USING THE SAME PICTURE FROM QUESTION 1: At which of the following sites would activity result in volcanoes, island arcs, and mountains?
A
B
C
D

Answers

Answer 1

The plate is the location, as seen from above, where its activities would undoubtedly produce island arcs, volcanoes, and mountains. At the edge of subduction zones, volcanic island arcs emerge. They are created when a subducting plate partially melts.

What is island arc ?

Trenches or large oceanic depressions are also present with them. Two tectonic plates colliding causes subduction to happen. At divergent plate borders, seafloor spreading takes place. The mantle's convection currents generate heat that makes the crust more flexible and less thick when tectonic plates slowly drift apart from one another.

Less dense material rises, frequently creating mountains or raised seabed regions. Japan is one of many well-known island arc instances.

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Related Questions

which of the following cell-surface proteins are routinely used to distinguish memory t cells from naive and effector t cells? CCR7CD45ROCD45RAL-selectin (CD62L)

Answers

CCR7 ,CD45RO ,CD45RA, L-selectin (CD62L) are routinely used to  distinguish memory T cell from naive and effector T cells

A form of white blood cell. T cells are a part of the immune system and develop from stem cells within the bone marrow. They assist guard the body from infection and might assist fight cancer. additionally called T lymphocyte and thymocyte.

T-cell. Key to the immune device, those cells originate in the bone marrow but mature inside the thymus (the t stands for thymus). T-cells assault other body cells which are infected by a few micro organism, a virulent disease, or any other pathogen. (compare B-cell.)

Effector Cells. relying at the APC a naïve cell comes across it may come to be an effector T cell. ...

Cytotoxic T Cells. Cytotoxic T Cells, also referred to as CD8+ cells, have the primary process to kill toxic/target cells. ...

Helper T Cells.
Regulatory T Cells.
memory T Cells.

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What type of organism caused strep throat?; Which type of bacteria can cause strep throat or blood?; Is strep throat viral or bacterial?; What kinds of bacteria are commonly found in the throat?

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The bacterium that causes strep throat is streptococcus pyogenes, also referred to as group A streptococcus. Streptococcal bacteria quickly spread. They can be passed along by sharing food or drinks or by droplets released while coughing or sneezing.

If you have the bacterial infection known as strep throat, your throat may feel scratchy and rough. Streptococcus is only a minor contributor to sore throats.

If left untreated, strep throat can cause issues including kidney inflammation or rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever symptoms can include a particular type of rash, heart valve damage, and painful, inflamed joints.

The most common victims of strep throat are children, although anyone can get it. For testing and treatment, speak with your doctor right away if you youngster show any signs of strep throat

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put the actions in the correct order that describes the egg retrieval behavior of geese studied by konrad lorenz, beginning with the first step at the top.

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This brooding goose starts acting out when it spots an egg outside of the nest (A) and becomes fixated on it. The goose stands up and reaches out to touch the egg (B).

What are geese known for?

Geese are very gregarious creatures. They typically get along with other animals and birds if they were raised with them. The word "goose" actually refers to female geese; ganders are the names for male geese. On ground or in the water, a group of geese is referred to as a gaggle; in the air, they are referred to as a skein.

What are geese saying when they honk?

The Canada goose's "honk" call is employed in a variety of ways, including as a long-distance call, to respond a mate, and as part of a territorial display.

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What increases rate of protein synthesis?; What controls the rate of protein synthesis?; What organelle has a high rate of protein synthesis?; What is protein synthesis rate?

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For boosting protein synthesis, timing of protein ingestion is crucial. Consuming protein right after after working out boosts protein synthesis, however waiting even two hours dampens the reaction.

Translation initiation controls, in part, the rate of protein synthesis by interacting with a 40S ribosomal subunit to bind the initiator tRNA (met-tRNAi) and messenger RNA (mRNA). Protein synthesis can become constrained by the met-tRNAi or mRNA binding steps, respectively.

