During meiosis I, homologous pairs of chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell, also known as the metaphase plate. This process is called synapsis. Once aligned, the homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material through a process called crossing over. After crossing over, the homologous chromosomes separate, and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell by the spindle fibers. This results in the formation of two daughter cells, each with one copy of each homologous pair of chromosomes. This process is known as disjunction.
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during which prenatal period is the probability of a structural defect (e.g., malformed heart, arm, or leg) the greatest?
Major body and internal organ problems are more likely to arise between 3 and 12 embryo / foetal weeks. This corresponds to 5 to 14 gestational weeks (weeks since the first day of your last period). This is also known as the first trimester.
When do the majority of structural abnormalities occur during pregnancy?Birth malformations can occur at any stage of pregnancy. However, the majority occur during the first three months of pregnancy (commonly known as the first trimester), while your baby's organs are developing.
The first trimester screening is a series of tests performed between weeks 11 and 13 of pregnancy. It is used to screen for birth abnormalities involving the baby's heart or chromosomal problems such as Down syndrome.
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Which of the answer choices is an accurate statement that accounts for why women with the genotype XXX are not phenotypically different from an XX female?
a) Only one X chromosome is active in each cell, regardless of how many X chromosomes there are in a cell.
b) The X chromosome only carries genes dealing with being a female, so having another one doesn't matter.
c) The extra X chromosome only becomes active in nonreproductive areas of the body.
d) Cells normally have enzymes that recognize and degrade extra X chromosomes.
e) None of the answer options is correct.
a) Only one X chromosome is active in each cell, regardless of how many X chromosomes there are in a cell is correct and explains why women having the genotype XXX do not differ phenotypically from XX females.
One of the two X chromosomes in females randomly and irreversibly becomes inactive in cells other than egg cells early in the development of the embryo. X-inactivation or lyonization is the term used to describe this process. One functioning copy of the X chromosome is present in each body cell of females, just like males, thanks to X-inactivation.
The difference between the active and inactive X chromosomes in somatic cells can be attributed to a variety of epigenetic characteristics. To diagnose the inactive X chromosome(s) in clinical material, these characteristics can be helpful. Any X chromosome in excess of one is inactivated in patients with extra X chromosomes (male or female). Accordingly, regardless of the total number of X or Y chromosomes present, all diploid somatic cells in both males and females have a single active X chromosome.
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what channels can be found in the membrane of cardiac muscle cells that are not present in skeletal muscle cells
Answer: Voltage gated calcium channel
Explanation: Voltage-gated calcium channels are specialised ion channels only found in cardiac muscle cells' sarcolemma.
which endocrine organ is found in the thoracic cavity?
The endocrine structures that would be found directly below the sternum in the thoracic cavity is the thymus gland.
Which three endocrine organs are there?
The hypothalamus, pituitary, and thyroid are the three main glands that make up the endocrine system, while many other regions of the body also produce hormones.
Which endocrine organ shown in the illustration is located in the thoracic cavity?
The hypothalamus, pineal gland, pituitary gland, thyroid, parathyroid glands, thymus, adrenal glands, and pancreas are components of the endocrine system. It also comprises the placenta (during pregnancy) and ovaries in females and the testes in males.
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When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage? A. Helmich maneuver B. Valsalva maneuver C. Muelor maneuver D. Diaphragmatic maneuver
The Valsalva maneuver involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage to create rigidity in the torso. Thus Option B is the answer.
The purpose of Valsalva maneuver maneuver is to increase intrathoracic pressure, which can be beneficial for certain activities such as weightlifting, defecation, and childbirth.
When performing the Valsalva maneuver, the individual takes a deep breath and then exhales while bearing down and holding their breath. This causes the diaphragm to contract and the thorax to become more rigid, which can help to stabilize the spine and increase the force exerted during a lift or push.
It's also used in medical settings for diagnostic purposes, such as measuring blood pressure. It can be used to diagnose heart conditions such as aortic stenosis and hypertension, it's also used to evaluate autonomic function and it's a routine part of some diagnostic test like barium enema.
