Use a significance level of α= 0.05 and use the given information for the following:

Required:
a. State a conclusion about the null hypothesis. (Reject H0 or fail to reject H0.)
b. Without using technical terms or symbols, state a final conclusion that addresses the original claim.

Answer:

-2×h

Step-by-step explanation:

because it drops-2 by hour so multiply-2 by the difference of hours

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

I think you are asking how many tokens she has left. She has 18 - 3 * 2 = 18 - 6 = 12 tokens left. She can play 12/3 = 4 more games.

Answer:

[tex]y_g(t) = c_1*( 2t - 1 ) + c_2*e^(^-^2^t^) - e^(^-^2^t^)* [ t^3 + \frac{3}{4}t^2 + \frac{3}{4}t ][/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- Given is the 2nd order linear ODE as follows:

                      [tex]ty'' + ( 2t - 1 )*y' - 2y = 6t^2 . e^(^-^2^t^)[/tex]

- The complementary two independent solution to the homogeneous 2nd order linear ODE are given as follows:

                     [tex]y_1(t) = 2t - 1\\\\y_2 (t ) = e^-^2^t[/tex]

- The particular solution ( yp ) to the non-homogeneous 2nd order linear ODE is expressed as:

                    [tex]y_p(t) = u_1(t)*y_1(t) + u_2(t)*y_2(t)[/tex]

Where,

              [tex]u_1(t) , u_2(t)[/tex] are linearly independent functions of parameter ( t )

- To determine [  [tex]u_1(t) , u_2(t)[/tex] ], we will employ the use of wronskian ( W ).

- The functions [[tex]u_1(t) , u_2(t)[/tex] ] are defined as:

                       [tex]u_1(t) = - \int {\frac{F(t). y_2(t)}{W [ y_1(t) , y_2(t) ]} } \, dt \\\\u_2(t) = \int {\frac{F(t). y_1(t)}{W [ y_1(t) , y_2(t) ]} } \, dt \\[/tex]

Where,

      F(t): Non-homogeneous part of the ODE

      W [ y1(t) , y2(t) ]: the wronskian of independent complementary solutions

- To compute the wronskian W [ y1(t) , y2(t) ] we will follow the procedure to find the determinant of the matrix below:

                      [tex]W [ y_1 ( t ) , y_2(t) ] = | \left[\begin{array}{cc}y_1(t)&y_2(t)\\y'_1(t)&y'_2(t)\end{array}\right] |[/tex]

                      [tex]W [ (2t-1) , (e^-^2^t) ] = | \left[\begin{array}{cc}2t - 1&e^-^2^t\\2&-2e^-^2^t\end{array}\right] |\\\\W [ (2t-1) , (e^-^2^t) ]= [ (2t - 1 ) * (-2e^-^2^t) - ( e^-^2^t ) * (2 ) ]\\\\W [ (2t-1) , (e^-^2^t) ] = [ -4t*e^-^2^t ]\\[/tex]

- Now we will evaluate function. Using the relation given for u1(t) we have:

                     [tex]u_1 (t ) = - \int {\frac{6t^2*e^(^-^2^t^) . ( e^-^2^t)}{-4t*e^(^-^2^t^)} } \, dt\\\\u_1 (t ) = \frac{3}{2} \int [ t*e^(^-^2^t^) ] \, dt\\\\u_1 (t ) = \frac{3}{2}* [ ( -\frac{1}{2} t*e^(^-^2^t^) - \int {( -\frac{1}{2}*e^(^-^2^t^) )} \, dt] \\\\u_1 (t ) = -e^(^-^2^t^)* [ ( \frac{3}{4} t + \frac{3}{8} )] \\\\[/tex]

- Similarly for the function u2(t):

                     [tex]u_2 (t ) = \int {\frac{6t^2*e^(^-^2^t^) . ( 2t-1)}{-4t*e^(^-^2^t^)} } \, dt\\\\u_2 (t ) = -\frac{3}{2} \int [2t^2 -t ] \, dt\\\\u_2 (t ) = -\frac{3}{2}* [\frac{2}{3}t^3 - \frac{1}{2}t^2 ] \\\\u_2 (t ) = t^2 [\frac{3}{4} - t ][/tex]

- We can now express the particular solution ( yp ) in the form expressed initially:

                    [tex]y_p(t) = -e^(^-^2^t^)* [\frac{3}{2}t^2 + \frac{3}{4}t - \frac{3}{8} ] + e^(^-^2^t^)*[\frac{3}{4}t^2 - t^3 ]\\\\y_p(t) = -e^(^-^2^t^)* [t^3 + \frac{3}{4}t^2 + \frac{3}{4}t - \frac{3}{8} ] \\[/tex]

Where the term: 3/8 e^(-2t) is common to both complementary and particular solution; hence, dependent term is excluded from general solution.