The crucial cell organelles involved in protein synthesis are called ribosomes. The proper operation of the cell depends on proteins. Proteins and RNA found in ribosomes assist in translating genetic code into proteins. The two subunits of ribosomes are smaller and larger subunits.

In conclusion, human basal fractional protein synthesis rates for muscle, tendon, bone, cartilage, ligament, and menisci range from 0.02 to 0.13% per hour.

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Analyze the statements below and select those that correctly apply to polysaccharide structure and function.
a.) Starch is composed of beta-glucose joined by 1,4 bonds, producing long linear chains of polysaccharides that are hydrogen-bonded along their length.
b.) Peptidoglycan is composed of polysaccharide attached to short chain amino acids and is an integral component of certain bacterial cell walls.
c.) Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are all polymers of glucose that differ because of the additional macromolecules associated with each.
d.) Polysaccharides are formed when monosaccharides are joined through hydrolysis reactions.
e.) Cellulose is composed of beta-glucose joined by 1,4 bonds, producing long linear chains of polysaccharides that are hydrogen-bonded along their length.

Answers

The statements that correctly apply to polysaccharide  such as starch, peptidoglycan and cellulose in structure and function.

Due to the components of the extracellular cell matrix, which are plentiful in the biomass and are simple to get from a variety of sources, such as forest products, grasses, and algae, natural biopolymers demonstrate outstanding bioactivity and strong biocompatibility.

The building block of starch is beta-glucose, which is connected by 1,4 bonds to form long, linear chains of polysaccharides that are hydrogen bonded all the way through. Certain bacterial cell walls include peptididoglycan, which is a polymer connected to short chain amino acids. When monosaccharides combine through hydrolysis processes, polysaccharides are produced. Beta-glucose is the primary component of cellulose, which is connected together by 1/4 bonds to form long, linear chains of polysaccharides that are hydrogen bonded throughout.

Hence, repeating monomer unit combine to form natural polymer.

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Drag each label into the appropriate position to identify whether the characteristic is indicative of arteries or veins.
-termed "resistance vessels" or "pressure reservoirs"
-usually carry oxygenated blood from heart to body.
-pulsatile flow of blood
-exhibit greater ability to alter vessel diameter

Answers

The following characteristics of carrying oxygenated blood, alteration of vessel diameters are indicative of arteries.

Arteries are deep inside our muscles which carry oxygenated blood from left ventricle to all other parts of the body. However, the function of pulmonary is completely opposite to the arteries. Arteries are considered as the primary resistance vessels because they distribute the blood flow into capillary beds. The arterial blood circulation is pulsatile, which means that the blood flow is rhythmic and the intermittent propagation of a fluid occurs through the vessels. The presence of elastin fibers in the large blood vessels enables arteries to increase in size as arteries are under high blood pressure.

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in a bacteirum there is mutation in the gene for the represssor protein of the lac operon when lactose is present how owuld this mutation affect the function of the lac operon

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Transcription of the lac operon will not occur in the presence of lactose


With lactose in the cell, lactose binds to the repressor. This causes a structural change in the repressor and it loses its affinity for the operator. Thus RNA polymerase can then bind to the promoter and transcribe the structural genes
Most mutations in the operator, the binding site for repressor, lead to lower affinity for the repressor and hence less binding.
A mutation occurring in the lac I gene causes the inability of the repressor to bind with the operator. If the repressor does not bind the operator, RNA polymerase will move to the transcription site and do transcription even if lactose is absent.

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the insertion of glut4 into the sarcolemma can either be stimulated by. insulin binding to its receptor on skeletal muscle cells that are resting or. by an insulin independent mechanism during contraction of skeletal muscle cells. glucose is released from the ________ which means blood glucose levels ______. liver.

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When blood glucose levels drop too low, the pancreas releases glucagon. In response to glucagon, the liver releases glucose into the bloodstream by converting glycogen that has been stored.

