The sociological approaches to health and medicine are as follows:
1. Social epidemiology: This method examines how racial, ethnic, gender, and environmental exposures as well as socioeconomic status affect patterns of health and disease.
2. The Social Construction of Health and Illness: In this theory, we examine how cultural norms, values, and practices influence how we perceive health and illness.
3. Health Services Research: This method examines how various components of the health care system, including as provider networks, patient access, and payment schemes, affect health outcomes.
4. Medical anthropology: This method examines how social structures and cultural practises affect how people perceive and react to disease and medical treatment.
5. Health Policy: This strategy examines how laws, regulations, and public policies affecting health care affect health outcomes.
All of these sociological perspectives on health and medicine aid in advancing our knowledge of the ways in which societal variables might affect patterns of health and illness. In order to improve health outcomes, they can also assist in informing public health actions and policies.
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day-to-day choices can help reduce the risk of heart disease. one of the major risk factors for development of heart disease is elevated ldl, which can be affected by dietary factors like the types and amounts of dietary fat consumed. read the statements below and select all of the correct statements regarding how various dietary fats affect ldl cholesterol levels. select all that apply.
Atherosclerosis, a condition that causes the blood vessels supplying the heart to narrow, is what causes heart disease. On the inside of the arterial walls, fatty deposits (or plaque) progressively accumulate, constricting the passageway for blood to the heart.
When atherosclerosis first develops, it might be quite advanced by the time you reach middle age. Plaque accumulation may be steady or unstable. The condition known as angina must be addressed if there is an excessive buildup of stable plaque because it narrows the arteries and causes pain and discomfort since not enough blood is getting to the heart. Unstable plaque is infected, has a flimsy cover that is prone to cracking, and is inflammatory.
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when assessing a patient's pertinent past history, you should ask which of the following questions? question 4 options: a) could you describe what happened? b) are you currently taking any medications? c) have you been having any medical problems? d) have you ever had a reaction to a medication?
Answer: b. are you currently taking any medications?
Explanation: because, taking the wrong drugs can cause other illnesses
the mother of a 13-year-old child with special needs reports concerns with her child's requests to eat lunch in the cafeteria at school with the rest of the children as opposed to eating in the nurse's office. what information should be contained in the nurse's response?
The information that should be contained in the nurse's response in the case above is that efforts should be made to accommodate your (the mother's) child's request.
In general, children have the desire to interact with others, especially with other children around their age. They also want to have the same privileges as much as possible. Because of that, the mother of the 13-year-old child in the case above should be encouraged to honor that desire. Forcing the child to eat in the nurse's station, even though they have special needs, will only promotes isolation which won't result well for their mental health.
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what are specific nursing interventions to support atraumatic and fcc, including developmental-specific strategies?
Nursing interventions are the steps a nurse takes to carry out their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities meant to increase the patient's comfort and health.
Nursing interventions aimed at the family as a whole are known as family nursing interventions. They might involve educating the patient's family members on how to care for the patient, in the case of new moms, it includes teaching and support for breastfeeding and other baby care practices.
Basic interventions for the patient's physical health involve practical actions like food and sanitary aid. Some clinics and hospitals concentrate on public health efforts to inform patients, and their families. These coordinated community nursing treatments promote overall wellness and good health.
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How many hours will 500 mL of D5½NS run at 75 mL/hour? Round to the nearest whole number
A. 4 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 7 hours
500 mL of D5½NS run at 75 mL/hour will need 6.7 hours or the nearest whole number: 7 hours.
Thus, the correct option is D.
To determine how many hours 500 mL of D5½NS will run at 75 mL/hour, we can use the formula:
time = volume ÷ rate
Plugging in the given values, we get:
time = 500 mL ÷ 75 mL/hour
Simplifying the equation, we get:
time = 6.67 hours
Since we need to round to the nearest whole number, the answer is 7 hours. Therefore, the correct option is D.
