URGENT! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!

Write an inequality that represents the graph.

(it’s #4)

Both still have the same profit. $2 for sandwiches and $3 for wraps. The only reason why there is a difference in the total amount is the change in number of sandwich or wrap sold in a given month. Therefore, next month's total sale is higher than last month's total sale making it safe to assume that the sale of sandwich or wrap is higher than last month's sale.

{hope this helps}

Answer:

y=-6/5x-8

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you know the slope of the line, you can put it into the slope-intercept form equation:

y=-6/5(x) +b

Then plug in the x and y values which are -5 and -2:

-2=-6/5(-5) +b

Now you can solve for b:

-2=6 +b

-8=b

Now that you know b and already have the slope, plug those into the equation:

y=-6/5x -8

Answer:

  $24

Step-by-step explanation:

The unit rate is shown to be $2 per bottle. The cost of 12 bottles is 12 times the cost of one bottle. That means the cost of 12 bottles is ...

  (12 bottles) × ($2/bottle) = $24

Answer:

the correct answer to the math problem is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

56÷8=7

Answer:

32 large lemonades

Step-by-step explanation:

4 gallons = 512 ounces

512 ounces / 16 ounces

= 32 large lemonades.

Method used:-

Completing the square method.

Steps :-

[tex]( x - 1 ) ( x + 2 ) = - 2\\x^{2}+x-2=-2 \\x^{2}+x=-2+2 \\x^{2}+x=0[/tex]

Now, make the left hand side of the equation by adding the square of ½ to both sides of the equation.

[tex]x^{2}+x+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2} \\x^{2}+x+\frac{1}{4}=\frac{1}{4} \\\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}=\frac{1}{4} \\\sqrt{\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{4}} \\[/tex]

Simplify the equation. You'll get a +ve & -ve value.

[tex]x+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2} \\x+\frac{1}{2}=-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Simplify it further.

[tex]\boxed{\sf\:x=0}\\ \boxed{\sf\:x=-1 }[/tex]

The solutions are :-

x = 0 & x = -1

______

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

3rd is the answer!! Hope this helps

Answer:

  see attached

Step-by-step explanation:

boundary line

When graphing, it can be useful to have the equation in slope-intercept form. You can get that by solving for y.

  4y ≤ -5x -4 . . . . subtract 5x from both sides

  y = -5/4x -1 . . . . divide both sides by 4

This tells you the slope is -5/4, and the boundary line crosses the y-axis at y = -1. The slope is the ratio of rise to run, so -5/4 tells you the line will go down 5 units for each 4 unit to the right. That is, points (4, -6) and (-4, 4) will be on the line.

line type and shading

The "or equal to" part of the inequality symbol (≤) tells you that the boundary line will be solid, not dashed.

The "less than" part of the symbol tells you that the values of x and y are less than those on the boundary line, so shading will be to the lower-left. The graph is shown in the attachment.

_____

Additional comment

You can determine the location of the shading by looking at any variable term that has a positive coefficient, and its relation to the inequality symbol. Here, that could be either of ...

These tell you that x- and y-values in the solution set are less than those on the line, so shading will be left of (x<) or below (y<) the line. (In rare cases where all of the variable coefficients are negative, you can multiply the equation by -1 and reverse the inequality before you make this analysis.)

Answer:

y = -3/2x  - 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the slope intercept form  y = mx + b to substitute the slope = -3/2 and the point (-8, -3).

y = mx + b

-3 = -3/2(-8) + b

-3 = 12 + b

-15 = b

y = -3/2x - 15

V = πr²h

V = 3.14 · 2² · 6

V = 3.14 · 24

V = 75.36

Hope this helps!

Answer: 75.36

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance travelled across the slant will be -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}² and yes it will slide down again.

If we take a single vector we can find a pair of vectors at right angles to each other that would combine to give the single original vector. This reverse process is called resolution or resolving vectors.

Given is that  body slides down a 22º inclined plane with constant speed. It is then thrown in the opposite direction by the same plane with an initial velocity of 4.0 m/s.

[A] -

We can write the total distance covered along the slant as a function of [x] and [y] components as -

h = h[x] i + h[y] j

Now -

h[x] = 4tcos(22°)

Now -

F = ma

F = m{dv/dt}

Fdt = mdv

mg sin(22°)dt = mdv

dt = {1/g sin(22°)}dv

∫dt = ∫ {1/g sin(22°)}dv

t = v/g sin(22°)

So, we can write -

h[x] = 4 cos(22°)v/g sin(22°)

h[x] = {4v/g}{cot (22°)}

Similarly -

h[y] = 4t'cos(22°)

F = ma

F = m{dv/dt}

Fdt = mdv

N cos(22°) - mg = F

{N cos(22°) - mg}dt' = mdv

{mg cos(22°) - mg}dt' = mdv

{g cos(22°) - g}dt' = dv

dt' = dv/{g cos(22°) - g}

∫dt' = ∫dv/{g cos(22°) - g}

t' = {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}

So -

h[y] = 4 x  {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)} x  cos(22°)

h[y] = {4v/g(cos(22°) - 1)} cos(22°)

So -

Distance travelled across the slant -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}²

[2] -

Yes, it will slide down again.