During skeletal muscle cell contraction, insulin may attach to its receptor on the cells' surface via an insulin-dependent mechanism or while the cells are at rest. Depending on the body's requirements, the liver produces and stores glucose. The hormones insulin and glucagon are principally responsible for signalling the need to store or release glucose. The pancreas releases more glucagon when blood glucose levels get dangerously low. This hormone assists in restoring blood glucose in a number of ways: It prompts the liver to transform saved glucose into a form that may be used, after which it is released into the bloodstream.

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In our environment, heat transfer is always from the _____________object to the ______________object. Heat transfers to and through so me materials better than others.

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The overall direction of heat transfer is from the higher-temperature object to the lower-temperature object.

Where does the heat move after leaving? From the higher-temperature item to the lower-temperature object is the general direction of heat transfer.From the lower-temperature item to the higher-temperature object is the general direction of heat transfer.Energy is transferred from a warmer to a cooler object through the phenomenon of heat.Radiation, conduction, and convection are the three methods by which heat is transmitted into and through the atmosphere.Heat is transferred from the Earth's surface to the atmosphere through convection, radiation, and conduction.Since air is a poor conductor, the majority of energy transmission by conduction takes place very close to the Earth's surface.Just a few centimeters into the atmosphere, conduction immediately affects air temperature.

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What is the process of translation and tRNA Anticodons?; What is the process of converting mRNA codons into amino acids?; How do tRNA and mRNA interact during translation?; What are the 3 steps of the initiation of translation?

Answers

The ribosome and a tRNA bind to the mRNA to begin translation. The ribosome's initial docking location is where the tRNA is found. The initiation codon of the mRNA, where translation begins, is complementary to the anticodon of this tRNA. The amino acid that goes with that codon is carried by the tRNA.

The answer to the question about what transpires if the anticodon does not bind to the transfer RNA .The mRNA binds to the ribosome, the tRNA transports amino acids, the tRNA anticodon binds to the mRNA codon, the amino acids are bound together by peptide bonds to create proteins, and the amino acids are transported to the mRNA by the tRNA until the translation of the mRNA is complete. In the cytoplasm, this process takes place. The process of protein synthesis will not proceed if the anticodon is not attached. In the process of protein translation, the ribosomal subunit is joined with the mRNA that needs to be translated, the tRNA carrying the initiation amino acid, GTP, which serves as an energy source, and the initiation factors.Through coanticodon-codon base pairing, all of these elements are first linked to the initiation codon to begin the process. You cannot begin the translation without it.

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if inheritance of a genetic marker is associated consistently with the inheritance of a particular phenotype, then that marker must be linked to: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices the quantitative trait loci associated with the genotype. the environmental trait associated with the phenotype. the only gene causing that phenotype. the quantitative trait loci that affects that phenotype.

Answers

That marker must be linked to: the quantitative trait loci that affects that phenotype,genotype.

A genotype is a scoring of the form of variation present at a given region in the genome. It could be represented by symbols. For example, BB, Bb, and bb may be used to represent a given variation in a gene.

The genotype determines the hereditary potentials and boundaries of a person from embryonic formation through adulthood. Among organisms that reproduce sexually, a person's genotype accommodates the whole complex of genes inherited from each dad and mom.

The one-of-a-kind types of genotypes are- homozygous recessive (pp), homozygous dominant (PP), and heterozygous (Pp). The homozygous dominant and the heterozygous genotypes display the same phenotypes.

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Under strictly controlled conditions, a probe can be used that will hybridize only with its complementary sequence and not with other sequences that may vary by as little as one nucleotide. What are such probes called?
A) generation-specific probes
B) short, variable repeats
C) VNTRs
D) microsatellites
E) allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs)

Answers

It is possible to utilize a probe that will only hybridize probes with sequences that are complementary to it and not with others that may only differ by one nucleotide. Allele-specific oligonucleotides are the name for these probes (ASOs).

What kind of genetic engineering involves the transfer of a gene from one species to another that is not closely related?

A transgenic organism is one that has undergone genetic modification using recombinant DNA technology, which either entails the fusion of DNA from various genomes or the introduction of foreign DNA into a genome.