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26) the client taking phenytoin (dilantin) has a blood serum level of 35 what accompanying symptoms would the nurse expect to see? a. unsteady gait, slurred speech and blurred vision b. ataxia, nausea and a bleeding tendency
The accompanying symptoms that the nurse would expect is slurred speech, apart from nausea and ataxia which means option C is the right answer.
Phenytoin is a drug which is used for the treatment of seizures or fits. It is considered as anticonvulsants. It takes control over the temporal lobes of the brain to control the fits. Seizures are nothing but interruptions created in electrical signals of the brain due to which the functioning of the brain is affected.
The level of 10-20 mcg/mL is generally considered normal for the human body. If the level of phenytoin increases or decreases, then it shows some side effects in the body. The given limit helps in therapeutic treatment. A higher concentration can cause conditions such as renal failure, Hypoalbuminemia etc.
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Refer to complete question below:
A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL. Which finding would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
1. Hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. Slurred speech
4. No abnormal finding
T/F: Lipids enter the bloodstream directly after digestion.
False. Following digestion, lipids do not immediately enter the bloodstream. The digestive system breaks them down into smaller molecules so that they can enter the bloodstream.
Carbohydrates are composed of sugars or long chains of sugars. One of the main roles of carbs is energy storage. Glucose is a fundamental basic sugar molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6.
Simple sugars are also referred to as monosaccharides. In addition, carbohydrates are made up of long chains of sugar molecules.
Hundreds or thousands of monosaccharides are covalently bonded together to create polysaccharides, which are usually the main component of these long chains. Plants store sugar in polysaccharides that resemble starch. Animals use the polysaccharide glycogen to store sugar.
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which type of medication is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections?
Anti-parasitic drugs is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections.
Antiparasitics are a type of pharmaceutical used to treat parasitic disorders caused by helminths, amoeba, ectoparasites, parasitic fungus, and protozoa, among other things. Antiparasitics work by eliminating or suppressing the parasitic agents of infections; they are often effective against a restricted number of parasites within a certain class.
Antiparasitics are antimicrobial medications that comprise antibiotics that kill bacteria and antifungals that kill fungus. They can be given orally, intravenously, or topically. Broad-spectrum antiparasitics, similar to broad-spectrum antibiotics for bacteria, are antiparasitic medications that are effective in treating a wide range of parasitic illnesses caused by parasites of various types.
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when planning a health fair about healthy sexual function for older adults, the nurse should include which recommendations? select all that apply.
The recommendations that the nurse should include are:
Limited alcohol intakeAmple restGood nutritionGood hygieneOptions A, B, C and D are correct.
Sexual and reproductive health (SRH) is a study, healthcare, and social activism area that investigates an individual's reproductive system and sexual well-being at all phases of life. Individuals suffer inequities when it comes to reproductive health care. Inequalities vary according to socioeconomic class, degree of education, age, ethnicity, religion, and resources accessible in their surroundings. Individuals with low income may lack access to proper health care and/or knowledge about how to preserve reproductive health.
The morphology of sperm cells may alter due to reproductive risks. These sperm frequently have difficulty swimming and are incapable of fertilizing the egg. Dangerous substances can accumulate in the epididymis, seminal vesicles, and prostate.
The complete question is:
When planning a health fair about healthy sexual function for older adults, the nurse should include which recommendations? Select all that apply.
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Daniel doesn't want to wear the pajamas his mother chose for him. Instead, he strongly prefers last night's (dirty) pjs! daniel's mom agrees and dresses him in his (dirty) pj selection
The initiative v guilty stage of psychology is associated with this scenario according to Erikson.
What is psychology?The scientific study of the mind and behavior is called psychology. Psychologists are actively interested in researching and comprehending how the mind, the brain, and behavior work.
Trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. role confusion, intimacy vs. isolation, generativity vs. stagnation, and ego integrity vs. despair are 8 stages of Erikson's stages of psychology.
