The condition that would contraindicate a facial massage, even if it is being treated and carefully monitored by a physician, is severely sensitive skin. The Correct option is E
Facial massage involves manipulating the skin and underlying tissues, which can potentially exacerbate sensitivity and cause adverse reactions in individuals with sensitive skin. It is important to consider the specific needs and sensitivities of each individual when determining the appropriateness of facial massage.
While conditions such as hypertension, cancer, and diabetes may require caution and adaptations during a facial massage, severe sensitivity of the skin is more likely to directly contraindicate the procedure to avoid discomfort, irritation, or adverse reactions.
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an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis is hospitalized. the nurse caring for the client plans to address which problem first?
When caring for an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis, the nurse should prioritize addressing the problem of increased risk for pathological fractures.
Severe osteoporosis, coupled with the effects of hyperparathyroidism, can significantly weaken the client's bones, making them susceptible to fractures. Pathological fractures can lead to immobility, pain, and potential complications.
By addressing this problem first, the nurse aims to prevent further bone damage and promote the client's mobility and overall well-being. This may involve implementing measures such as fall precautions, proper body mechanics, assisting with mobility, and providing education on fracture prevention and safety measures.
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In the 1980’s, a clinical trial was conducted to determine if taking an aspirin daily reduced the incidence of heart attacks. Of 22,071 medical doctors participating in the study, 11,037 were randomly assigned to take aspirin and 11,034 were randomly assigned to the placebo group. Doctors in this group were given a sugar pill disguised to look like aspirin. After six months, the proportion of heart attacks in the two groups was compared. Only 104 doctors who took aspirin had a heard attack, whereas 189 who received the placebo had a heart attack. Can we conclude from this study that taking aspirin reduced the chance of having a heart attack? The purpose of this study was to determine whether taking an aspirin daily reduces the proportion of heart attacks.
8. Suppose , , and that the standard error is .00153. What is the value of the test statistic for this study?
A. -0.073
B. -3.92
C. 0.073
D. 3.92
The value of the test statistic for this study is -3.92. The correct answer is option D.
Aspirin was compared to the placebo in a study conducted in the 1980s to determine whether taking an aspirin every day decreased the occurrence of heart attacks. This study's goal was to determine if taking an aspirin daily reduced the proportion of heart attacks.
The proportion of heart attacks was compared after six months between the two groups. 104 physicians who received aspirin had a heart attack, while 189 who received a placebo had a heart attack. We will utilize a two-tailed test to answer this question.
The null hypothesis, H0, would be that the proportions of heart attacks in the aspirin group and the placebo group are equal. On the other hand, Ha, the alternative hypothesis, would be that the proportions of heart attacks in the aspirin group and the placebo group are unequal. The null hypothesis will be rejected if the p-value is less than 0.05. For this study, the test statistic value is -3.92.
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a nurse is monitoring a client on sulfonamide therapy. which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is developing thrombocytopenia?
Thrombocytopenia refers to a decrease in the number of platelets in the blood, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
If a nurse is monitoring a client on sulfonamide therapy and suspects the development of thrombocytopenia, they would be vigilant for certain findings. These may include spontaneous or excessive bruising, petechiae (small, pinpoint-sized red or purple spots on the skin), prolonged bleeding from minor cuts or injuries, bleeding gums, blood in the urine or stool, and the presence of unexplained nosebleeds.
Additionally, the nurse would monitor the client for signs of bleeding internally, such as a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, or signs of organ damage related to hemorrhage. Prompt recognition and reporting of these signs are crucial to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications associated with thrombocytopenia.
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wo days after an abscess of the chin was drained the client returns to the clinic with fever chills and a maculopapular rash with pruritus. the client has taken an oral antibiotic and cleaned the wound today with provide iodine (betadine) solution. which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. determine if the client has a history of diabetes b. assess airway patency and oxygen saturation c. review recent medication history and allergies d. obtain samples for complete blood count and cultures
The nurse should implement the intervention of assessing airway patency and oxygen saturation first. The Correct option is B
The client's presentation of fever, chills, and a maculopapular rash with pruritus may indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis. It is crucial to assess the client's airway patency to ensure they are able to breathe adequately and to evaluate their oxygen saturation levels to identify any respiratory compromise.