- The general solution is the superposition of complementary and particular solution as follows:

                    [tex]y_g(t) = y_c(t) + y_p(t)\\\\y_g(t) = c_1*( 2t - 1 ) + c_2*e^(^-^2^t^) - e^(^-^2^t^)* [ t^3 + \frac{3}{4}t^2 + \frac{3}{4}t ][/tex]

Answer:

[tex]Expected \ mean = \dfrac{sum \ of \ values }{n}[/tex]

[tex]Expected \ mean = \dfrac{315 }{7}[/tex]

Expected mean = 45

The Chi - Square Value = 15.556

Conclusion:

We conclude that there is equal number of average interest in the course across all regions.  

Thus, the CFO is correct, the the frequencies in the regions are not significantly different by using a Chi-Square Goodness of Fit Test with a 1% significance level.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question; Let state our null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis

Null Hypothesis

[tex]\mathbf{H_0:}[/tex]There is equal number of average interest in the course across all regions.  

Alternative Hypothesis

[tex]\mathbf{H_a:}[/tex] At least one of the region differs in average number of interest in the course.

The table can be better structured as :

Region          Enrollment

1                       45

2                       60

3                       30

4                       40

5                       50

6                       55

7                       35

From above; we know the number of sample = 7

Then our expected mean can be calculated as :

[tex]Expected \ mean = \dfrac{sum \ of \ values }{n}[/tex]

[tex]Expected \ mean = \dfrac{315 }{7}[/tex]

Expected mean = 45

SO, let's construct our Chi-Square  Statistics Test Table as follows:

Observed       Expected       Expected       (O-E)²         [tex]\dfrac{(O-E)^2}{E}[/tex]

(O)                         (E)            proportion    

45                          45           0.142857          0                   0

60                          45           0.142857       225                 5

30                          45           0.142857        225                5

40                          45           0.142857          25               0.556

50                          45           0.142857          25               0.556

55                          45           0.142857         100               2.222

35                          45           0.142857          100              2.222

                                                                                          15.556

The Chi - Square Value = 15.556

Degree of freedom = n- 1

Degree of freedom = 7 - 1

Degree of freedom = 6

Level of significance ∝ = 1% = 0.01

The Critical value of Chi Square test statistic at df = 6 and 0.01 significance level is 16.812

The Decision rule is to reject the Null hypothesis if The Chi Square test statistic X² > 16.812

Thus , since  the Chi Square test statistic is lesser than the critical value,

i.e  15.556 < 16.812 ,we accept null hypothesis [tex]\mathbf{H_0}[/tex]

Conclusion:

We conclude that there is equal number of average interest in the course across all regions.  

Thus, the CFO is correct, the the frequencies in the regions are not significantly different by using a Chi-Square Goodness of Fit Test with a 1% significance level.

Answer:

C: Multiply the first equation by -2

Step-by-step explanation:

-2 * (x + 3y = 16) = -2x-6y=-32

The resulting equation would be -2x-6y=-32

In the next if you add the two equations, you will successfuly eliminate x and can now solve for y.

-2x-6y=-32

2x + y = -18

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

x+3y=16________________eqn 1

2x+y=-18_______________eqn 2

multiply first equation by - 2

-2(x+3y=16)

-2x-6y= -32______________eqn 3

using elimination method

-2x-6y= -32

+

2x+y= -18

0-5y= -50

-5y= -50

divide both sides by -5

-5y/5= -50/5

y=10

substitute y in eqn 2 to find the value of x

2x+y= -18

2x+(10)= -18

2x+10= -18

2x= -18-10

2x= -28

divide both sides by 2

2x/2= -28/2

x= -14

Answer:

5 units

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2(w)+2(2w-1)

28=2w+4w-2

30=6w

w=5

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Plugged into calculator

Vertical asymptotes: x=-2

Horizontal asymptotes: y=0

No oblique asymptotes

Answer:

The event of picking a number from 1 to 3 consists of:

Pick number 1

Pick number 2

Pick number 3

The event of choosing red or white card consists of:

Choose a red card

Choose a white card

=> The sample space for picking a number from 1 to 3 and choosing red or white card:

Pick number 1 and choose a red card

Pick number 1 and choose a white card

Pick number 2 and choose a red card

Pick number 2 and choose a white card

Pick number 3 and choose a red card

Pick number 3 and choose a white card

Hope this helps!