Thus, the initiative v guilty stage of psychology is associated with this scenario.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the full question is this:
Daniel doesn't want to wear the pajamas his mother chose for him. Instead, he strongly prefers last night's (dirty) pjs! daniel's mom agrees and dresses him in his (dirty) pj selection. What is the stage of psychology associated with this scenario?
muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because:
a. The tendons are partially ossified at their attachment points to the periosteum
b. A circumferential lamellaa sandwiches the ends of the tendon onto the surface of an adjacent lamella
c. Perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendon andperosteum to the cortial surface of bone
d. Elastin fibers in the tendon can allow for streching and recoil of the muscle
Muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendons and periosteum to the cortical surfaces of bone. Option C is correct.
Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately 35% of the weight of the human body. Skeletal muscle functions include movement production, posture maintenance, temperature regulation, and joint stabilization. Skeletal muscle is an endocrine organ as well. The secretome of skeletal muscles contains subsets of 654 distinct proteins as well as lipids, amino acids, metabolites, and short RNAs under various physiological circumstances.
Skeletal muscles are mostly made up of multinucleated contractile muscle fibers (myocytes). Skeletal muscles, on the other hand, include a large number of resident and invading mononuclear cells. Myocytes account for the vast bulk of skeletal muscle volume. Myocytes in skeletal muscle are typically quite big, measuring around 2-3 cm long and 100 m in diameter.
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the pharmacology instructor is discussing ways to decrease adverse effects on clients taking aminoglycosides. which would the instructor include?
Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, particularly those caused by gram-negative bacteria.
What are aminoglycosides?
The pharmacology instructor may include the following ways to decrease adverse effects on clients taking aminoglycosides: Dose adjustments based on kidney function. Monitoring of drug levels in the blood. Limiting the duration of therapy. Avoiding concomitant use with other drugs that can cause kidney damage or hearing loss. Patient education about the signs and symptoms of adverse effects, including hearing loss and kidney damage. They work by binding to the bacterial ribosome, which interferes with protein synthesis, ultimately leading to cell death. Some examples of aminoglycosides include gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin.
While effective in treating bacterial infections, aminoglycosides can also have significant side effects, particularly on the kidneys and the inner ear, which can lead to hearing loss and balance problems.
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procedures performed on the female genital system are only laparoscopic procedures.truefalse
Answer:
False
Explanation:
While lapaoscopic procedures are performed on the female genital system, there are also other types of procedures, such as colposcopy, cryosurgery, and hysterectomy.
client is admitted to the neurological floor with a diagnosis of guillain-barre syndrome. the nurse inquires during the admission interview if the client has history of: a. seizures or trauma to the brain. b. meningitis during the last 5 years
History owned by the client with a diagnosis of guillain-barre syndrome are b. meningitis during the last 5 years
What is Guillaine-Barre Syndrome?Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rare condition and it is triggered by an acute infection from a bacteria or a virus that causes the immune system to attack the nervous system. The symptoms are marked by a feeling of weakness and tingling in the feet and hands.
The cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome is autoimmune. This autoimmune condition can be triggered by infectious diseases such as lung or digestive infections. Infection with campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhea, is associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome.
These bacteria are also often found in undercooked food, especially in poultry. Other infections associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome are influenza, cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus, mycoplasma pneumonia, and HIV. One of the influences was the history of meningitis several years earlier.
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mr. walters is 68 years old. he comes into the pharmacy to get refills of his blood pressure meds. which medicare part will most likely cover the cost of mr. walter's meds?
Medicare part D will most likely cover the cost of Mr. Walter's medications.
Inpatient hospital stays, home health care, and certain skilled nursing facility care are all covered by Part A. Original Medicare is the collective name for Medicare Parts A and B. Preventive screenings, lab tests, X-rays, and outpatient procedures are all covered under Part B. The other name for Part C is Medicare Advantage. These policies are provided by private health insurance providers.
You keep your Medicare when you enroll in a Medicare Advantage plan. Prescription medications are covered by Part D. It is only provided by private insurance policies. You may either purchase a separate Part D coverage or it is often covered by a Medicare Advantage plan.
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The complete question is:
Mr. Walters is 68 years old. He comes to the pharmacy to get refills of his blood pressure meds. Which of the following third party programs will most likely pick up the charges for these meds?