This intervention takes priority as it addresses the client's immediate safety and well-being. Once the airway and oxygenation are assessed and stabilized, the nurse can proceed with other interventions such as reviewing the client's medication history and allergies, obtaining samples for a complete blood count and cultures, and determining if the client has a history of diabetes to further investigate the cause of the symptoms.
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tanya's doctor has prepared her for the possibility that her baby has a large head and may have to be delivered by surgical delivery through an incision in tanya's abdomen. this method of birth is called a
Answer:
cesarean section, C-section, or cesarean birth
what architectural model of health information exchange allows participants to access data in point-to-point exchange?
The architectural model of health information exchange that allows participants to access data in point-to-point exchange is the Directed Exchange model.
In this model, data exchange occurs directly between two participants or organizations that have a specific relationship or agreement in place. It enables secure and controlled sharing of health information between authorized entities, such as healthcare providers, hospitals, and laboratories.
Point-to-point exchange ensures that data is exchanged only between the intended parties, promoting efficient communication and coordination of care. This model is commonly used for secure messaging, referrals, and sharing specific patient information between trusted entities within a healthcare network.
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the best way for a person to consume energy and essential nutrients in adequate and balanced amounts is to:
The best way for a person to consume energy and essential nutrients in adequate and balanced amounts is to follow a well-rounded and varied diet.
This involves including a diverse range of foods from different food groups, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. Portion control is important to ensure appropriate energy intake. It is also beneficial to limit the consumption of processed foods, sugary beverages, and foods high in saturated fats and sodium.
Consulting a registered dietitian or nutritionist can provide personalized guidance to meet specific nutritional needs and ensure a balanced and nourishing diet. Regular physical activity should also be incorporated for overall health and well-being.
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a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (als) is being prepared for discharge. what teaching would be essential for the family to receive before taking the patient home? select all that apply.
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being prepared for discharge, and the family should receive essential teaching points before taking the patient home. These include:
A. Proper positioning and turning techniques to prevent pressure ulcers, as immobility can increase the risk of skin breakdown.
B. Safe swallowing techniques and strategies to prevent aspiration, as ALS can affect the muscles involved in swallowing.
C. Assistance with daily activities of living, such as bathing and dressing, as ALS progressively impairs motor function.
D. Administration of medications to manage symptoms and slow disease progression, as specific medications may be prescribed for ALS.
E. Importance of regular physical exercise and mobility exercises to maintain muscle strength, as physical activity can help delay muscle weakness.
F. Recognizing and managing respiratory distress and the use of respiratory support devices, as ALS eventually affects the respiratory muscles.
By providing this education, the family can support the patient's well-being and ensure appropriate care at home.
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Complete Question:
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following teaching points would be essential for the family to receive before taking the patient home? Select all that apply.
A. Proper positioning and turning techniques to prevent pressure ulcers
B. Safe swallowing techniques and strategies to prevent aspiration
C. Assistance with daily activities of living, such as bathing and dressing
D. Administration of medications to manage symptoms and slow disease progression
E. Importance of regular physical exercise and mobility exercises to maintain muscle strength
F. Recognizing and managing respiratory distress and the use of respiratory support devices
the nurse provides care for a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (mg). which is the priority when administering the prescribed dose of pyridostigmine (mestinon)?
When administering the prescribed dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon) to a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (MG), the nurse's priority is to ensure the patient's safety and monitor for potential adverse effects.
This includes assessing the patient for signs of cholinergic crisis, such as increased weakness, difficulty breathing, excessive salivation, and gastrointestinal symptoms. The nurse should closely monitor vital signs, especially respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, as respiratory muscle weakness can be a complication.
It is important to administer the medication as prescribed, educate the patient and family about cholinergic crisis symptoms, and collaborate with the healthcare team for dosage adjustments based on the patient's response.
