

The amount of solar radiation that strikes a specific region is known as insolation, and it is influenced by things like the angle of incidence, the duration of the day, and meteorological conditions. At 23.5° N, the Tropic of Cancer is near to the equator and receives more direct sunshine all year round.

The amount of solar energy absorbed per unit area is maximized at this point because the angle of incidence of the sunlight is almost perpendicular to the Earth's surface.

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A protein composed of four subunits with all different sizes is added to a buffer with NO reducing agent and then analyzed with SDSPAGE. "How many bands should appear if two of these subunits are connected by disulfide bonds?"

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If two subunits are connected by disulfide bonds, then they will remain linked during SDS-PAGE analysis, resulting in a larger protein complex. Therefore, we would expect to see three bands on the gel one band representing the two linked subunits, and two additional bands representing the remaining two subunits that are not linked by disulfide bonds.

The three bands on the SDS-PAGE gel will correspond to the following:
1. A larger band representing the linked subunits.
2. A smaller band representing one of the subunits that is not linked.
3. Another smaller band representing the other subunit that is not linked.

In this scenario, a protein composed of four different subunits is analyzed using SDS-PAGE without a reducing agent. Since two of these subunits are connected by disulfide bonds, the non-reducing conditions will keep the disulfide bonds intact. As a result, these two subunits will remain connected and migrate as a single band on the gel. The other two subunits, which are not connected by disulfide bonds, will migrate as individual bands. Therefore, under these conditions, you should expect to observe three bands on the SDS-PAGE gel: one for the pair of subunits connected by disulfide bonds and one each for the two remaining individual subunits.

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in which areas has the use of recombinant microorganisms raised concerns? multiple select question. productivity concerns when they are used to produce pharmaceuticals containment concerns due to high growth rates environmental concerns when they are released into the surroundings safety concerns when they are used to produce food products

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Concerns related to productivity, containment, environment, and safety have been associated with the use of recombinant microorganisms in various applications.

The use of recombinant microorganisms has raised concerns in the following areas:

Productivity concerns when they are used to produce pharmaceuticals: The use of recombinant microorganisms in pharmaceutical production can raise concerns regarding the efficiency and yield of the manufacturing process. Ensuring high productivity and consistent production of safe and effective pharmaceuticals is essential.

Containment concerns due to high growth rates: Recombinant microorganisms, especially those engineered to have enhanced growth rates, may pose challenges in terms of containment. If not properly controlled, the rapid growth of these microorganisms can lead to potential environmental release or unintended spread, raising biosafety and biosecurity concerns.

Environmental concerns when they are released into the surroundings: The release of recombinant microorganisms into the environment can raise environmental concerns. There is a possibility of unintended ecological effects, such as disrupting natural ecosystems or introducing genetically modified organisms into the wild.

Safety concerns when they are used to produce food products: The use of recombinant microorganisms in food production can raise safety concerns. It is crucial to ensure that any potential risks associated with the use of genetically modified microorganisms in food production, such as allergenicity or unintended effects on human health, are thoroughly evaluated and properly managed.

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a potato stores a reserve of energy in its underground tuber in the form of

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Starch is a complex carbohydrate that plants use to store energy. When a potato plant is growing, it produces starch and stores it in its underground tubers.

This starch serves as a reserve of energy for the plant to use later on. When humans consume potatoes, we also consume the starch that the potato has stored. Our bodies break down this starch into glucose, which we use as energy. The storage of energy in the form of starch is a common strategy used by many plants. Other examples of plants that store energy in their roots or tubers include carrots, beets, and sweet potatoes.

This allows the plants to survive periods of low sunlight or drought, as they can tap into their energy reserves to continue growing and producing new leaves and flowers. Starch is a complex carbohydrate made up of glucose molecules, and it serves as the main storage form of energy in plants, particularly in underground tubers like potatoes. The stored starch in potatoes can be converted back into glucose when the plant needs energy for growth, reproduction, or other metabolic processes.

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what effect has global warming had on the bark beetle infestation of conifers throughout the western us

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Global warming has had a significant effect on the bark beetle infestation of conifers throughout the western US, exacerbating the problem.

