what is the adaptive value of dark skin tones in equatorial regions such as africa? what hypotheses might explain why skin tones lightened as humans came to occupy more northern latitudes? g

Answers

Answer 1

Skin tone has lightened as people have moved to more northern latitudes, resulting in overexposure to UV rays, which can deplete folate levels.

Populations closer to the equator tend to have dark skin to protect against UV rays, as overexposure to UV rays can reduce folate levels [ 8 , 9 ] and cause skin cancer [ 10 – 13 ]. A high UV environment exerts a strong selective pressure on the skin. and the human body which results in the evolution of permanent dark conformational pigmentation and can increase eumelanin production in response to seasonal increases in UVB. Natural selection favors dark skin near the equator because dark skin is a natural sunscreen that protects against UV radiation and protects the B vitamin folate.

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Related Questions

An organism that is eukaryotic, multicellular, and lacks a cell wall would be classified in which kingdom : (Choose all the apply)

A- Protista

B- Fungi

C- Animalia

D- Archaebacteria

E- Eubacteria

Answers

The correct answer to the given question of organism and it's kingdom is option C. Animalia.

Kingdom Animalia is characterized by heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms that are multicellular and whose cells lack cell walls.

Kingdom citizens Despite the fact that they are unable to produce their own sustenance, which is one of the most distinctive characteristics of plants, Animalia lack a cell wall, which is present in plant cells. With the exception of a few, the majority of animals are mobile, which helps them, among other things, to successfully respond to stimuli and seek food. Additionally, one can go deeper into the structure, sexuality, and growth traits of animals.

The classification diagram for the animal kingdom makes it easier to understand the various groups that animals fall under. The group's knowledge of many animal kingdom facts is also aided by the kingdom chart.

Animals are typically divided into two categories:

Vertebrates (animals having a backbone)

Animals that are invertebrate(animal without backbone).

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A roasted chicken multigrain sandwich contains 42g protein, 7g fat, and 34g carbohydrates. How much energy does this sandwich provide?

Answers

Answer:

367 Calories of energy

Explanation:

which white blood cell differentiates into macrophages in the tissue?

Answers

For one to three days, monocytes circulate in the blood before migrating into bodily tissues, where they develop into macrophages.

Which kind of white blood cell may develop into a macrophage?

One of the main subgroups of immune system's white blood cells, monocytes, differentiate into macrophages.

What white blood cell can develop into the a macrophage on tissues?

a specific kind of immune cell that is produced in the bone marrow and circulates through the blood to bodily tissues where it develops into a macrophage or a dendritic cell.Macrophages encircle and kill bacteria, consume foreign substances, eliminate dead cells, and enhance immune responses.

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6 of Part A Which of the following statements about ddNTPs is true? Vlew Available Hint(s) They have an oxygen at the 2' carbon of the sugar. They have a free 3'-hydroxyl group on the sugar. DNA polymerase can add a new DNTP to a 3' ddNTP They have a hydrogen at the 3' carbon of the sugar Submit Part B DNA fragments that are 600 bp long will migrate more quickly through a sequencir gel than fragments that are 150 bp long. Book Pro 6 of 9 Part B DNA fragments that are 600 bp long will migrate more quickly through a sequencing gel than fragments that are 150 bp long. Vlew Available Hint(s) Te False Submit Part C Which of the following statements about manual Sanger sequencing is true? View Available Hint(s) The DNA sequence is read from the top of the gel to the bottom. Each of the four terminating ddNTPs is labeled with a different Book Pro 6 of 9 Part C Which of the following statements about ma Sanger sequencing is true? Vlew Availlable Hint(s) The DNA sequence is read from the top of the gel to the bottom. Each of the four terminating ddNTPs is labeled with a different fluorescent dye. The DNA sequence obtained is complementary to the template strand. One sequencing reaction is performed. Submit Provide Feedback Next > k Pro

Answers

1.DdNTPs have a hydrogen at the 3' carbon of the sugar final choice, which is an accurate statement about them.

2. False. Compared to 150 bp-long DNA fragments, 600 bp-long DNA fragments move through a sequencing gel more quickly.

3. The acquired DNA sequence is complementary to the template strand, which is a true statement about manual Sanger sequencing.

4. The acquired DNA sequence is complementary to the template strand, which is a true statement concerning manual Sanger sequencing.