:)

Answer:

HJ > KP

Step-by-step explanation:

Form the figure attached,

Two triangles PKL and JGH have been given with HG ≅ KL and PL ≅ GJ

m∠HGJ = 90°

m∠KLP = 85°

Since m∠HGJ > m∠PLK

Therefore, measure of opposite sides of these angles have the same relation.

HJ > KP

Answer:

[tex]x=15^\circ[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Please refer to the attached figure for labeling of given diagram:

We are given the following angles:

[tex]\angle AOC = 3x^\circ\\\angle BOD = 2x^\circ\\\angle EOF = 7x^\circ[/tex]

Angles opposite to each other when they are formed by crossing of two lines are known as vertically opposite angles. And vertically opposite angles are always equal to each other.

Using property of vertically opposite angles:

[tex]\angle EOF = \angle AOB = 7x^\circ[/tex]

Line CD is a straight line, so [tex]\angle COD = 180^\circ[/tex]

Also,

[tex]\angle COD = \angle COA+\angle AOB+\angle BOD = 180^\circ\\\Rightarrow 3x + 7x + 2x=180^\circ\\\Rightarrow 12x =180^\circ\\\Rightarrow x = \dfrac{180}{12}\\\Rightarrow x = 15^\circ[/tex]

Hence, answer is [tex]x = 15^\circ[/tex].

Answer:

1/3 simplifed.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the product of 3/7*7/9. We can multiply top and bottom. Top: 3*7=21 Bottom: 7*9=63. Our final answer is just the Top/Bottom= 21/63. We can also simplify this into 1/3 which is our final answer.

Answer:

a) 20.44% probability that none of the selected adults say that they were too young to get tattoos.

b) 35.90% probability that exactly one of the selected adults says that he or she was too young to get tattoos.

c) 56.34% probability that the number of selected adults saying they were too young is 0 or 1.

d) No

Step-by-step explanation:

For each adult, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they say they were too young when they got their tattoos, or they don't say that. Each adult is independent of each other. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

18% say that they were too young when they got their tattoos.

This means that [tex]p = 0.18[/tex]

Eight adults who regret getting tattoos are randomly selected

This means that [tex]n = 8[/tex]

a. Find the probability that none of the selected adults say that they were too young to get tattoos.

This is P(X = 0).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{8,0}.(0.18)^{0}.(0.82)^{8} = 0.2044[/tex]

20.44% probability that none of the selected adults say that they were too young to get tattoos.

b. Find the probability that exactly one of the selected adults says that he or she was too young to get tattoos.

This is P(X = 1).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.18)^{1}.(0.82)^{7} = 0.3590[/tex]

35.90% probability that exactly one of the selected adults says that he or she was too young to get tattoos.

c. Find the probability that the number of selected adults saying they were too young is 0 or 1.

Either a. or b.

20.44 + 35.90 = 56.34

56.34% probability that the number of selected adults saying they were too young is 0 or 1.

d. It we randomly select 9 adults. Is 1 a significantly low number who day that they were too young to get tattoos?

Now [tex]n = 9[/tex]

It is significantly low if it is more than 2.5 standard deviations below the mean.

The mean is [tex]E(X) = np = 9*0.18 = 1.62[/tex]

The standard deviation is [tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{n*p*(1-p)} = \sqrt{9*0.18*0.82} = 1.15[/tex]

1 > (1.62 - 2.5*1.15)

So the answer is no.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{64}{125}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{12}{15} \div \frac{25}{16}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{12}{15} \times \frac{16}{25}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{12 \times 16}{15 \times 25}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{192}{375}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{64}{125}=0.512[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\frac{64}{125}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

=> [tex]\frac{12}{15} / \frac{25}{16}[/tex]

Changing the division sign into multiplication and inverting the term after the sign.

=> [tex]\frac{12}{15} * \frac{16}{25}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{12*16}{15*25}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{192}{375}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{64}{125}[/tex]

This is the required form.

Step-by-step explanation:

In mathematics, the absolute value |x|, is the non-negative result of x without regard to its sign.

An absolute function, can never have a negative result.