Rising temperatures associated with global warming have contributed to the increased prevalence and severity of bark beetle infestations in coniferous forests. Warmer temperatures allow bark beetles to thrive and reproduce more rapidly, as they have shorter development cycles and expanded breeding seasons. Additionally, warmer winters have reduced beetle mortality rates, allowing populations to persist and expand. Global warming also affects tree physiology and defense mechanisms. Prolonged periods of drought, linked to climate change, weaken the defenses of conifers, making them more susceptible to bark beetle attacks. Drought-stressed trees become less capable of producing sufficient resin, a defense mechanism against bark beetles. As a result, beetles can successfully colonize and infest trees, leading to extensive tree mortality.

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Which of the following are most responsible for supporting mature, nongrowing parts of the plant?
collenchyma cells
parenchyma cells
trichomes
tracheids and vessel elements
sieve-tube elements

Answers

Collenchyma cells are most responsible for supporting mature, nongrowing parts of the plant.

Collenchyma cells have thick primary cell walls that provide strength and support to the plant. They are elongated and can be found in stems, leaves, and petioles. They are often located near the surface of the plant and provide mechanical support to the plant without limiting growth. The other cell types listed have different functions: parenchyma cells are involved in photosynthesis, storage, and wound healing; trichomes are involved in protection and reducing water loss; tracheids and vessel elements are involved in water transport; and sieve-tube elements are involved in the transport of carbohydrates.

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what type of fog results when warm, moist air moves over a cold surface?

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The type of fog that results when warm, moist air moves over a cold surface is called "advection fog."

Advection fog occurs when warm, moist air from one region moves horizontally and comes into contact with a colder surface, such as the ground or a body of water.

As the warm, moist air encounters the cold surface, it cools down rapidly. The cooling causes the moisture in the air to condense into tiny water droplets or ice crystals, leading to the formation of a foggy layer near the ground.

Advection fog is common in coastal areas where warm ocean currents collide with cold offshore currents or when warm air flows over colder land surfaces.

Advection fog tends to be persistent and can reduce visibility significantly. It often forms in a relatively large area and can persist for hours or even days until the temperature and moisture conditions change.

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the element phosphorus, which is important for nucleic acids and phospholipids, can cause excessive growth of algae when it enters an ecosystem through fertilizer. what this process called and what is the consequence?

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Excessive growth of algae caused by the introduction of phosphorus into an ecosystem through fertilizers is known as eutrophication. It has detrimental consequences on aquatic ecosystems.

During eutrophication, the excess phosphorus from fertilizers enters water bodies, such as lakes or rivers. Algae, which are naturally present in these environments, utilize the increased phosphorus availability to proliferate rapidly. This excessive growth of algae forms dense populations known as algal blooms. As these blooms accumulate on the water's surface, they block sunlight from reaching lower depths, leading to reduced oxygen production through photosynthesis and oxygen depletion in the water.

This phenomenon can disrupt the balance of the ecosystem and lead to a decline in biodiversity, as well as impacting the recreational and economic value of affected water bodies. Efforts to reduce phosphorus inputs through better agricultural practices and wastewater management are crucial to mitigating the harmful effects of eutrophication.

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1) Which of the following choices is NOT associated with a redox reaction in the Kreb's cycle?
A. The production of NADH
B. The production of FADH2
C. The production of CO2
D. The production of Acetyl-CoA
2) NADH is produced in glycolysis by the reduction of NAD+. Which of the statements below is TRUE, regarding the production of NADH during glycolysis?
A. NADH is used to phosphorylate ADP to make ATP.
B. Another molecule was oxidized in order to reduce NAD+.
C. NADH can be used to power many different processes within the cell.
D. NADH was oxidized in order to reduce NAD+.

Answers

1) The choice that is NOT associated with a redox reaction in Kreb's cycle is D. The production of Acetyl-CoA. 2) The TRUE statement regarding the production of NADH during glycolysis is B. Another molecule was oxidized in order to reduce NAD+.

1) This is because Acetyl-CoA is not produced through a redox reaction, but rather through the breakdown of pyruvate by pyruvate dehydrogenase. Hence, D is the correct option.