DNA sequencing is the process of determining the nucleic acid sequence, or the arrangement of nucleotides in DNA. Any method or technology can be used to arrange the four bases in this way: adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.Sequencing DNA is the process of determining the locations of the four chemical "bases," or molecular building blocks, that make up the DNA molecule. Researchers can determine what kind of genetic information is stored in a certain DNA segment thanks to the sequence.

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Anatomy and embryology summary

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Anatomy is the study of the structure and organization of the body and its parts, while embryology is the study of the development of an embryo from conception until birth.

Anatomy is the study of the structure and organization of the body and its parts. It is closely related to physiology, which is the study of how the body and its parts function. Anatomy can be divided into two main branches: gross anatomy, which is the study of larger body structures, and microscopic anatomy, which is the study of smaller structures and cells. Gross anatomy includes the study of bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments, organs, and other body systems. Microscopic anatomy includes the study of cells, tissues, and organelles, as well as biochemical processes. Anatomy is a fundamental pillar of medical science and is essential for diagnosing, treating, and understanding diseases.

Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the earliest stages of its formation to adulthood. It is a field of biology that examines the process of development in animals and humans, from fertilization through to birth and beyond. It looks at the changes in shape, size, and structure of an organism as it grows, as well as the underlying mechanisms that cause these changes. Embryology also looks at the biological processes that occur during gestation, including the development of organs and tissues. This includes the formation of organs and tissues, the development of the nervous system, and the formation of the cardiovascular system. Additionally, it looks at the development of the various senses, including sight, hearing, smell, and taste. Finally, embryology also looks at the growth and development of the fetus, as well as the formation of the placenta and umbilical cord.

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a term synonymous with antibody is

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A big, Y-shaped protein called an antibody (Ab), also called a immunoglobulin (Ig), is utilized by immune system to recognize and kill foreign substances including harmful bacteria and viruses.

What else do you call an antibody?

Antibodies, which are made by your immune response, bind to these foreign chemicals and drive them out of your body.Immunoglobulin is another name for an antibody.

What other word would you use to describe antibodies?

Immune system uses antibodies, often referred to as immunoglobulins (Ig), which are big Y-shaped proteins made by plasma cells, to recognize and destroy foreign substances including bacteria and viruses.

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Which of the following techniques was most helpful to Watson and Crick in developing their model for the structure of DNA?
A Radioactive labeling
B Electrophoresis
C Cloned DNA
D Transgenic animals
E X-ray crystallography

Answers

Answer:

E. X-ray crystallography was most helpful to Watson and Crick in developing their model for the structure of DNA.

Explanation:

X-ray crystallography was most helpful to Watson and Crick in developing their model for the structure of DNA. X-ray crystallography is a technique that involves using X-ray diffraction patterns to determine the atomic and molecular structure of a crystal. Watson and Crick used X-ray crystallography data from Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins to develop their model for the structure of DNA. They used this data to create a model that showed the structure of DNA as a double helix, which is now known to be the correct structure of DNA.

Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells true or false

Answers

This statement is true.

The domain of single-celled organisms is called Archaea. These microbes are prokaryotes because they lack cell nuclei. The term "archaebacteria," which was used to describe archaea when they were first categorised as bacteria, is no longer in common usage.

Archaebacteria, eubacteria, and eukaryotes all descended from present-day cells, which themselves descended from a common prokaryotic ancestor along three lines of derivation.

The archaebacteria and the eubacteria, two groupings that separated early in evolution, make up modern prokaryotes, which contain all the many varieties of bacteria.

Extreme settings, which are uncommon today but may have been common on early Earth, are where some archaebacteria can be found. For instance, thermoacidophiles inhabit hot sulphur springs with pH levels as low as 2, 80°C temperatures.

The eubacteria are a vast class of organisms that exist in a variety of habitats, such as soil, water, and other species. They contain the prevalent types of modern bacteria.

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During inspiration, air moves into the lungs because __________.
A
abdominal muscles contract
B
contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity
C
contraction of the internal intercostal muscles decreases the thoracic cavity volume
D
the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration
E
the gas pressure in the lungs becomes lower than the outside pressure as the diaphragm contracts

Answers

The thoracic cavity and lung volume increase during inspiration as a result of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contracting, which also causes the rib cage to expand and shift outward.

During inspiration, what causes air to enter the lungs?

The diaphragm tightens and pulls down when the lungs inhale. In tandem, the muscles in the space between the ribs tighten and pull upward. By doing so, the thoracic cavity's size and pressure are increased. As a result, the lungs are filled with air.