Which of the following processes, when ordered correctly, constitutes the recombinant biotechnology process?

The right answer is B I, V, II, IV, and III. The techniques used in recombinant DNA technology allow the DNA from various sources to be discovered, isolated, and recombined in order to give an organism new traits.

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What helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute?

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The membrane's overall functional surface area, ventilation of the alveoli Alveolar air and entering pulmonary blood have different oxygen pressure gradients: All of the aforementioned factors influence how much oxygen diffuses into the circulation each minute.

What is Oxygen?

With an atomic number of 8 and the chemical symbol O, oxygen is the eighth chemical element. It belongs to the chalcogen group in the periodic table, is a very reactive nonmetal, and is an oxidizing agent that easily forms oxides with most elements as well as with other compounds. The most plentiful element on Earth and the third most prevalent element in the universe (after helium and hydrogen) is oxygen.

The element forms dioxygen, an odorless and colorless diatomic gas with the formula O 2, when two of its atoms come together at standard pressure and temperature. Currently, 20.95% of the Earth's atmosphere is made up of diatomic oxygen gas, however over very long stretches of time, this percentage has shifted significantly. The Earth's crust is over 50% oxides, which are composed of oxygen.

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a host cell can be manipulated to take in recombinant dna in the form of a plasmid. the host cell then replicates the gene of interest in the process of .

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A host cell can be manipulated to take in recombinant DNA in the form of a plasmid. the host cell then replicates the gene of interest in the process of gene cloning

Gene cloning is the discovery and copying (or "cloning") of a desired gene utilizing the entire DNA of the organism. The basic processes in gene cloning are:

1. Gene-sized DNA fragments are extracted from an organism known to contain the desired gene using restriction enzymes.

2. The cleavage of bacterial plasmids occurs using the same restriction enzyme.

3. Gene-sized DNA and chopped plasmids are combined in a test tube. A plasmid and a gene-sized DNA fragment frequently anneal to form a recombinant plasmid (recombinant DNA).

4. The recombinant plasmids are inserted into bacteria through electroporation or heat shock.

5. The bacteria are dispersed across plates and given time to establish colonies. All the colonies on all the plates are referred to as a gene library together.

6. To identify which colony contains the desired gene, the gene library is screened.

7. the target gene's DNA sequence or the DNA of a gene that is remarkably close to it

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All of the following are model systems that would be best to understand gene function in the context of cell differentiation or organ formation EXCEPT:
a. Yeast
b. Fly
c. Zebrafish
d. Mice
e. Worm

Answers

With the exception of yeast, all of the following model systems are ideal for analyzing how genes work during neuronal differentiation or organ development.

What materials make up yeast?

So according Sandra Rusche, an associate professor of systems biology, the fungus cerevisiae grows as a unicellular organism rather than a mushroom. Although each yeast organism only has one cell, these cells group to together create multicellular colonies.

Yeast health: good or bad?

Fungal helps keep you digestive system balanced as healthy. Your immunity system functions better when it is given the right amount in your body. Yeast is a helpful form of microorganisms in your gut. It could help with nutrition and mineral assimilation in food.

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Freedom is going to have part of his adrenal cortex removed because of a tumor. After the surgery, he may need _____supplementation.

insulin
calcitonin
oxytocin
aldosterone

Answers

Freedom is going to have part of his adrenal cortex removed because of a tumor. After the surgery, he may need aldosterone supplementation. The correct answer is option D.

What is the role of insulin ?

The role of insulin is that this maintains the blood glucose levels in the blood and the sugar regulation is basically done with the help of insulin.

The adrenal cortex has a role to play in releasing several hormones such as aldosterone that is a mineralocorticoid, cortisol that is a glucocorticoid, androgen and estrogen that both are sex hormones.

The role of aldosterone in the body is basically to balance out the control out the balance out of water and salts in kidneys by keeping sodium ions inside and potassium ions outside of the kidney.