It's important to note that the Valsalva maneuver should not be performed if an individual has hypertension, heart disease, or certain other health conditions, as it can be dangerous. It's also not recommended to perform this maneuver for long periods of time, as it can cause blood pressure changes, headaches, and other symptom
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Human Anatomy & Physiology
Name the four primary forms of tissues in the human body and explain two details or functions of each type of tissue.
Answer:
Four tissues:
connective tissue
epithelial tissue
muscle tissue
nervous tissue
/\ Basic types of tissues..
( Connective tissue )
Giving structure to other tissues and protects them as well
( Epithelial tissue )
Can also protect aspects of your body also by protecting it
( Muscle Tissue )
Help you to move such as walking a running has many blood cells
( Nervous Tissue )
Can relieve stimuli and can send “ signals “ to the brain
Which of the following is a valid interpretation of the experimental results that explains how individuals with type 2 diabetes differ from individuals without diabetes? (A) The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that mobilization of GLUT4 to the cell surface is reduced in muscle cells of those individuals. (B) The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that no functional GLUT4 protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individuals. (C) The absences of activated insulin receptors in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicates that no insulin is secreted by the pancreatic cells of those individuals. (D) The absence of activated IRS-1 in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicates that no functional insulin receptor protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individuals.
Option A: The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that mobilization of GLUT4 to the cell surface is reduced in muscle cells of those individuals, is a valid interpretation of the experimental results.
Glut4 slowly circulates between the plasma membrane and the vesicular compartments of the cell, where the majority of the Glut4 is found, in the absence of insulin. Through a process of selective exocytosis, insulin promotes the translocation of a pool of Glut4 to the plasma membrane. Whereas, individuals without diabetes do not experience any of such cases as their insulin levels are balanced. Thus, option A is the right choice.
People with type 1 diabetes and those with type 2 diabetes who take insulin or other diabetic medications frequently experience low blood glucose levels. Insulin and other medications that aid in the release of insulin into the bloodstream may have the side effect of lowering blood glucose levels. You can lower your blood glucose level by taking these.
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how do the two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes differ from each other? group of answer choices in their sequence of genes inherited from either parent. the position of the centromere within each of the chromosomes their length the identity and relative position of the genes present on each of the chromosomes in their sequence of alleles inherited from either parent.
The two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes differ from each other as : their sequence of alleles inherited from either parent.
How are the two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes different from each other?Due to having various alleles of the same gene, two homologous chromosomes can be distinguished from one another. Human body cells are diploid, which means that each chromosome has two copies.
A homologous pair of chromosomes has identical genes on each of them in the same order, although there may be differences between them that give rise to different alleles. While some of these allele's mutations may have functional ramifications, others won't.
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The diameter field of view of a light microscopic is 6.5mm. Plant cells lying across the diameter are. Determine the size of one cell in micrometers.
Answer:
To determine the size of one cell in micrometers, divide 6,500 micrometers (6.5mm) by the number of cells across the diameter to get the approximate size of one cell in micrometers.
Explanation:
flow the steps above
A new vaccine has been developed to protect people against salmonella food poisoning
Explain how the vaccine prevents people becoming ill with salmonella food poisoning
PLEASE HELP ITS DUE TMRW
Answer:
Explanation:
I really don’t know I just wanted to write this to get the point’s because I’m new to dis app
how would the gametes be affected if a pair of chromosomes fail to separate in the second meitoic dividsion
Two gametes that are both normal, carrying one copy of each chromosome, and two aberrant gametes, one of which carries two copies and the other none.
What if the division of the chromosomes is uneven on either side?Normally, each chromosome is duplicated in one egg or sperm cell. However, an additional or missing chromosome may appear in the resultant egg or sperm cell if chromosomes split unevenly. The embryo that results from fertilization with this egg or sperm will have an imbalance of chromosomes.