What occurs to the airflow during inspiration?

The thoracic cavity expands during inspiration as the diaphragm contracts. This lowers the intraalveolar pressure, allowing air to enter the lungs. The lungs fill with air when inspired.

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is the capsule of streptococcus pneumoniae an example of a t-dependent antigen.

Answers

Streptococcus pneumoniae's polysaccharide capsule is the organism's primary surface structure and is essential to pathogenicity.

Is there a capsule in Streptococcus?

The pneumococcus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, is a significant human pathogen.The polysaccharide capsule, which protects it from the human immune system and is a major contributor to its pathogenicity, has been substantial research.

Group A Streptococcus is it enclosed?

On blood agar, Group A Strep (GAS) colonies were developed over night.A,colonies of GAS that are heavily encapsulated (mucoid) developing on blood agar.Some are developing flattened, matte surfaces as they dry.

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BioFlix Activity: Protein Synthesis RNA Processing Draq the correct labels under the diagrams to identify the events of RMA processing_ View Available Hint(s) Reset Heln The cmpleted messenge RNA (mRNA} leaves the nucleus modified Juanine nucleotide added t0 the beginning of the Stano Exta adenine Segments of the RNA strand thatdo not acually cde for the crctein removej Segments of the RNA thatdo code for the Grotein ar2 nucleotides are added the end cf the RNA Stano forming recnneced

Answers

In eukaryotes, the nucleus, where sections of DNA (genes) are translated to create messenger RNAs, gives instructions to ribosomes for protein synthesis (mRNAs).

The ribosome receives an mRNA and uses the information it contains to create a protein with a particular amino acid sequence.

Cells utilise the genetic information contained in DNA as a living library of instructions to carry out life's essential tasks. In each cell, catalysts look for the relevant information in this library and use it to create new proteins that make up the cell's structures, drive its biochemical processes, and are occasionally produced for export.

Although the genetic code in every cell of a multicellular creature is the same, functionally distinct cells within the organism use diverse sets of catalysts to express only particular parts of these instructions in order to carry out the duties of life.

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according to the equilibrium hypothesis, in an established ecosystem, if a new species flourishes:

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The equilibrium hypothesis states that introducing a new species to an ecosystem isolated habitat will result in the extinction of an existing species.

Animals are the amazing engineers of nature, creating some of the most magnificent constructions we have ever seen. Some of these species demonstrate their strength by building enormous termite mounds, intricate anthills, and sturdy dams.There are numerous well-known examples of ecosystem engineers, such as beavers, woodpeckers or other cavity-nesting birds, and burrowing creatures that make tunnels that are useful to a variety of species.They create nutrients for other animals, as well as nutrients fortifying the soil via their faeces, which in turn gives nutrients for plants (which, yes, means that plants are also consumers). Many animals, like horses, cattle, and deer, only eat plants; we'll refer to these animals as grazers.Animals aid in plant reproduction by dispersing seeds and transporting pollen from one plant to another. Small mammals and insects assist lessen damage caused by caterpillars, rabbits, and other plant-eating animals.

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place the following steps of nucleotide excision repair in order. not all the choices will be used.

Answers

The steps in order are:

1) recognize damaged site

2) separate strands using helicase

3) hydrolyze incorrect nucleotide using endonuclease

4) fill in gap with DNA polymerase

5) close DNA ends with DNA ligase

What is nucleotide excision repair?

A significant DNA repair system known as nucleotide excision repair (NER) may remove a variety of helix-distorting DNA lesions that are mostly caused by environmental mutagens like ultraviolet light (UV) irradiation and large chemical compounds.

A method of repairing DNA is called nucleotide excision repair. Chemicals (e.g., intercalating agents), radiation, and other mutagens continually induce DNA damage.

The steps in order are:

1) recognize damaged site

2) separate strands using helicase

3) hydrolyze incorrect nucleotide using endonuclease

4) fill in gap with DNA polymerase

5) close DNA ends with DNA ligase

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The complete question is as follows:

Which among the following statements best describes DNA replication?A. DNA replication is not valuable to human being.B. DNA replication creates a "Y" shape called replication fork.C. DNA replication set as a template for making the new strand of DNA.D. DNA replication is the process by which DNA makes a copy of itself

Answers

B. DNA replication creates a "Y" shape called replication fork best describes DNA replication

How exactly does DNA replicate?