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the nurse is administering magnesium sulfate to a client for preeclampsia at 34 weeks' gestation. what is the priority nursing action for this client?
The priority nursing action for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia at 34 weeks' gestation is to closely monitor the client's vital signs, particularly blood pressure, respiratory rate, and heart rate.
Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but it can also cause side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotension, and bradycardia. Continuous monitoring of vital signs allows the nurse to identify any changes or signs of adverse reactions promptly.
Additionally, close monitoring helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely intervention if necessary, helping to prevent complications associated with magnesium sulfate administration.
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the nurse is planning to admit a pregnant client who is obese. in planning care for this client, which potential client needs would the nurse anticipate? select all that apply.
Obese pregnant clients are more likely to experience issues like venous thromboembolism and need more caesarean sections. The obese client also needs unique considerations when it comes to nursing care. Hence (2), (3) and (5) are the correct option.
Frequent and early ambulation (instead of bed rest) is advised before and after surgery to reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism, especially in clients who needed caesarean sections. Heparin and other preventative pharmacological treatments for venous thromboembolism are frequently prescribed. If a caesarean section is required, an overbed lift could be required to move the patient from a bed to the operating table. Due to the increased risk of infection brought on by increased belly fat, a caesarean incision, if present, needs to be monitored and cleaned more frequently.
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The nurse is planning to admit a pregnant client who is obese. In planning care for this client, which potential client needs should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
1. Bed rest as a necessary preventive measure may be prescribed.
2. Administration of subcutaneous heparin postdelivery as prescribed.
3. An overbed lift may be necessary if the client requires a cesarean section.
4. Less frequent cleansing of a cesarean incision, if present, may be prescribed.
5. Thromboembolism stockings or sequential compression devices may be prescribed.
a client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells to treat a bleeding disorder. the nurse would obtain which intravenous (iv) solution from the iv storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside?
Normal saline is always used in transfusion medicine and is the only solution that the AABB recommends as being compatible with blood components. Use filtered tubing to inject just regular saline solution into the blood product.
In the USA, normal saline is always used for initial intravenous infusions, washing/saving red cells, and washing platelets. Before administering blood or a blood product, the nurse must take baseline vital signs. She should then stay with the patient and keep an eye on them for at least 15 minutes after the transfusion starts, since the majority of serious blood reactions and complications happen soon after the transfusion.
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a patient with low back pain asks what non medical treatments can be used to help with the discomfort. which complementary and alternative therapies does the nurse discuss with patient? select all that apply.
The nurse should explain to the patient that this diagnostic test "measures nerve damage." In order to detect nerve injury, nerve conduction studies (NCS) analyse the electrical nerve impulse. Hence (1) is thge correct option.
A myelogram reveals whether herniated discs are pressing on the spinal cord or nerves. Measured by electromyography (EMG), electrical impulses within muscle tissue are quantified. Lumbago, which derives its name from the lumbar portion of the spine, is another word for back discomfort. Back pain is typically mechanical in nature and can be treated with activity reduction, rest, ice, and heat. X-rays display the vertebral anatomy and contour of the joints. In order to remove bone fragments, foreign objects, herniated discs, or broken vertebrae that appear to be compressing the spine, surgery is frequently required.
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A patient with low back pain asks why nerve conduction studies are prescribed. What explanation should the nurse provide to the patient relative to this diagnostic test?
1) "It measures damage to nerves."
2) "It shows pressure on nerves from herniated disks."
3) "It measures electrical impulses within muscle tissue."
4) "It shows the structure of the vertebrae and joint outlines."
a patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. what information does the nurse include in an explanation of this disease process?
When explaining the disease process of myasthenia gravis to a patient, the nurse would include the following information:
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, where nerves communicate with muscles. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks and damages the receptors on the muscle side of the neuromuscular junction. This leads to a decrease in the number of functioning receptors, resulting in muscle weakness and fatigue. Patients may experience difficulty with voluntary muscle movements, such as lifting objects, walking, or even talking and swallowing.