What happens if the chromosomes don't divide properly during mitosis?Aneuploidy is a condition when there are either too many or too few chromosomes in the daughter cells produced during mitosis.
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The process of converting animal tissue into value-added material is caleed: ________
The process of converting animal tissue into value-added material is called Rendering.
Rendering is the process of transforming animal waste tissue into a stable, usable material. Rendering refers to the processing of animal products into more useful materials, or more precisely, the rendering of whole animal adipose tissue into refined fats such as lard or tallow. It is the process of separating the fat from the raw material. The process includes: Water being added to the ingredients, and the ingredients are cooked with live steam. Achieve fat separation. Dry processing is a batch or continuous process of dewatering raw materials. Rendering is the process of converting animal excrement tissue into usable and valuable materials. Rendering refers to the entire adipose tissue of the animal.
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when she finds that the introduced strand separates into single-stranded rnas, what other evidence of this single-stranded rna piece's activity can she find?
She can look for further evidence of the single-stranded RNA piece’s activity by looking for protein synthesis, changes in gene expression, and changes in the cell’s metabolism.
One way to show evidence of the single-stranded RNA piece’s activity is to look for protein synthesis. The single-stranded RNA piece may be acting as a messenger, carrying instructions from the nucleus to the ribosome to produce proteins. By looking for evidence of protein synthesis, the scientist can confirm that the single-stranded RNA piece is active.
Another way to show evidence of the single-stranded RNA piece’s activity is to look for changes in gene expression. The single-stranded RNA piece may be acting as a regulator, controlling the expression of certain genes. By looking for changes in gene expression, the scientist can show that the single-stranded RNA piece is active.
Finally, the scientist can look for changes in the cell’s metabolism. The single-stranded RNA piece may be acting as a catalyst, speeding up certain metabolic processes. By looking for changes in the cell’s metabolism, the scientist can confirm that the single-stranded RNA piece is active.
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what is the difference between lytic and lysogenic cycle?
There is no integration of the viral genome into the host genome during the lytic cycle. The viral genome fuses with the host genome during replication of the lysogenic cycle and remains there until the lytic cycle is initiated.
In the lytic cycle, viruses produce new copies of themselves inside a host cell before bursting outside the cell. The viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's DNA during the lysogenic cycle, causing internal infection.
Bacterial cells with lytic phages are split open (lysed) and destroyed following an instant virion multiplication. Once the cell has been eliminated, the phage offspring can start looking for new victims to infect.
The host cell is not immediately lysed as is the case with the lysogenic cycle. Temperate phages are those that can go through lysogeny. Their viral genome will merge with host DNA, proliferate along with it in a relatively benign manner, or even take root as a plasmid.
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The himalayan rabbit's habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. the body is
typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in
black fur
himalayan rabbit
a scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a himalayan rabbit and placed an ice
pack over the shaved area. the shaved area grew black fur.
which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was
black and not white?
f the genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.
g the white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit's body temperature decreased.
h the coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit.
3 white hair only grows during certain times of the year.
The reason why the back of Himalayan rabbit grew black fur instead of white over the shaved region is that: the genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.
Himalayan rabbit is a rare breed of rabbits which is medium-sized found in the far and middle East of Asia. These are among the oldest and most calmest breed of the rabbits. They are usually white colored with a black colored pointed nose.
Genes are the basic factors that carry the information for any characteristic of an organism. Genes are the small parts of the double stranded DNA. Each gene contains the information for the synthesis of proteins that are responsible for the particular trait.
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How does the Boyce and Perrins model differ from the Lack model for explaining optimal clutch size? a. The Boyce and Perrins model accounts for year-to-year predictability in food supply and variation survival rates b. The Boyce and Perrins model assumes that there are specific parental traits that affect offspring survival probabilities. c. The Boyce and Perrins model suggests that average clutch size should be Ihe maximum possible clutch size in good year d. The Boyce and Perrins model accounts for the increasing day lengih as (he spring progresses toward summer each year
The Boyce and Perrins model differ from the Lack model for explaining optimal clutch size as The Boyce and Perrins model accounts for year-to-year predictability in food supply and variation survival rates.