When a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied, it creates two identical DNA molecules. This process is known as DNA replication. Replication is a crucial process because anytime a cell splits, the two daughter cells must have the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell.

Before they can divide, cells must duplicate their DNA. Due to effective inheritance of genetic characteristics, this guarantees that each daughter cell receives a copy of the genome. All species have the same fundamental mechanism for DNA replication, which is a crucial activity.

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the blood supply returns from the legs through the

Answers

The Internal ceratoid artery is used to return blood from the legs.

Low blood pressure causes the blood in the lower limbs' veins to have to struggle against gravity in order to return to the heart. Numerous one-way valves are found in veins to help with this blood flow issue by allowing blood to only travel in one direction—toward the heart. In order to force blood past the valves and toward the heart, the muscles in the feet and legs tighten, putting pressure on the veins. The valves stop the blood from leaving the heart when the muscles relax. Sometimes the valves in the legs wear down, enabling blood to build up and inflating the vein walls. The term "varicose vein" refers to this condition.

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Please match the words with the correct sentence please.

1. : articulates with the distal ends of the tibia and fibula

2. : tendon of the calf muscle attaches to the posterior surface of this bone

3. : articulates directly anterior to the talus

4. : tibia articulates with the talus here

5. : lateral tarsal; articulates with metatarsals 4 and 5

6. : one of the anterior tarsals; articulates with metatarsals 2, 3, and 4

Choices:

calcaneus

trochlea of talus

lateral cuneiform

talus

navicular

cuboid

Answers

Statement 1 matches with the talus, statement 2 with the calcaneus, statement 3 with the navicular,  statement 4 with the trochlea of the talus, statement 5 with the cuboid bone, and statement 6 with lateral cuneiform.

The talus is the bone at the top of the foot that supports the weight of the entire body and acts as a platform for the tibia. The distal extremities of the tibia and fibula articulate with this bone.

The largest tarsal bone in the foot is the calcaneus, sometimes known as the heel bone. It is situated beneath the three bones that make up the ankle joint at the back of the foot (hind foot). The posterior surface of this calcaneus is where the calf muscle-tendon connects.

A little bone with a C-shaped shape on the inside of the midfoot is called the navicular bone. It serves as a structural connection between the midfoot and the forefoot and is situated between the talus and the three cuneiform bones. This articulates anteriorly to the talus.

The smooth talus trochlea, the trochlea of the talus articulates with the tibia behind the superior surface of the talus body.

The cuboid bone is one of seven small tarsal bones that lies on the lateral side of the foot. This articulates with metatarsals 4 and 5.

The lateral cuneiform is wedge-shaped that falls between those of the medial and intermediate cuneiforms. It lies between the intermediate cuboid and cuneiform. This articulates with metatarsals 2, 3, and 4.

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find the mass of a 50ml quantity of water if the density of the water is 100g/ml.

Answers

Answer: 5000 g

Explanation: As the equation for density is D = M/V we can plug in our available units:

Density (D) = 100

Volume (V) = 50

ml is milliliters which means that that is our volume.

If you plug in these numbers you are left with the equation:

100= M/50

Solving this for M:

x50        100 = M/50   x50

5000 = m

This leads us to 5000 grams (from our density amount which is g/ml).

the region between which two points corresponds to the entire a (dark) band?

Answers

(B). 2 and 6, The A band, also known as the dark band, is occupied by the entire length of thick myofilaments.

Myofibrils, a unique part of the muscle cell or muscle fiber, contain myofilaments. They contain proteins. They are also known as microfilaments because of their hair-like texture. There are two varieties of myofilaments:

A) Thick filament: Myosin, a protein, makes up this filament. Muscles are elastic and contractible thanks to myosin.

B) Thin filament: This filament's protein constituent, "Actin," aids in the mechanism of contraction.

The complete question is:

The region between which two points correspond to the entire A (dark) band?

(A). 1 and 2

(B). 2 and 6

(C). 2 and 3

(D). 3 and 5

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In which of the following scenarios is HDN likely to develop without medical treatment?

Choose all correct answers.

An Rh– mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh–, and then becomes pregnant with her second child, who is Rh+.
An Rh+ mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh+, and then becomes pregnant with her second child, who is Rh–.
An Rh– mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh–, and then becomes pregnant with her second child, who is Rh–.
An Rh– mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh–, and to her second child, who is Rh+, and then becomes pregnant with her third child, who is Rh+.
An Rh– mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh+, and then becomes pregnant with her second child, who is Rh+.
An Rh– mother gives birth to her first child, who is Rh–, and to her second child, who is Rh+, and then becomes pregnant with her third child, who is Rh–.