By this alone, you can solve the question because the inequality is false, and therefore there are zero solutions.

Please see the attachment of f(x) = |x - 7|.

When you look at the graph, you can easily confirm that there is no value which can result in a negative y- coordinate like -2. In fact, that is the whole purpose of any absolute value or function. The result of an absolute function can never be negative.

Answer:

The critical values of F at 95% confidence are 0.359 and 2.788.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a sample of 21 days of sales at Store A and a sample of 16 days of sales at Store B indicated the following:

Store A                     Store B    

nA = 21                      nB = 16

SA = 28.284              SB = 20

And we are interested in determining whether or not the variances of the sales at two small grocery stores are equal.

AS we know that when we are interested in variances of two samples, we use F-test for doing hypothesis testing.

The test statistics for F-test is =  [tex]\frac{S_A^{2} }{S_B^{2} } \times \frac{\sigma_B^{2} }{\sigma_A^{2} }[/tex]  ~ [tex]F__n_A_-_1,_ n_B_-_1[/tex]

where, [tex]S_A[/tex] and [tex]S_B[/tex] are sample standard deviations.

Now, the critical values of F at 2.5% (because two-tailed test) level of significance from F-table at degrees of freedom (21 - 1, 16 - 1) = (20, 15) are given as;

2.788 for right-part and 0.359 for the left-part.

Answer:

  1.) If two angles have equal measures, then the measure of each is 28 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

The converse of a statement simply swaps the positions of the "if" and "then" clauses. Without any modification for clarity or readability, the converse would be ...

  if two angles are equal in measure, then each of the two angles has a measure of 28 degrees.

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle, we can use a trig function

cos theta = adjacent/ hypotenuse

cos ? = 52/ 60

Take the inverse cos of each side

cos ^ -1 cos ? = cos ^ -1 ( 52/60)

? =29.92643487

To the nearest degree

? = 30

[tex]answer \\ 30 \\ please \: see \: the \: attached \: picture \: for \: full \: solution \\ hope \: it \: helps[/tex]

Answer:

220

Step-by-step explanation:

If we lost 12% we still have 100 - 12 = 88% of the employees left. 88% can be written as 0.88. 0.88 * 250 = 220 employees left.

Answer:

(x,y)= (-124/27, 41/9)

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Add the equation to eliminate x.

5y+3x=9

4y-3x=32

2) Add 5y and 4y.

5y=9

4y=32 -->  9y=41

3) Get y by itself by dividing 9 on both sides:

y=41/9

4) Substitute Value in the equation 5y+3x=9

5(41/9)+3x=9

5) solve for x

x=-124/27

Step-by-step explanation:

5y + 3x = 9

4y - 3x = 32

using elimination method

subtracting equation 1 from 2 gives

y = -23

substitute to get value of X

5(-23) + 3X = 9

-115 +3x = 9

3x= 124

x = 41.33

Answer:

See Explanation

This question is answered using Microsoft Office Excel 2013

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Browser A - 64%

Browser B - 24%

Browser C - 6%

Browser D - 3%

Browser E - 3%

Total Frequency = 50

a.

To tabulate the frequency of the choice of browser, the total frequency is multiplied by each individual percentage as follows;

Browser A - 64% * 50 = 32

Browser B - 24% * 50 = 12

Browser C - 6% * 50 = 3

Browser D - 3%* 50 = 1.5

Browser E - 3% * 50 = 1.5

See Attachment for frequency table (using software)

b. See Attachment for pie chart and bar chart.

Both charts are useful for data presentation but in this case, the pie chart is a better option to use because it shows how the distribution of each browser and how they make up as a whole.

The main circle of the pie chart shows how individual browser are distributed through segments; This is not so for the bars of the bar chart which.

c. Yes, there are changes in the choice of browser.

Aside from Browser D and E that has the same frequency, other browsers (A-C) have different frequency.

Also, the distribution shows that more users make use of browser A than other browsers and the least frequent used browser are browser D and E.

Answer:

Poisson distribution

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

There is an average of 0.1 flaws per square meter of cloth

So X = the number of flaws in a bolt of 2000 square meters of cloth.

The objective is to deduce how is X distributed.

Well, we can say X undergoes Poisson distribution.

Because, the flaw can be randomly positioned on the cloth and also dictate  how many times the event is likely to occur within a specified period of time.

Most time Poisson distribution is majorly used for independent events.