2) In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate, and during this process, NAD+ is reduced to NADH by the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. This NADH can then be used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

NADH is an important molecule in cellular respiration as it is a high-energy electron carrier that is produced through the oxidation of other molecules. It can be used to power various processes within the cell, but its primary function is to donate electrons to the electron transport chain, which ultimately leads to the production of ATP. Hence, B is the correct option.

Overall, understanding the production and role of NADH is crucial in understanding the cellular respiration process and how cells generate energy.

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In the DNA extraction procedure, chelex was added to the sample of your cheek cells. What was the reason for its addition and what mechanism was used to disrupt the cell walls of your cheek cells?

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In DNA extraction, Chelex is added to the sample of cheek cells for its ability to bind to and remove metal ions present in the cell. These metal ions can act as cofactors in DNases (enzymes that break down DNA), which can lead to degradation of the DNA sample. Therefore, removing them with Chelex helps to preserve the DNA for extraction.

To disrupt the cell walls of the cheek cells, a physical method known as mechanical disruption was likely used. This involves grinding the cells in a buffer solution using a pestle and mortar or a homogenizer. The buffer solution often contains a detergent, such as sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS), to lyse the cell membranes and release the cellular contents, including the DNA.

Once the cells are lysed, Chelex is added to the lysate and the mixture is heated to facilitate DNA extraction. Chelex works by chelating metal ions, such as magnesium, that are required for enzymatic activity. By removing these ions, Chelex can inhibit DNases and other nucleases that can degrade the DNA sample.

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which cell types must brain tumors be composed

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Brain tumors can be composed of various cell types, including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, neurons, and supportive cells like glial cells.

Brain tumors can arise from different cell types within the brain. The most common types of brain tumors include gliomas, which originate from glial cells that support and nourish neurons. Gliomas can be further classified based on the specific glial cell type involved, such as astrocytomas (arising from astrocytes), oligodendrogliomas (arising from oligodendrocytes), and ependymomas (arising from ependymal cells).

Additionally, brain tumors can also involve neurons, although neuronal tumors are relatively rare compared to gliomas. Examples of neuronal tumors include gangliogliomas and central neurocytomas.

In some cases, brain tumors can also contain supportive cells like glial cells along with other cell types. These mixed tumors can have complex cellular compositions and are referred to as mixed gliomas or mixed neuronal-glial tumors.

Brain tumors in the brain can be composed of various cell types, including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, neurons, and supportive cells like glial cells. The specific cell type involved in a brain tumor can vary and has implications for the tumor's behavior, prognosis, and treatment options. Accurate diagnosis and classification of brain tumors are important for appropriate management and personalized treatment strategies.

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Need help with this biology task about Inheritance Patterns​

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The phenotypic ratios are as follows:

Albinism: Phenotype ratios: 3:1, 3 individuals with normal pigmentation, 1 individual with albinismWooly hair:  Phenotype ratios: 3:1, 3 individuals with woolly hair, 1 individual with normal hairHemophilia: Phenotype ratios: 1:1, 50% of male offspring will have hemophilia, 50% of male offspring will be unaffected, one normal and one carrier female offspring.Sex-linked form of rickets: Phenotype ratios: 3:1, all female offspring will be affected with rickets, and 50% of male offspring will be unaffected.

What are the phenotypic ratios?

The phenotypic ratios are determined using the Punnett square as follows:

Inheritance of autosomal recessive traits: Albinism

Female parent phenotype: Pp (carrier)

Male parent phenotype: Pp (carrier)

(a) Punnett square: Pp x Pp

Offspring: PP, Pp, Pp, pp

Inheritance of autosomal dominant traits: Woolly hair

Female parent phenotype: Ww (woolly hair, heterozygous)

Male parent phenotype: Ww (woolly hair, heterozygous)

(a) Punnett square: Ww x Ww

Offspring: WW, Ww, Ww, ww

Inheritance of sex-linked recessive traits: Hemophilia

Female parent phenotype: XXh (carrier female)

Male parent phenotype: XY (normal male)

(a) Punnett square: XXh x XY

XX, XY, XhX, XhY

Inheritance of sex-linked dominant traits: Sex-linked form of rickets

Female parent phenotype: XRX (affected heterozygote female)