Answers

Incompatible blood types between a woman and her unborn child can result in HDN. The immune system recognises the baby's incompatible red blood cells as foreign and responds by producing proteins called antibodies to target and destroy them if they contact the mother during pregnancy, through the placenta, or at delivery.

First-time pregnancies and HDN are both possible?

Fetal anaemia in a first pregnancy is uncommon due to HDN, which typically develops during pregnancy and less frequently through a blood transfusion. With each succeeding impacted pregnancy, it does, however, have a tendency to worsen once it manifests.

What contributes to HDN the most frequently?

The most typical instance of HDN is when a Rh negative mother gives birth to a child with a Rh positive father.

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select the statement that best describes apoptosis.

Answers

Apoptosis is a highly selective process that eliminates injured and aged cells in a manner that maintains the integrity of the plasma membrane and does not initiate inflammation.

Which term describes how cells can adapt to changes in threats to survival?

Cellular adaptation these changes usually make it easier for cells to tolerate adverse environments. Persistent stress can lead to cell injury (e.g., critical hypertrophy of the left ventricle → myofibril damage → heart failure).

What situation causes atrophy?

Lack of physical activity due to an injury or illness, poor nutrition, genetics, and certain medical conditions can all contribute to muscle atrophy. Muscle atrophy can occur after long periods of inactivity. If a muscle does not get any use, the body will eventually break it down to conserve energy.

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red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. the gene is found on the x chromosome. can a man with normal color vision be a father of a daughter with red-green color-blindness?

Answers

Man can't have red-green color-blindness unless their is a mutation.

In general, A red/green color blind boy will not receive a color blind 'gene' from his father, even though if   father is color blind, this is  because father can only pass an X chromosome to his daughters. Males only gets 1 X chromosome, from mother. If that X chromosome has the gene for red-green color blindness , they more likely to have red-green color blindness.

Mutations in the OPN1LW, OPN1MW, and OPN1SW genes are responsible for of color vision deficiency . These proteins are generally produced from genes that play essential roles in color vision.

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why do you think an overwhelming amount of stress can lead to problems with the endocrine system, limbic system, and maintaing homeostasis? determine what part of the brain has been affected

Answers

The amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex are three regions of the brain that are connected to the stress response. The neurochemical systems involved in the stress response, such as cortisol and norepinephrine, are crucial. These parts of the brain are crucial to the stress response.

When under stress, the pituitary gland is signaled to generate a hormone, which in turn tells the adrenal glands, which are found above the kidneys, to produce more cortisol. The hypothalamus, a cluster of nuclei that connects the brain and the endocrine system, is responsible for this process.

Emotional Reactions to Limbic System Injury

The Endocrine Society, for instance, claims that depression and weariness may result from excessive levels of the hormone thyrotropin-releasing. Aggression, anxiety, pleasure, and wrath are a few of the emotions that may be affected by damage to the limbic system's supporting components.

The pituitary gland, a group of nuclei that connects the brain and the endocrine system, receives signals from the hypothalamus during stressful times to generate a hormone, which in turn tells the adrenal glands, which are placed above the kidneys, to release a hormone.

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Please help 100 points

What is your timeline?

“How does the color of light affect plant growth?”

Answers

Past perfect
its white

The dorsal root ganglia consist mainly of __________.

Answers

Afferent nerve fibres, which carry impulses toward the cranial nerves , are found in the cell bodies of the dorsal root ganglia, and efferent neurons, which carry impulses away from the central nervous system, are found in the ventral root ganglia.

Although not all cranial nerves have them, cranial nerve ganglions resemble dorsal root ganglions except that they are connected to cranial nerves rather than spinal nerves (associated with the spinal cord). Cranial nerves' roots are found inside the skull, but ganglia are found outside. Eg, The superior and inferior sensory ganglia of the vagus nerve are both located outside the skull, while the trigeminal ganglion is located outside the temporal bone. Identical to the sensory neurons linked to the spinal cord, the sensory.