A. Medicare part A
B. medicare part B
C. medicare part C
D. medicare part D
for which situation is palliative care appropriate?
Answer: Palliative care is a resource for anyone living with a serious illness, such as heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, cancer, dementia, Parkinson's disease, and many others. Palliative care can be helpful at any stage of illness and is best provided soon after a person is diagnosed.
Explanation:
Palliative care is appropriate in a situation in which people with serious illnesses are looking for relief from symptoms such as pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, constipation, nausea, loss of appetite, and difficulty sleeping.
Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of the illness, with the goal of improving the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care can be provided at any stage of an illness and can be used alongside other treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. It can also be used to manage chronic conditions, such as heart disease, lung disease, or dementia. Other than that, palliative care can also provide psychological, social, and spiritual support to the patient and their family.
Overall, palliative care is appropriate for any situation in which a patient needs support in managing the physical, emotional, and spiritual aspects of their illness.
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mrs. lieb takes the following medications: citalopram, esomeprazole, metoprolol tartrate, and temazepam. which medication is used to treat heart failure?
The medication used to treat heart failure is Metoprolol Tartrate. This medication is a beta-blocker and is used to treat various conditions including angina, hypertension, and heart failure.
It works by blocking the action of certain natural substances in the body, similar as epinephrine( adrenaline). This helps to reduce blood pressure and strain on the heart. It also helps to help the conformation of blood clots, which can beget a stroke. Metoprolol Tartrate is generally taken formerly or doubly daily and can be taken with or without food.
However, it should be taken as soon as possible, unless it's nearly time for the coming cure, If a cure is missed. It's important to take Metoprolol Tartrate exactly as specified by the doctor and to not stop taking it suddenly as this can beget serious problems.
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Discuss the importance of communication between healthcare professionals and patients. How can you ensure that you are communicating effectively with patients? Include verbal versus nonverbal communication, communication barriers, and how you can address patient education with patients.
Explanation:
Effective communication is essential in healthcare, as it helps to build trust and rapport between healthcare professionals and patients, ensures that patients receive accurate information, and facilitates a better understanding of their health conditions and treatments.
Verbal communication involves using spoken words to exchange information, while nonverbal communication encompasses gestures, facial expressions, tone of voice, and body language. Both types of communication are important in healthcare, and can have a significant impact on the quality of care that patients receive.
There can be communication barriers in healthcare, such as language barriers, cultural differences, or patient anxiety, which can affect the quality of information exchanged between healthcare professionals and patients.
To ensure effective communication with patients, healthcare professionals should:
1. Listen actively to patients and respond to their questions and concerns.
2. Use clear and concise language that is easily understood by patients.
3. Avoid medical jargon and technical terms that patients may not understand.
4. Consider cultural and linguistic differences when communicating with patients.
5. Observe nonverbal cues and adjust communication style as needed.
6. Address any communication barriers that may arise.
7. Provide patient education that is appropriate for their level of understanding and takes into account their learning needs and preferences.
In summary, effective communication between healthcare professionals and patients is crucial for ensuring high-quality care and building trust with patients. Healthcare professionals should strive to communicate effectively and address any communication barriers that may arise.
Which personal qualities did students identify as promoting their success in nursing school? a) External motivation b) Compassion c) Commitment to learning d) Enthusiasm to succeed e) Confidence
The personal qualities that students identified as promoting their success in nursing school include: Compassion, Commitment to learning, Enthusiasm to succeed and Confidence. Option B, C, D, and E is correct.
Compassion: Nursing is a profession that requires a great deal of empathy and compassion for others, and these qualities can help students connect with their patients and provide the best care possible.
Commitment to learning: Nursing education is demanding and requires a significant amount of time and effort. Students who are committed to their education and are willing to put in the work to learn and grow are more likely to succeed in nursing school.
Enthusiasm to succeed: Nursing students who approach their education with enthusiasm and a positive attitude are more likely to overcome challenges and stay motivated throughout their program.