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because the kidneys are the only major abdominopelvic organ located outside the sac formed by the peritoneum, their position is referred to as group of answer choices

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The Kidneys are the only major Abdominopelvic organ located outside toe sac formed by the peritoneum. Because of this their position is referred to as Retroperitoneal.

What serves as a kidney?

They are largely in charge of transforming waste into urine and detoxifying the blood. Around 160 grams of weight and one to one and a half gallons of urine are excreted daily by each kidney. Every 24 hours, the two kidneys work together to filter 200 liters of fluid.

How can you tell if your kidneys are in trouble?

The urge to pee more frequently, especially at night, may indicate renal disease. An increased need to urinate may result from damage to the kidney filters. This may occasionally also indicate a respiratory infection or a swollen prostate in males. Your pee contains visible blood.

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Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobic phosphorylation. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mode of action of the three inhibitors? A) Cyanide and 2, 4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits the synthesis of ATP. B) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2, 4-dinitrophenol inhibit the synthesis of ATP. C) Cyanide, oligomycin & 2, 4-dinitrophenol compete with O_2 for cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV). D) Oligomycin & cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2, 4-dinitrophenol inhibits the respiratory chain. E) Oligomycin inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas cyanide and 2, 4-dinitrophenol prevent the synthesis of ATP.

Answers

It is a biochemically active chemical precursor that allows protons to move from the intermembrane space into the mitochondrial matrix, allowing oxidative phosphorylation to be decoupled from the electron transport chain in cells with mitochondria.

According to the findings, oligomycin inhibits oxidative phosphorylation in the liver slices in the main, which is what causes partial inhibition of ion transport. With the ongoing rate of ATP synthesis, the oligomycin-resistant ion-transporting activity makes sense.

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HELP genetics model

I'm trying to figure out how to turn my punnett squares (image 1 ) into a chromosome model like this (image 2) Can someone please draw it out?

Answers

In order to turn the Punnett squares (image 1) into a chromosome model like image 2 it is required to know if genes are linked since this phenomenon alters gene segregation during gamete formation.

Why linked genes alter proportions from Punnet squares?

Linked genes are able to alter the expected proportions from Punnet squares because they do not segregate as occurs in alleles located on different chromosomes, thereby we have into account this phenomenon.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that linked genes alter segregation and therefore also proportions from Punnet squares.

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Which of the following statements are true regarding epigenetics? Choose all that apply.

Answers

Answer:

you forgot the picture !

Explanation:

A culture of Spirogyra (an autotrophic alga) is maintained in a water solution containing dissolved carbon dioxide and a source of phosphates but lacking nitrogen compounds. A researcher determines the rates of synthesis of several organic compounds found in the Spirogyra before and after several weeks in the water solution. Which of the following graphs best illustrates a likely result of the experiment?B) Graph be shows proteins and nucleic acids decreasing with carbohydrates and lipids staying the same with time.
Without a source of nitrogen, the Spirogyra cannot synthesize proteins or nucleic acids, both of which contain nitrogen. This answer reflects that the student is able to represent graphically the exchange of molecules between an organism and its environment and the use of these molecules in synthesis.

Answers

graph be shows proteins and nucleic acids decreasing with carbohydrates and lipids staying the same with time.

A nucleotide is made up of an aromatic base with nitrogen connected to a pentose (five-carbon) sugar that is then joined to a phosphate group. Adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U) are the four nitrogen-containing bases found in each nucleic acid (U). Purine classifications apply to A and G, while pyrimidine classifications apply to C, T, and U. thus nitrogen source is required for nucleic acid and protein synthesis

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Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on...
A. the presence of certain transcription factors.
B. the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
C. the degree of DNA methylation.
D. the number of introns present in the mRNA.

Answers

The amount of protein produced in a cell utilizing a particular mRNA molecule is somewhat influenced by the rate of mRNA degradation. Here option B is the correct answer.