Symptoms may worsen with exertion but improve with rest. The nurse would also emphasize the importance of adhering to the prescribed treatment plan, which often includes medications to improve nerve-muscle communication and managing symptoms to improve quality of life. Regular follow-up appointments and close communication with healthcare providers are essential for effective disease management.
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a client is hemorrhaging following chest trauma. blood pressure is 74/52, pulse rate is 124 beats per minute, and respirations are 32 breaths per minute. a colloid solution is to be administered. the nurse assesses the fluid that is contraindicated in this situation is
Answer:
synthetic colloid solution hydroxyethyl starch (HES)can make things WORSE
nurse CAN use other liquids like saltwater or a liquid called lactated ringers
explanation:
patient who is hemorrhaging following
chest trauma
low blood pressure
rapid pulse rate
increased respirations
hydroxyethyl starch (HES) IS used for
volume expansion
adverse effects :
impaired blood coagulation
renal dysfunction, especially in critically ill patients with bleeding.
consider alternatives : crystalloid solutions : normal saline or Lactated Ringer's solution
Lactated Ringer's injection is used to replace water and electrolyte loss in patients with low blood volume or low blood pressure. It is also used as an alkalinizing agent . ingredients: Sodium chloride 600 mg; sodium lactate, anhydrous 310 mg; potassium chloride 30 mg; calcium chloride, dihydrate 20 mg. The pH is 6.6
the nurse is performing an assessment of a primigravida who is being evaluated in a clinic during the second trimester of pregnancy. which findings concern the nurse and indicate the need for follow-up? select all that apply.
The concern the nurse and indicate the need for follow-up for a primigravida:
Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/minuteElevated level of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP), option A and B.Gravidity and parity are terms used in biology and human medicine to describe the number of times a woman is or has been pregnant (gravidity) and the number of pregnancies she has carried to a viable gestational age (parity). These terms are typically used together, but they can also be used separately, depending on the context.
Gravida demonstrates the times a lady is or has been pregnant, no matter what the pregnancy outcome. An ongoing pregnancy, if any, is remembered for this count. A different pregnancy (e.g., twins, trios, and so forth.) is regarded as 1.
Equality, or "para", demonstrates the quantity of births (counting live births and stillbirths) where pregnancies arrived at reasonable gestational age. A various pregnancy (e.g., twins, trios, and so on.) conveyed to practical gestational age is as yet considered 1.
Abortus is the quantity of pregnancies that were lost before suitable gestational age under any condition, including actuated early terminations or unnatural birth cycles yet not stillbirths. When no pregnancies have been lost, the abortus term may be dropped.
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Complete question:
The nurse is performing an assessment of a primigravida who is being evaluated in a clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which findings concern the nurse and indicate the need for follow-up? Select all that apply.
Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/minute
Elevated level of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
The breast changes occur because of the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
Blood vessels beneath the skin often appear as a blue, intertwining network, especially in a primigravida.
place the components of the planning step of the nursing process in the correct order. select interventions. establish goals and outcomes. create a plan of care. prioritize nursing diagnoses.
The order of the planning step components within the nursing process is :
Prioritize nursing diagnoses.Establish goals and outcomes.Select interventions.Create a plan of care.The scientific method has been modified for the nursing process. Nursing practice was first portrayed as a four-stage nursing process by Ida Jean Orlando in 1958. It should not be confused with health informatics or nursing theories. Later, the diagnosis phase was added. A mind map or abductive reasoning may be an alternative method for organizing care, according to some authors. Experienced nurses rely on intuition.
The nursing system utilizes clinical judgment to find some kind of harmony of epistemology between private understanding and examination proof in which decisive reasoning might have an impact to sort the clients issue and strategy. Different ways of knowing are available in nursing. Nursing information has embraced pluralism since the 1970s.
The first step in making a nursing diagnosis is taking a nursing assessment. In order to identify the problems, risks, and potential outcomes of improving the patient's health, it is essential that a recognized nursing assessment framework be utilized in practice. Assessments that assist nurses in making NANDA-I nursing diagnoses ought to be guided by the application of an evidence-based nursing framework like Gordon's Functional Health Pattern Assessment. For exact assurance of nursing analyze, a valuable, proof based evaluation structure is best practice.