What do you mean by optimal clutch size?The amount of eggs laid during a single spawning event istermed as clutch size, while the quantity of spawning occurrences is called as spawning frequency.When there is a trade-off between the quantity of offspring in a clutch and the quality of each offspring, the number of offspring that particular females are anticipated to produce in that particular mating effort (clutch) is taken into consideration.To know more about optimal clutch size visit
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in the 1960's mitochondria dna was discovered with the use of an electron microscope. the presence of mitochondrial dna in eukaryotic cells suggest what about the origin of life on earth
a. eukaryotic cells functions without dna
b. the dna molecule existed before mitochondria
c. mitochondria may have been free-living cells (endosymbiotic theory)
d. that life originated from mitochondrial dna
The presence of mitochondrial DNA in the eukaryotic cell indicates that (c) mitochondria may have been free-living cells (endosymbiotic theory).
Eukaryotic cell is the advanced type of cell with well-defined nucleus. The cell contains several cell organelles like mitochondria, lysosomes, chloroplast, and many other for its survival. The ribosome type present in the eukaryotic cell is the 80S type.
Mitochondria is the double membranous cell organelle of the eukaryotic cells that has its own DNA molecule. The inner membrane of the mitochondria is folded into several finger-like projections called cristae. The process of cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondrial membrane.
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Flow
Explain why countercurrent flow met the goals and why parallel flow did not meet the goals
Gizmos
In a fluid or a flowing body when fluid is interexchange or crossover of some fluids with each other is called countercurrent flow.
What is countercurrent flow?Countercurrent meets the goals because there is a concentration gradient difference between the fluids. When the fluid flows in the same direction then it is called parallel flow.
Parallel flow did not meet the goals because they flow in the same direction but due to opposite directions of flow in countercurrent flow, it meets the goal.
Therefore, in countercurrent flow, liquid flows opposite, and in parallel flow in the same direction.
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What is the advantage of using a pressure relief valve to protect a receiver instead of a fusible plugA. The pressure relief valve resets itselfB. Pressure relief valve can also be used to check the receiver pressure
Even if the suction pressure is lower, it will prevent the evaporator pressure from falling below its setpoint. What are the benefits of protecting a receiver with a pressure relief valve as opposed to a fusible plug The pressure release valve self-resets.
Maintaining hydraulic and pneumatic systems below the preset pressure requires the use of pressure relief valves. Depending on how they are installed, they can:
whenever it crosses a certain threshold, lower the downstream pressure to a constant level.
upstream or downstream of the valve, keep consistent pressures.
To protect downstream equipment, reduce the peaks or pressure pulses. In-depth information about pressure relief valves is provided in this article, including an explanation of their design, workings, applications, and how to instal them in a system.
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Select all the correct answers. Biologists studying wildlife in the state parks want to estimate the average weight of chipmunks. They measured the weights of 5 chipmunks from each of 10 parks. The mean of the data was 91 grams, and the median was 87 grams. Which predictions match the data
The average weight of the chipmunks is 91 grams is the matching data from the prediction .
In general, Data Analysis's known as the process of methodically practicing statistical or logical techniques that helps to demonstrate and illustrate and evaluation of data. Data analysis is also considered as of working with data to obtain or derive any meaningful information, that helps to make informed decisions.
In Data analysis many tools can be used or specific software programs that collect and analyze data based on the studies . In many cases they can also be analyzed manually using just calculation and observation .
The above question is incomplete
Biologists studying wildlife in the state parks want to estimate the average weight of chipmunks. They measured the weights of 5 chipmunks from each of 10 parks. The mean of the data was 91 grams, and the median was 87 grams. Which predictions match the data
About one-half of the chipmunks weigh more than 87 grams.The average weight of the chipmunks is 91 grams, .About one-half of the chipmunks weigh more than87 grams. .The average weight of the chipmunks is 91 grams,.To learn more about Data Analysis's , here
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What is chimeric antigen receptor macrophages used for?