DNA is converted into mRNA, which joins cytoplasmic ribosomes to act as a template for protein production. There are many levels at which gene expression is regulated.

One such regulatory system is the longevity of mRNA and the pace of its degradation which in turn influences the availability of templates again for the process of protein synthesis and so keeps a check on the overall quantity of protein being generated in a cell.

For instance, bacterial mRNA has a relatively short life cycle, which enables them to swiftly adjust the pattern of protein production in response to environmental changes.

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A hypothesis determines . . .
A. the results of an experiment.
B. what will be tested.
C. how true a theory is.

Answers

An assumption or concept is given as a hypothesis for the purpose of debating it and testing if it might be true. In the scientific process, the hypothesis is developed before any pertinent research, aside from a basic background review, has been conducted. Therefore, option A, B and C are correct.

What is hypothesis ?

Using sample data, hypothesis testing is done to determine whether a claim is plausible. The test offers proof that the hypothesis is plausible in light of the available data. A random sample of the population being studied is measured and examined by statistical analysts in order to test a hypothesis.

In order to advance knowledge and encourage scientific study, hypotheses are often used. The foundation of all research experiments is comprised of these succinct assertions. The design of an entire experiment may therefore be flawed as a result of a defect in the formulation of a hypothesis.

Thus, option A, B and C are correct.

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All of the carbon atoms in cholesterol come from: A) Purines B) Glycine C) Palmitate (as palmitoyl-CoA) D) Acetate (as acetyl-CoA) E) Succinyl-CoA

Answers

Acetyl CoA is the source of every carbon atom found in cholesterol. The HMG-CoA reductase enzyme catalyzes the production of mevalonic acid. The rate-limiting, committed step in the formation of cholesterol is this one.

In a multistep, intricate process, 3-hydroxy-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA-R) mediates the rate-limiting step that catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonic acid, which is how cholesterol is produced from acetyl-CoA. In primary isolated rat hepatocytes, insulin was found to lower HMG-CoA-R expression.

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Match the type of species interaction to the correct description. A Lichens and mosses live on the branches of a. competition trees and are benefited by being up and out of b. predation the shade where they carry out more c. mutualism photosynthesis. The tree is unharmed by their d. commensalism presence. 4 A wolf and a fox live in the same community. e. parasitism

Answers

The answer to the given question about  type of species interaction are:

1) Lichens and mosses - d) Commensalism

2) Wolf and Fox - a) Competition

3) Plants and Bacteria - c) Mutualism

4) Lynx and Snowshoe - b) Predation

5) Species and host - e) Parasitism

In a parasitic relationship, one creature gains an advantage at the expense of the other. Ectoparasites, which live on the host's surface, and endoparasites, which live inside the host, are the two forms of parasites that harm living things (living in the body of host). Mutualism refers to ecological interactions between two or more species in which each species gains something from the connection. Ecological interactions frequently take the form of mutualism. Several notable examples are corals with zooxanthellae, blooming plants being pollinated by animals, vascular plants being spread by animals, and most vascular plants interacting mutualistically with mycorrhizae. The opposite of mutualism is interspecific competition, which results in reduced fitness for each species, exploitation, or parasitism, which favors one species at the expense of another.

Question

Match the type of species interaction to the correct description.

Lichens and mosses live on the branches of trees and are benefited by being up and out of the shade where they carry out more photosynthesis. The tree is unharmed by their presence.A wolf and a fox live in the same community. The primary prey for both of them are rabbits.Some plants live in association with bacteria that can fix nitrogen. The nitrogen from the bacteria is shared with the plant and the bacteria receive carbohydrates from the plant.A lynx searches for, and kills a snowshoe hare.A species that withdraws nutrients from another species (its host), usually without killing it.

a. competition

b. predation

c. mutualism

d. commensalism

e. parasitism

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you are looking at dna-protein binding data in a 14 kb region of the genome. t/f: this data provides biochemical and evolutionary evidence of functionality for a non-coding region of the genome.