Confidence: Confidence in one's abilities and decision-making skills can be an important factor in nursing success. Nurses must be able to make quick decisions and take action in a variety of situations, and a strong sense of confidence can help students develop these skills.
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client care dealing with nutrition and metabolism should include which factors? select all that apply.
Without knowing the specific context of the client care, here are some general factors related to nutrition and metabolism that may be important:
Dietary intake, Nutrient needs, Metabolic rate, Hydration status, Physical activity, Medications/supplements, Lifestyle factors.
What is metabolism?Metabolism is the set of biochemical processes that occur in living organisms to maintain life. It involves the conversion of food and oxygen into energy and the elimination of waste products. Metabolic reactions are catalyzed by enzymes and can be divided into two categories: catabolism and anabolism. Catabolic reactions break down complex molecules into simpler ones and release energy, while anabolic reactions use energy to build complex molecules from simpler ones.
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a client with macrocytic anemia has a burn on her foot and reports watching television while lying on a heating pad. which action should be the nurse's first response?
The nurse's first response will be to check for diminished sensations.
Define macrocytic anemia.
A blood condition called macrocytic anemia develops when your bone marrow makes unusually big red blood cells. Red blood cells need certain nutrients to operate correctly, but these aberrant blood cells lack those. Although macrocytic anemia is not a serious sickness, it can have serious consequences for your health if you don't address it.
One inflammatory disorder that contributes to vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anemia, which hinders your body from absorbing vitamin B12. You have fewer red blood cells delivering oxygen throughout your body if you don't have enough vitamin B12.
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the nurse teaching a client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about the management the disease, will include the following: a. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments b. perform physically demanding activities in the morning c. do frequent weight bearing exercises to prevent muscle atrophy d. take prescribed medication at least half an hour before meals e. protect extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception
The nurse teaching a client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about the management the disease, will include the following: Option A) anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments
Muscles are normally at their strongest in the morning, thus activities involving muscle action should be planned for that time. Plasmapheresis is not frequently performed, however it is used in cases of myasthenia crises or when corticosteroid medication must be avoided. There is no loss of feeling with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur since muscles are still exercised despite their weakness.
Myasthenia gravis (my-us-THEE-nee-uh GRAY-vis) is characterized by weakness and fast tiredness of any of the muscles within your voluntary control. It is caused by a disruption in the normal connection between nerves and muscles.
There is no cure for myasthenia gravis, although treatment can help improve symptoms such as arm or leg weakness, double vision, drooping eyelids, and difficulties with speech, chewing, swallowing, and breathing.
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You have measured the water and weighed the plaster correctly for a maxillary impression and base. A few seconds after you begin mixing, you note that the mix is very dry. You know you measured correctly. Offer reasons why this happened.
The mix become very dry because the base surface was permeable.
What is permeability?The ease with which liquids, gases, or particular compounds can move through a substance is measured by its permeability.
By applying ahead and measuring the depth of penetration or the volume of liquid or gas moving through the sample, permeability is ascertained.
In granular materials like sedimentary rocks, permeability is mostly determined by the size, shape, and packing arrangement of the grains as well as the size, shape, and size distribution of the pores in the substance.
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what is bruise formed by collection of blood at the puncture site
an older adult couple is discussing their concern of the husband not being able to achieve erection. what is an appropriate suggestion for the nurse to offer this couple?
It could take longer to get an erection and more physical stimulation. An elderly couple is talking about their worry that the husband can't get an erection.
What does psychology mean by physical stimulation?Physiological stimulation is one application of the phrase that clearly refers with sensory excitation, the impact of diverse stimuli on receptors to produce impulses that travel down nerves to the brain.
How do you stimulate someone?Anything might count as mental exercise, including playing intellectual games, reading books, learning a new language or musical instrument, or even interacting with others. All of them offer the mental stimulation necessary to combat crippling age-related cognitive illnesses while also enhancing your mental capacity.
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the medical term that means pertaining to the formation of blood cells is
The medical term that means pertaining to the formation of blood cells is Hematopoiesis .