Therefore, the distance travelled across the slant will be -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}² and yes it will slide down again.

To solve more questions on resolving vectors, visit the link below -

https://brainly.com/question/17264346

#SPJ5

{Question in english language -

A body slides down a 22º inclined plane with constant speed. It is then thrown in the opposite direction by the same plane with an initial velocity of 4.0 m/s. a) How far will it go up the plane before stopping? b) Will it slide down again? HELP IS FOR TODAY!!!}

Part A: The approximate volume of the frustum is [tex]1769cm^3[/tex].

Part B: How the answer was determined was to view the flower pot as a frustum of a cone, and apply the formula in calculating the volume of the flower-pot.

The flower pot has the shape of a conical frustum (See the attached image). The volume of the frustum is given by

[tex]F = \frac{\pi y}{3}(R^2+Rr+r^2)[/tex]

where

[tex]y=\text{height of the frustum}=H-h=10cm\\R=\text{radius of larger cone}=8cm\\r=\text{radius of smaller cone}=7cm[/tex]

substituting the values of [tex]y[/tex], [tex]R[/tex] and [tex]r[/tex] into the frustum formula and using [tex]\pi\approx 3.14[/tex]

[tex]F = \frac{\pi y}{3}(R^2+Rr+r^2)\\\\=\frac{\pi\times 10 }{3}(8^2+8\times 7+7^2)\\\\=\frac{10\pi}{3}(64+56+49)\\\\=\frac{1690\pi}{3}\\\\\approx 1769cm^3[/tex]

the approximate volume of the frustum is [tex]1769cm^3[/tex]

Learn more about the volume of a frustum here: https://brainly.com/question/14177094

Answer:

(-1, 0.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark brainliest

Answer: 2/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There’s only 2 numbers greater than 4 on a die, so two would be the numerator and the denominator would be the number of possibilities you could roll, which is 1-6.

2/6, 1/3, or approx. 33.3%

A number cube will have six sides and two out of six will be greater than four, therefore, there is around a 33.3% chance you will roll a number greater than 4. :)

Answer:

Let m represent the number of minutes.

Amount of water in Karla's tank:  100 + 5m

Amount of water in Jake's tank:  50 + 10m

Same amount of water:  100 + 5m  =  50 + 10 m

--->                                         100  =  50 + 5m

--->                                            50  =  5m

--->                                            10 = m

In ten minutes, Karla's tank will have 100 + 5(10)  =  100 + 50  =  150 gallons.

In ten minutes, Jake's tank will have 50 + 10(10)  =  50 + 100  =  150 gallons.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helped!

Answer:

46 yards.

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract the new balance from the original balance:

30.00 - 19.88 = 10.12

Therefore, Rachel spent $10.12

Divide the result by the cost of ribbons per yard:

10.12 ÷ 0.22 = 46

Therefore, Racheal bought 46 yeards of ribbon.

The quantity of excess reserves that the Bank of Cheerton now hold is $210

From the attached table, the amount generated on the reserve is $4,200

If the Fed's reserve requirement is 5 percent, then the quantity of excess reserves that the Bank hold is given as:

Quantity of excess reserves = 5% of $4,200

Quantity of excess reserves = 0.05 * 4200

Quantity of excess reserves = $210

Hence the quantity of excess reserves that the Bank of Cheerton now holds is $210.

Learn more on discounts here; https://brainly.com/question/24304697

Answer:

$1 dollar and $0.90cents

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer

either 168 or 164thats all i can tell you

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18 Tala

Step-by-step explanation:

6/2= 3

3*6= 18

18 Tala

Answer:

answer c would be correct because the model both moved and rotated.

16±0.12

Step-by-step explanation:

%uncertainity=uncertainity÷measured value×100%

0.75×16=100x

x=12÷100

x=0.12

ANS;16±0.12

Answer:

[tex] - (6 - 4x) = - 6 + 4x[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]-6+4x[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-(6-4x)[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Distribute\:parentheses}[/tex]

[tex]=-\left(6\right)-\left(-4x\right)[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Apply\:minus-plus\:rules}[/tex]

[tex]-\left(-a\right)=a,\:\:\:-\left(a\right)=-a[/tex]

[tex]=-6+4x[/tex]

Answer: 20 ft.

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply multiply 5 x 4.

Answer:

20 ft`

Step by step explanation:

N/A

Answer: The equation of the line that passes through the point negative -5, 7 and has a slope of -2/5 is y = -0.4x + 5.