Answers

If we are looking at DNA-protein binding data in a 14 kb region of the genome, then the statement this data provides biochemical and evolutionary evidence of functionality for a non-coding region of the genome is False.

What are non-coding regions of the genome?

Non-coding regions of the genome are defined as fragments of the DNA molecule which do not encode proteins but they may play regulatory roles and have several hundreds of kilobases.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that non-coding regions of the genome have higher sizes than 14 kilobases (kb).

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T/F label the structures of the cerebellum and brainstem (median section) by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

The cerebrum and spinal cord are linked by the brainstem, which is in the centre of the brain.

The midbrain, pons, and medulla are all parts of the brainstem.

Gyri are divided and defined by sulci, small grooves; along the midsagittal plane, fissures, large grooves, separate the cerebral cortex into lobes and the cerebrum into the right and left hemispheres.

The medial longitudinal fissure is the fissure that is involved in this division. Both the white and gray matter of the brain as well as significant areas like the third and fourth ventricles may be seen from the midsagittal portion of the brain.

The "bridge" connecting the brain and the spinal cord is the brainstem. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata make up this structure. It is connected to the diencephalon above, the spinal cord below, and the cerebellum posteriorly.

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It is crucial that the process of mitosis is error free. This is because otherwise healthy cells can o grow into giant super cells.

Answers

The absence of errors during mitosis is essential. This is due to the potential for healthy cells to transform into enormous super cells.

Why is mitosis error-free so important?

Yes! The important cell division process of mitosis, which ensures that the daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, should be error-free.

The process of cell proliferation or cell division is called mitosis. Because a cell can't exist forever, it either undergoes mitosis, which causes it to divide into two new cells, or it dies. The healthy cells will randomly divide if the mitotic control is compromised, and the newly formed malignant growth cells will also be uncontrollable.

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Which is the disadvantage of producing offspring?; What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction in offspring?; What is a disadvantage for organisms that reproduce asexually?; Is asexual reproduction an advantage or disadvantage?

Answers

A disadvantage for asexual producing offspring are, there is limited diversity within life forms and It is difficult to control the increasing population. The disadvantages of sexual producing are, time and energy are needed to find a mate and it is not possible for an isolated individual to reproduce.In an unstable or unpredictable environment asexually-reproducing species may be at a disadvantage because all the offspring are genetically identical and may not survive in new or different conditions or environment.Disadvantage for organisms that reproduce asexually it might be lack of diversity and genetically identical to each other and to the parent.Asexual reproduction has its own advantages and disadvantages depending on the perspective, subject and environment.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of asexual reproduction?

Advantages:

Organisms do not need to find a partner, this saves time and energy. Because offspring are identical to their parents none of the offspring will be less well adapted to their environment.

Disadvantages:

Because offspring are identical none of them will be any better adapted to their environment.

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The _______ is the part of the brain that controls voluntary movements, while the ______ helps regulate activities that we do not control, including breathing and heartbeat.cerebellum; cerebrumcerebellum; medulla oblongatamedulla oblongata; ponsmidbrain; hindbrain

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The area of the brain that manages voluntary movements is called the cerebellum, whereas the medulla oblongata assists in managing automatic processes like breathing and heartbeat.

While voluntary actions are governed by the cerebellum, involuntary acts are those that are under the control of the medulla oblongata, a region of the autonomous nervous system. Blood pressure, breathing, digestion, and heartbeat are all directly regulated by the medulla oblongata. It is situated anterior to the cerebellum in the hindbrain. It has a cone-like structure and houses the vasomotor, respiratory, cardiac, and vomiting centers.

The foramen magnum, a hole at the base of your skull, connects your medulla, which is located at the bottom of your brain, to your spinal cord. Your pons, which are immediately underneath the central brain structures, is located just above your medulla.

Additionally, your medulla divides the neurons that regulate certain senses like touch, warmth, and pain from the nerves that regulate muscle action, which is on the left side.

To learn more about the cerebellum, refer:-

https://brainly.com/question/13504830

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