It's a complex process that begins with a single stem cell, which also divides into two son cells. One son cell becomes a myeloid stem cell and the other cell becomes a lymphoid stem cell. These cells also suffer farther division and isolation to form colorful types of mature blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Hematopoiesis occurs in the bone gist, which is where the maturity of blood cells are formed. The process is tightly regulated by colorful hormones, cytokines, and growth factors, which are part of the body's normal homeostatic mechanisms. Hematopoiesis is essential for survival, as it ensures the body's capability to combat infection.
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what instrument of risk management is particularly beneficial for following coding and billing regulations for medicare, medicaid, and other government plans
The most beneficial instrument of risk management for following coding and billing regulations for Medicare, Medicaid, and other government plans is a compliance audit.
What is coding ?Coding is the process of creating instructions for computers in a programming language. Coding is used to create software applications, websites, and other digital systems. It involves creating instructions using a specific programming language that can be read, understood, and executed by computers. Coding is an essential part of software development and is used by engineers, developers, designers, and even hobbyists. Coding can involve creating basic instructions, such as displaying text or images on a website, or more complex instructions, such as creating a web or mobile application. Learning to code can open up many new opportunities and can be a valuable skill to have.
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anemia of chronic renal failure is caused by the lack of?
Chronic renal disease-related anaemia is multifactorial in nature, with decreased renal erythropoietin (EPO) production—the hormone that stimulates the creation of red blood cells—as the most likely cause. A frequent side effect of chronic renal disease is anaemia (CKD).
Kidney disease (CKD) is characterised by impaired blood filtration due to damaged kidneys. Wastes and fluid can accumulate in your body as a result of this harm. Other health issues can also result from CKD. Early kidney disease is less likely to cause anaemia, and as the disease advances and more kidney function is lost, anaemia frequently worsens.. Over 90% of patients getting renal replacement treatment experience anaemia, which is a typical consequence of chronic kidney disease. Significant morbidity and mortality are linked to it.
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the nurse instructs an adolescent on the hazards of body piercings and tattoos. which outcome indicates that teaching has been effective?
The outcome which indicates that teaching has been effective is the patient refuses to get eyebrow pierced with girl friends.
The patient refuses to get her eyebrows pierced in front of her pals, indicating that the education against body piercings and tattoos was effective. Having a tattoo or piercing in a specific bodily place implies that education was ineffective.
Anybody thinking about getting a tattoo or getting a body piercing should be informed of the hazards if necessary measures and aftercare are not taken. Major skin, blood, and bone infections, hepatitis C, and other long-term problems are among the hazards.
Environmental protection authorities have indicated that tattoos are extremely carcinogenic. Heavy metals, specifically cadmium, lead, mercury, antimony, beryllium, and arsenic, are linked to cancer, neurological illnesses, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disease, lungs, kidneys, liver, endocrine disease, and bone disease.
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a patient is being positioned after having a chest tube inserted for a pleural effusion. which action should the nurse take
The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube, so the findings would require follow-up with the physician if absence of tidal breathing for 24 hours with a chest tube located in the 2nd lateral intercostal space is option C.
What is the function of the chest tube?Here, tidaling refers to the normal rise and fall of fluid in the water seal chamber of a chest tube drainage system with the patient's breathing, and the absence of tidaling can indicate that the chest tube is blocked or that there is a leak in the system, and an absence of drainage for 24 hours would indicate a problem with the tube or drainage system.
Hence, the findings would require follow-up with the physician if the absence of tidal breathing for 24 hours with a chest tube located in the 2nd lateral intercostal space is option C.
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The question is incomplete, the possible complete question is below,
The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube. Which of the following findings would require follow-up with the physician?
A) Absence of tidaling with a mediastinal chest tube for 24 hours.
B) The waterless chest tube drainage system was accidentally tipped over.
C) Absence of tidaling for 24 hours with a chest tube located in the 2nd lateral intercostal space.
D) Gentle fluctuations are noted in the diagnostic indicator of the waterless drainage system.