It seems promising to use macrophages that have chimeric antigen receptors (CAR) to target solid tumors.
Credit: Science Photo Library and Alamy Stock Photos Despite being successful in treating a number of blood cancers, CAR T cells have had less success in treating solid tumors. CAR T-cell therapy to selectively target solid tumors. In CAR T-cell therapy, doctors give instructions to a patient's immune system to recognize specific proteins on the surface of cancer cells in order to improve the immune system's ability to target and treat the illness. CAR T cells, which may remain in the body for months after the injection, may kill all cancer cells. Long-lasting remissions from various cancer types have been achieved by therapy.
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[Anatomy of eye] We are born with the _____ humor, it is a jelly- like structure that helps keep retina in place.
Answer:
vitreous humor
Explanation:
the vitreous is a colorless, transparent, gel-like substance.
Write an essay about one
biome and describe at least
two of the biogeochemical
cycles that occur in the
biome.
Biome is any particular area classified according to the species, that lived in that location, examples are marine biome and terrestrial biome.
What is a biome?The marine biome is the ecosystem that is near or inside the ocean and the terrestrial biome, is an ecosystem that leaves on the land.
The carbon cycle is the main biogeochemical cycle that occurs in the marine biome. which brings atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) into the ocean interior and circulates it through the oceans. Cycling of minerals occurred in the terrestrial biome.
Therefore, examples are the marine biome and terrestrial biome, and the carbon cycle and cycling of minerals are two biogeochemical cycles.
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which hypothesis did warren and marshall test related to helicobacter pylori bacteria and stomach ulcers?
Warren and Marshall tested the hypothesis that the bacterium Helicobacter pylori are the cause of stomach ulcers.
In the 1980s, Drs. Barry Marshall and Robin Warren proposed the hypothesis that the bacterium Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) are the cause of stomach ulcers. At the time, it was widely believed that stress and diet were the main causes of stomach ulcers. However, Marshall and Warren had observed that many ulcer patients had H. pylori in their stomachs and that the bacterium seemed to be associated with the development of ulcers.
To test their hypothesis, Marshall and Warren performed a series of experiments. They cultured H. pylori from the stomachs of ulcer patients and then treated the patients' ulcers with antibiotics that targeted the bacterium. They found that the antibiotics were effective in eliminating H. pylori and healing ulcers. They also showed that H. pylori infection could be transmitted from person to person.
Their research was groundbreaking, providing strong evidence that H. pylori were a major cause of stomach ulcers. Their findings led to a change in the way stomach ulcers were treated and also helped to reduce the stigma associated with ulcers as being caused by lifestyle factors such as stress and diet.
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during routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. what is the likely cause for this observation?
A unit of expired blood was discovered to be black in colour with several tiny clots during normal inspection. This observation is most likely the result of bacterial contamination.
Transplant of ABO compatible blood, such as group A, B, and AB red cells to the a patient who is in the group O blood type, is the primary cause of hemolytic responses. Last but not least, poorly dilute red cell suspensions, deteriorated reagents, disregard for manufacturer's instructions, or improper procedures can all lead to false-negative findings with Rh typing. A unit of expired blood was discovered to be black in colour with several tiny clots during normal inspection. This observation is most likely the result of bacterial contamination. If there are too many RBC antigens, weak antibodies may not be detected because there may not be enough of them to attach to red cell proteins. The development of a passive acquired anti-D is the most likely reason for the positive antibodies screening test result. Anti-D from the antenatal Rh immunological globulin (RhIG) injections may still be detectable during labour so because mother received it. When antibodies have not been produced, delayed haemolytic transfusion responses can happen.
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why is a percentage scale used for the x-axis rather than actual ages?
On the same graph, using this scale, you can compare species with greatly different life spans.