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Complete question:
What is the order of the planning step components within the nursing process?
Establish goals and outcomes.
Prioritize nursing diagnoses.
Create a plan of care.
Select interventions.
the nurse is careful to apply only the prescribed amount of ointment to the skin of a 2-month-old infant. how is infant skin different from adult skin?
When applying ointment to an infant's skin, it is important to use only the prescribed amount and to be careful not to get the ointment in the infant's eyes or mouth.
Infant skin is different from adult skin in several ways. Some of the key differences include:
Thicker skin: Infant skin is thicker and more robust than adult skin, which helps to protect the delicate tissues of the body from injury and infection.
Higher water content: Infant skin has a higher water content than adult skin, which helps to keep the skin hydrated and soft.
More sensitive: Infant skin is more sensitive than adult skin, which means it is more prone to irritation and damage.
Easier to damage: Because infant skin is thinner and more delicate than adult skin, it is easier to damage or irritate. This makes it important to be extra careful when caring for an infant's skin.
Different skin care needs: Infant skin has different skin care needs than adult skin. For example, it is important to use gentle, fragrance-free products that are free from harsh chemicals when caring for an infant's skin.
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mr. laird is a 49-year-old electrician who experienced severe burns on his trunk, arms, and hands in a workplace accident 2 weeks ago. part of his current wound care regimen involves the daily application of silver sulfadiazine to his wounds. the nurses who are providing care for mr. laird in the burns and plastics unit of the hospital should perform what action when administering this medication?
When administering silver sulfadiazine to Mr. Laird's wounds as part of his wound care regimen, the nurses in the burns and plastics unit should perform the following action:
Ensure proper hand hygiene before applying the medication. This helps prevent the introduction of any harmful bacteria to the wounds.Use sterile gloves to protect both the patient and the healthcare provider from contamination during the application.Gently clean the wounds with sterile saline or another appropriate wound cleanser before applying the silver sulfadiazine. This helps remove debris and promote healing.Apply a thin, even layer of silver sulfadiazine cream to the affected areas, covering the burns and any open wounds.Follow proper aseptic technique to prevent cross-contamination during the procedure.By following these actions, the nurses can ensure the safe and effective administration of silver sulfadiazine as part of Mr. Laird's wound care regimen in the burns and plastics unit of the hospital.
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when preparing to bathe a person, you check the water with a bath thermometer. which water temperature would be appropriate to use? nursing
When preparing to bathe a person, it is important to ensure the water temperature is appropriate to avoid discomfort or injury.
The recommended water temperature for bathing is typically between 98°F (36.7°C) and 105°F (40.6°C). This range provides a comfortable and safe temperature for most individuals. It is important to use a bath thermometer to accurately measure the water temperature and ensure it falls within this range.
Water that is too hot can lead to burns or scalding, while water that is too cold may cause discomfort or chilliness. By maintaining an appropriate water temperature, the bathing experience can be safe, comfortable, and enjoyable for the individual.
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in assessing a patient with increased intracranial pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's left pupil is larger than the right pupil. the nurse correlates the larger left pupil to compression of which cranial nerve? group of answer choices left optic nerve
The nurse notes that the patient's left pupil is larger than the right pupil. The nurse correlates the larger left pupil to compression of cranial nerve: Left oculomotor nerve (Option B)
This condition, known as anisocoria, can be indicative of compression or damage to the left oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). The oculomotor nerve plays a crucial role in controlling the constriction of the pupils (pupillary constriction) and the movement of the eye muscles.