An independent is an event which contains two types of events occuring at a time say event [tex]E_1[/tex] and event [tex]E_2[/tex] and the event [tex]E_1[/tex] does not in any way affects the occurrence of the event [tex]E_2[/tex] .

Answer:

shift B

Step-by-step explanation:

shift a is 78.6 repeating

shift b is 79.3 repeating

mean is when you add them all then divide it by the numbers it has

Answer:

shift B

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the mean for a set of data, add all the numbers in that set, then divide by the number of data points in the set.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\ 123 \ dollars\ }[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

its value decreases at a rate of 2% each month

in 2 years there are 12*2=24 months

so the Samsung worth [tex]200(0.98)^{24}\\[/tex]

it gives 123 rounded to the nearest dollar

Answer:

$123

Step-by-step explanation:

initial price= $200

value decrease rate= 2% = 0.98 times a month

time = 2 years

current value= $200*0.98²⁴= $123

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two ways you can solve this. First is to just count all the numbers in the list given that are within the range 15-19. This is an inclusive range meaning the numbers 15 and 19 are a part of it. The second method is to count how many numbers are in the list given and count all the numbers that have already been put on the table. There are 19 total numbers, and 14 have already been counted. If you subtract you are left with 5 numbers that are within the range. So the answer is 5.

Explanation:

One method is to count all of the values that are between 15 and 19. Those values are highlighted in the diagram below. There are 5 values marked.

An alternative method is to note there are 19 values total. The items in the given table add to 5+2+1+2+4 = 14, so there must be 19-14 = 5 items missing to completely fill out the table.

Answer:

[tex]x=1.464974[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3^2+1 =3^x+5[/tex]

[tex]9+1 =3^x+5[/tex]

[tex]10 =3^x+5[/tex]

[tex]10-5 =3^x[/tex]

[tex]5=3^x[/tex]

[tex]log(3x)=log(5)[/tex]

[tex]x \times (log(3))=log(5)[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{log(5)}{log(3)}[/tex]

[tex]x=1.464974[/tex]

Answer: 1.46497352 or 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Complete 3^2 to get 9, then add 1 to get 10

Then subtract 5 from both sides to get [tex]5=3^x[/tex]

Youre gonna have to apply a log rule here to get:

[tex]log_{3}5=x[/tex]

You get 1.46497352 or approximately 1.5

Answer:

2.143

Step-by-step explanation:

An urn contains 8 black and;

6 pink balls.

5 balls are randomly drawn from the urn in succession, with replacement.

What is the probability that all the 5 balls drawn from the urn are pink?

The probability that all the 5 balls drawn is pink is 5 × 6/14 = 30/14 = 2.143 (rounded off to 3 decimal places)

The probability of drawing 5 pink balls is 0.271

Since the balls are replaced after each draw, the probability of drawing a pink ball each time is always  

6/14

=3/7

Since we are drawing 5 balls, the probability of drawing 5 pink balls with replacement is

[tex](3/7)^{5}[/tex]

≈0.2706

Rounding to 3 decimal places, the probability is  0.271

Learn more about probability here: brainly.com/question/32117953

#SPJ2

​

Answer:

1/ 5^9

Step-by-step explanation:

5^-6/5^3

5^(-6-3)

5^-9

Final Answer - 1/5^9

Answer:

Sorry, I cant understand rewrite it again.

Answer:

hope this helps :)

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 because 2/1 is 2 and 2 to the power of -2 is 1/4

Answer:

y=2x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

When writing the equation of a line in slope intercept form, you need to know two things; the slope, and the y intercept. The slope of the line can be found by seeing how steep the line is. For instance, here the line rises 2 units for every 1 unit it moves to the right, meaning that it has a slope of 2/1=2. The y intercept can be found by just seeing where the graph crosses the y axis, or where x is 0. Here it can be seen to be at -2. Therefore, the equation of this line is y=2x-2. Hope this helps!

Answer:

answer is : y = 2x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

slope-intercept form is y= mx + b

the y-intercept is: (0, -2) and the x-intercept is (1,0)

the first thing you do is find the slope:

m = (y2-y1) / (x2-x1)

so : ( 0 -  -2) / ( 1 - 0)  or 2/1 therefore the slope is 2

y = 2x + ? is the next step

then you can substitute the x and y into the formula to find the (b) value

0 = 2 (1)

0 = 2 ?

since 0 equals two plus two the b value is 2.

so the answer is y = 2x + 2