Male parent phenotype: XRY (affected male)

(a) Punnett square: XRX x XRY

Offspring: XRXR, XRY, XXR, XY

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i need help with question #8 and if you know #9 let me know too please

Answers

Answer: C and B

Explanation:

Don’t quote me on this but C seems the least relevant, as humans have no “evolution traits” to a whale. It makes no sense. And for #9 A cell and the human body have a distinct similar shape.

type i hypersensitivity is caused by the release of vasoactive products from mast cells coated with ___

Answers

Type I hypersensitivity, also known as immediate hypersensitivity or allergic reaction, is an exaggerated immune response triggered by the release of vasoactive products from mast cells.

Mast cells are specialized immune cells found in tissues throughout the body, particularly in areas that are in contact with the external environment such as the skin, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract.

During a type I hypersensitivity reaction, an individual with a pre-existing allergy is exposed to an allergen.

This allergen binds to specific IgE antibodies that are attached to the surface of mast cells. The cross-linking of these IgE antibodies triggers the activation of mast cells, leading to the release of vasoactive products such as histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

The release of these vasoactive products causes dilation of blood vessels, increased permeability of blood vessels, and smooth muscle contraction, resulting in the classic symptoms of an allergic reaction, including hives, itching, swelling, runny nose, and wheezing.

In severe cases, type I hypersensitivity can lead to anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure, difficulty breathing, and loss of consciousness.

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Part A
Fill out the table provided below with words used to describe emotions. Identify the emotions that you list as positive (for example, happy), negative (for example, jealous), and neutral (for example, indifferent). List at least six words for each type of emotion (the first row contains an example for your reference). Add more rows to the table as needed.

Answers

The words for positive, negative, and neutral emotions are given below:

   Positive  Negative Neutral

Happy Jealous IndifferentJoyful Angry CalmExcited Sad BoredContent Anxious NeutralGrateful Frustrated PensiveHopeful Depressed Uncertain

What are positive and negative emotions?

Positive emotions are feelings that people get while they are enjoying something in their environment.

Contrarily, negative emotions convey a general sense of misery. It is believed that emotions evolved to encourage the activities needed for survival and flourishing.

Positive feelings include contentment, gratitude, love, intrigue, curiosity, and enthusiasm.

Sadness, rage, loneliness, envy, self-criticism, fear, and rejection are examples of negative emotions.

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what is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?

Answers

The answer would be inferior vena cave!!!

during fertilization, an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell called a:

Answers

Answer:

Zygote

Explanation:

During fertilization, the sperm and egg unite to form a single cell called the zygote which contains all the chromosomes from both the sperm and the egg. The zygote divides into two cells by mitosis. Then, these cells each divide by mitosis.

Darwin and natural selection evolution

Answers

Darwin postulated the mechanism of natural selection to explain how organism change or evolve in a given environment.

What is the mechanism of natural selection proposed by Darwin?

The mechanism of natural selection proposed by Darwin refers to the differential survival and reproduction of the better-adapted organism in a given environment in which they live, which is fundamental to perpetuate the species.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the mechanism of natural selection proposed by Darwin is based on the differential survival and the fittest organisms in an environment.

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Explain why some environmental changes caused by humans cannot be dealt with by the process of succession

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Answer:

Human activities such as logging or clearing land to make agricultural or urban ecosystems can also destroy a biological community. Activities such as excessive fishing or livestock grazing can change a biological community so much that it is replaced by a different community.

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Explanation:

Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the path of a drop of blood leaving the human heart?
a. heart → venules → veins → capillaries → arteries → arterioles → heart
b. heart → arterioles → arteries → capillaries → veins → venules → heart
c. heart → veins → venules → capillaries → arterioles → arteries → heart
d. heart → arteries → arterioles → capillaries → venules → veins → heart
e. heart → arteries → veins → capillaries → arterioles → venules → heart

Answers

The correct sequence that best describes the path of blood drop leaving the human heart is d. heart → arteries → arterioles → capillaries → venules → veins → heart.

A drop of blood leaves the human heart by first being pumped through the arteries, which are large, muscular blood vessels responsible for carrying oxygen-rich blood away from the heart. As the blood continues to travel, it enters smaller blood vessels called arterioles, which help regulate blood flow to different tissues.