Compression of the left oculomotor nerve can occur as a result of increased intracranial pressure, which can be caused by conditions such as head trauma, brain tumors, or cerebral edema. The increased pressure within the cranial cavity can lead to the displacement and compression of various structures, including the oculomotor nerve. This compression disrupts the normal function of the nerve, resulting in anisocoria with a larger left pupil
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complete question:
In assessing a patient with increased intracranial pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's left pupil is larger than the right pupil. The nurse correlates the larger left pupil to compression of which cranial nerve?
a. Left optic nerve
b. Left oculomotor nerve
c. Right optic nerve
d. Right oculomotor nerve
which component does the nurse analyze to identify patient problems and select appropriate nursing diagnoses? plan of care assessment data nursing outcomes nursing taxonomy
The component that the nurse analyzes to identify patient problems and select appropriate nursing diagnoses is the assessment data.
Assessment data refers to the information that the nurse collects during the patient assessment process, which includes both subjective information (what the patient reports) and objective information (what the nurse observes or measures). The nurse uses this information to identify the patient's health status, determine the patient's needs, and develop a plan of care.
Once the assessment data has been collected, the nurse uses it to identify potential nursing diagnoses, which are statements that describe a patient's health problem or condition. The nurse then selects appropriate nursing diagnoses based on the assessment data, the nursing outcomes, and the nursing taxonomy.
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beginning in 1900 and continuing until 1950, we observe that death rates for influenza and pneumonia decrease while death rates for heart disease increase. what might have caused this shift?
The death rates for influenza and pneumonia decrease while death rates for heart disease increase because influenza can result in decompensation of stable heart disease or even an increase in the incidence of heart attack.
Flu (influenza) is a profoundly infectious viral contamination that is one of the most extreme sicknesses of the colder time of year season. Influenza spreads easily from one person to another, typically through coughing or sneezing.
A serious lung infection or inflammation is known as pneumonia. Pus and other liquid fill the air sacs, preventing oxygen from entering the bloodstream. The cells in the body can't function properly if there isn't enough oxygen in the blood, which can cause death.
There are vaccines that protect against influenza and some forms of pneumonia, but none are 100% effective. It is essential to receive a flu vaccination each season to ensure that you are protected against the most recent strains of the virus because the strains of the flu change annually. Pneumonia inoculations are typically just essential once, albeit a promoter immunization might be suggested for certain people. Inquire as to whether you are cutting-edge on your inoculations and to decide whether any extra immunizations are appropriate for you.
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a nurse is working in an oncology treatment center. which clinical manifestation when reported by a client would the nurse know may be related to metastasis from prostate cancer?
Certain risk factors for the disease are more prevalent in males who get the condition. These risk elements consist of: Age: The chance of acquiring testicular cancer is highest in men between the ages of 20 and 35.
Heat or cold should be applied to the swollen area. Choose the option that reduces your discomfort the most. Two times per day, spend 15 minutes in a warm bath to help the swelling go down faster. Do not have sex until your doctor clears you to do so if you have been advised that a STI may have contributed to your condition. To find prostate cancer early, routine screening using a PSA blood test and physical examination is crucial.
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the nurse is assessing a client in the second trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. which findings would the nurse expect to note if abruptio placentae is present? select all that apply.
If the client has a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae, the assessment finding the nurse should expect to note is 2. Uterine tenderness.
Abruptio placentae is a serious condition where the placenta partially or completely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. Uterine tenderness is a common finding in abruptio placentae due to the separation and bleeding behind the placenta. The tenderness may be localized or diffuse, and the severity can vary depending on the extent of placental separation.
The other options are not consistent with abruptio placentae:
Soft abdomen: In abruptio placentae, the uterus may feel firm or tense due to uterine irritability or increased tone caused by the separation of the placenta.Absence of abdominal pain: Abruptio placentae typically presents with abdominal pain, which can range from mild to severe, and may be accompanied by uterine contractions.Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding: Abruptio placentae is often associated with vaginal bleeding, but it is usually dark and may be mixed with clots. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding is more commonly associated with placenta previa, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix.Learn more about . Uterine tenderness.
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Full Question: The nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the second trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to note if this condition is present?
1. Soft abdomen
2. Uterine tenderness
3. Absence of abdominal pain
4. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
the nurse uses a diagram to show the location of meridians. how will the nurse explain the definition of meridians?