In scientific terms, what does x-axis mean?An x-axis in a Cartesian coordinate system refers to the horizontal plane. By making perpendicular projections from the x-axis and y-axis, a position on a two-dimensional graph can be determined. The abscissa and ordinate of P are the names given to the first and second coordinates in a two-dimensional system, respectively.
In biology, what does the term "y-axis" mean?Furthermore known as the ordinates axis. The usually vertical axis that is used to measure both the ordinate and the abscissa in a plane Cartesian coordinate system.
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In which area of the digestive system does most of the absorption of soluble food occur?
The small intestine is where the majority of nutritional molecules are absorbed. The second section of the small intestine, known as the jejunum, is where the majority of these molecules are absorbed. 4 Enzymes in digestive fluids convert food into various nutrients.
4 The majority of food molecules that have been digested, together with water and minerals, are absorbed in the small intestine and then sent to other bodily areas for storage or additional chemical alterations. The mouth, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine are only a few of the areas of the alimentary canal where chemicals are absorbed. The small intestine is where absorption is at its highest, though.
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if a blood exposure occurs while providing a consumer service, the practitioner must disinfect all equipment, instruments, and surfaces with: (a) an epa-registered disinfecting solution that is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal, or bleach solution. (b) styptic. (c) antiseptic. (d) hot, soapy water.
if a blood exposure occurs while providing a consumer service, the practitioner must disinfect all equipment, instruments, and surfaces with an epa-registered disinfecting solution that is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal, or bleach solution.
In the medical field, "alcohol" refers to two water-soluble chemical compounds—ethyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol—that have generally underappreciated germicidal properties 482. The FDA has not approved any liquid chemical sterilant or high-level disinfectant containing alcohol as the primary active ingredient. These alcohols are bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic against vegetative forms of bacteria; they are also tuberculocidal, fungicidal, and virucidal but do not destroy bacterial spores. Their cidal activity decreases sharply when diluted below 50% concentration, and the optimum bactericidal concentration is 60%-90% solutions in water.
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a gram stain of a tissue sample from a patient shows gram-negative spheres that can barely be resolved on the best light microscope. a transmission electron micrograph reveals the spheres have a double membrane but no cell wall. the intracellular parasites are likely to be a
Gram staining of patient tissue samples reveals Gram-negative globules that are difficult to resolve with best light microscopy. Transmission electron micrographs show that the spheres have double membranes but no cell walls. Intracellular parasite probably chlamydia
What is Chlamydia?Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted disease that can infect both men and women. May permanently damage the female reproductive system. This can make later pregnancies difficult or impossible. Chlamydia can also cause ectopic pregnancies (pregnancies that occur outside the uterus), which can be fatal.
What are the symptoms of chlamydia?Pain when urinating. Abnormal vaginal discharge. Abdominal or pelvic pain. Pain during sex. Bleeding after sex. Bleeding between periods.
Is chlamydia serious?Chlamydia usually causes no symptoms and can usually be treated with a short course of antibiotics, but can become serious if not treated early. If left untreated, the infection can spread to other parts of the body and lead to long-term health problems, especially in women.
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you palpitate around the neck region and find some small masses of tissues that seemed to be inflamed. you have strep throat, and this is a common response of this type of infection where lymph nodes become enlarged. what is it called?
The common response of this type of infection where lymph nodes become enlarged Lymphadenopathy.
Which conditions get confused for Lyme disease?Multiple sclerosis (MS), fibromyalgia, chronic fatigue syndrome, autoimmune diseases like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis, polymyalgia rheumatica, thyroid disease, and psychiatric disorders are only a few of the misdiagnoses made in patients with Lyme disease.
What signs and symptoms point to Lyme disease?The flu-like Lyme disease symptoms typically appear days or weeks after the bite. Your entire body may be itching, and you may also experience chills, a fever, and lightheadedness. You may also get headaches, muscle discomfort, and stiff neck. Most likely, you'll get a bull's-eye rash on your body.
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