Next, blood flows into capillaries, the smallest and thinnest blood vessels in the body, where the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products occurs between the blood and surrounding tissues. After this exchange, the blood becomes oxygen-poor and enters tiny blood vessels called venules.

Finally, the blood moves into larger blood vessels called veins, which are responsible for returning the oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the heart, it is pumped to the lungs to pick up oxygen and restart the cycle. This entire process is essential for maintaining proper circulation and ensuring that oxygen and nutrients reach every part of the body. Hence, d is the correct answer.

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what is the likely structure of the amino acid found at position 19 of lc20?

Answers

The specific amino acid found at position 19 of lc20 cannot be determined without additional information.

The lc20 designation does not provide sufficient context to identify the protein or organism to which it refers.

The structure of an amino acid is determined by its chemical composition, which consists of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a unique side chain.

There are 20 standard amino acids that can be found in proteins, each with different side chains that confer specific properties and functions. These side chains can vary in size, charge, hydrophobicity, and other characteristics.

To determine the amino acid at position 19 of lc20, one would need to know the protein sequence or have access to specific experimental data or genetic information related to lc20.

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cytotoxic t cells destroy their target cells by releasing perforin, which cuts holes in

Answers

cytotoxic t cells destroy their target cells by releasing perforin, which cuts holes in the target cell membrane.

The release of perforin allows granzymes, enzymes present in cytotoxic granules within the cytotoxic T cell, to enter the target cell. Once inside, the granzymes activate a cascade of events that lead to the programmed cell death, or apoptosis, of the target cell. Perforin is a protein produced by cytotoxic T cells and natural killer (NK) cells. It forms pores or channels in the target cell membrane, which disrupts the cell's integrity and permeability. This allows the entry of granzymes and other cytotoxic molecules into the target cell. Granzymes are proteases that can induce apoptosis by activating caspases, which are enzymes responsible for initiating the cell death process. Once inside the target cell, granzymes cleave specific cellular substrates, triggering a series of intracellular events that ultimately lead to the destruction of the target cell.

Overall, the release of perforin and granzymes by cytotoxic T cells is an important mechanism by which these immune cells eliminate infected or abnormal cells, contributing to immune defense and maintaining the overall integrity of the immune system.

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scientists have developed bioengineered crops that are more resistant to damage by frost, chemicals, and drought. crops have been bioengineered also to produce larger crop yields. what is a potential drawback to increased use of bioengineered crops?

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While bioengineered crops have the potential to address many agricultural challenges, there are also potential drawbacks to their increased use. One potential drawback is the possibility of unintended ecological consequences.

For example, a crop that is engineered to resist a particular pest may inadvertently harm beneficial insects, disrupting the ecosystem balance. In addition, the widespread use of bioengineered crops may also lead to the emergence of superweeds or pests that are resistant to the crops' engineered traits. Another potential drawback is the impact on human health. While the safety of bioengineered crops is a matter of debate, there is concern that genetically modified organisms (GMOs) may have negative effects on human health, particularly if they are consumed in large quantities over long periods of time.

Finally, the use of bioengineered crops may also have economic consequences, particularly for small-scale farmers who may not have the resources to invest in the latest crop technology. Overall, while bioengineered crops have the potential to address many agricultural challenges, it is important to carefully consider the potential drawbacks before increasing their use.

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the degenerative disorder that can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function is known as

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The degenerative disorder that can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function is known as spinal osteoarthritis.

Spinal osteoarthritis is a type of arthritis that affects the spine and is caused by the breakdown of cartilage in the joints and discs of the spine. This can cause pain, stiffness, and the loss of normal spinal function. Spinal osteoarthritis is a common condition that typically affects people as they age, but can also be caused by injury or genetics. Treatment options may include medication, physical therapy, and in severe cases, surgery.

The degenerative disorder that can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function is known as degenerative disc disease (DDD). Degenerative disc disease is a condition where the intervertebral discs in the spine begin to deteriorate, leading to pain, stiffness, and limited mobility. This can result from aging, repetitive stress, or injury.
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