The nurse can explain the definition of meridians as energy pathways or channels in the body that are part of traditional Chinese medicine.
These meridians are believed to carry vital energy, known as Qi, throughout the body. They form a complex network connecting various organs, systems, and tissues. The meridians are not physical structures but rather conceptual pathways that facilitate the flow of energy and influence the overall health and balance of the body.
By understanding the location and flow of these meridians, healthcare professionals can assess and address imbalances in the body's energy system to promote well-being and treat conditions in traditional Chinese medicine.
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you are running at prothrombin time (pt) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) for pre-op testing that came from an outpatient clinic. you get an alarm from your analyzer indicating that there is no endpoint clotting time. the patient has no history of bleeding problems and is on no medication that would cause excessive long coagulation times. the specimen was in a 3.2% sodium citrate tube that was received into the lab 20 minutes after it was collected and spun immediately upon arrival. what may be the cause for the failure to clot?
The failure to observe an endpoint clotting time in both the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) tests could be attributed to several factors in this scenario.
One possible cause is the delayed delivery of the specimen to the lab. The 3.2% sodium citrate tube is an anticoagulant tube commonly used for coagulation testing. However, if the specimen was not promptly transported to the lab and was held for 20 minutes before being received, it may have compromised the clotting process. The anticoagulant effect of sodium citrate might have interfered with proper clot formation.
Additionally, inadequate mixing of the blood with the anticoagulant or premature clotting could have occurred due to the delay in transport. Other factors that may contribute to the failure to clot include improper handling or processing of the sample, such as inadequate centrifugation or contamination. It is essential to investigate the exact cause by repeating the test using a properly collected and handled specimen.
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a patient with parkinson's disease is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa (sinemet). which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to be most affected with this medication?
The clinical manifestation that the nurse should expect to be most affected by carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) in a patient with Parkinson's disease is tremors.
Carbidopa/levodopa is a medication that is commonly used to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, which is a disorder of the nervous system that affects movement. It works by increasing the levels of dopamine in the brain, which helps to improve movement and reduce the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
One of the most common symptoms of Parkinson's disease is tremors, which are involuntary movements that can occur in the hands, arms, legs, or head. Carbidopa/levodopa can help to reduce the severity of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease, making them less noticeable and less disruptive to daily activities. Other symptoms of Parkinson's disease that can be improved with carbidopa/levodopa include muscle stiffness, difficulty with balance and coordination, and slow movement.
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which person presenting for treatment in an emergency department in the united states is most likely to have typhoid fever? the person who has:
The person most likely to have typhoid fever when presenting for treatment in an emergency department is someone who has recently traveled to a region where typhoid fever is endemic or prevalent.
Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, which is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water in areas with poor sanitation. Individuals who have visited countries with inadequate hygiene and sanitation practices, particularly in regions of Asia, Africa, and Latin America, are at higher risk of acquiring typhoid fever.
Therefore, a person who has a recent travel history to an endemic area and presents with symptoms like high fever, abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances should be considered a potential typhoid fever case and receive appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.
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a nurse is preparing a client for bronchoscopy. which instruction should the nurse give to the client?
Before a bronchoscopy, the nurse should provide the following instructions to the client: Fasting: The client should not eat or drink anything for a certain number of hours before the procedure, as advised by the healthcare provider.
Medications: The client should inform the nurse about any medications they are taking, including over-the-counter medications, herbal supplements, and vitamins, and whether they should be taken before or after the procedure.
Allergies: The client should inform the nurse about any allergies they have, including allergies to medications, anesthesia, or latex.
Prepare for the procedure: The client should wash their hands thoroughly with soap and water, and remove any jewelry, makeup, or other items that may interfere with the procedure.
Arrive on time: The client should arrive at the hospital or clinic on time for the procedure, as the nurse will need to prepare them for the procedure.
What to expect during the procedure: The nurse should explain to the client what to expect during the bronchoscopy, including the type of anesthesia used, the duration of the procedure, and any potential risks or complications.
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