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Which of the following best describes the process in which a cell creates an mRNA from DNA inside the nucleus of the cell?answer choicesO TranscriptionO TranslationO MitosisO DNA Replication

Answers

Answer:

A. Transcription

Explanation:

❌B. is not the answer because:

Translation is the process where mRNA is converted to proteins inside the ribosome

C. is not the answer because:

Mitosis is the process where a body cell divides into 2 congruent cells for growth and repair

D. is not the answer because:

DNA Replication is the process of doubling the amount of DNA in the nucleus before mitosis or meiosis occurs

03.8 The antibiotic antimycin IV: Which of the following scenarios you explored in this tutorial is MOST to ever reach Complex SIMILAR to the effects of antimycin A? a)Lack of oxygen (electrons don't leave the ETC) b)Presence of DNP (protons leak through the membrane) c)Starvation (lack of glucose) d)Intense exercise (high ATR utilization)

Answers

MOST to ever reach Complex SIMILAR to the effects of antimycin A is: Lack of oxygen.

What is antibiotic antimycin?

Antimycin A, an antifungal antibiotic that specifically inhibits the metabolic reduction of cytochrome c, has been shown to be lethal against Bacillus megaterium. However, bactericidal effects correlated with the ability of antimycin to impair plasma membrane functions other than cytochrome-mediated respiration. Antimycin almost completely inhibited the concentration uptake of both α-aminoisobutyric acid and α-methyl glucoside and also caused cell death under conditions in which oxygen consumption was not significantly reduced. When present in amounts greater than those required to kill or inhibit Nutrilit uptake, antimycin also induces widespread loss of inorganic phosphate and other substances from whole cells, causing aerobic It inhibited respiration and acted as a lysing agent for isolated protoplasts.

Therefore, MOST to ever reach Complex SIMILAR to the effects of antimycin A is: Lack of oxygen.

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Approximately what portion of the human genome is composed of repetitive, noncoding sequences? 2% 1% 10% More than half 100%

Answers

The majority of the human genome more than 50% is made up of repetitive, non-coding sequences.

What is the genome of a human?

The total collection of DNA instructions present in a cell makes up the genome. The human genome is made up of 23 pairs of chromosomes that are found inside the cell's nucleus and one tiny chromosomal that is found in the mitochondria.

What are the 3 types of genomes?

As we discovered in the previous example, there are three genome types that exist since the mutation is A–G: AA, AG, and GG. The GG type of these three genome kinds has the most anti-alcohol activity, whereas the AA type has the least activity and can barely digest alcohol.

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dihybrid cross: black fur in mice (b) is dominant to brown fur (b). the short tail trait (t) is dominant to long tails (t). what proportion of the progeny of the cross bbtt x bbtt will have black fur and long tails?

Answers

Black fur and long tails will be present in half of the offspring of the bbtt x bbtt hybrid.

How many of the offspring of the BBtt X BBtt hybrid will have long, black tails?

50% of all creatures will have characteristic long tails and black fur. Explained: The given cross is a form of back cross in which a recessive parent and an organism from the f1 generation are combined. There will be 50% BbTt and 50% BBtt as a result.

What genotype do the mice have that have black fur?

The black mouse under investigation may have the BB or Bb genotype, according to Mendelian genetics. It would be cross-tested with a genotype bb (white fur phenotypic) in order to ascertain the genotype.

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which of the following would happen if a transposable element inserts itself between promoter and structural genes? a) structural gene will be transcribed and translated. b) structural gene will be transcribed but not translated. c) transposable element will be transcribed and not the structural gene d) both a and b are possible. e) both a and c are possible.

Answers

If a transposable element inserts itself between promoter and structural genes

a) structural gene will be transcribed and translated.

b) structural gene will be transcribed but not translated.

In general the Transposable elements (TE) normally contains the stop codons within them. If the TE contains the stop codon, the transposable element will be transcribed but not the structural gene. If the TE does not have the stop, then structural gene will be transcribed but not translated.

A transposable element is generally nucleic acid sequence in DNA these are able to change their position within a genome, responsible for creating or reversing mutations and by altering the cell's genetic identity and genome size.

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art A Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? a) any sagittal plane except in the midline b)two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves c) a transverse cut just above the knees c)any cul dividing' the body into anterior and posterior portions Submit Request Answer

Answers

Among the following (A) any sagittal plane except in the midline describes a parasagittal plane.

The body is divided into right and left portions by an anatomical plane called the sagittal plane, also referred to as the longitudinal plane. It runs in a direction that is perpendicular to both the transverse and the coronal planes. The axis may be located in the middle of the body, in which case it will split the body into two equal portions, or it may be located further from the midline, so in that case, it will divide the body into sections of different sizes. So option A is the right one.

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Division by zero is a ________ error that is caught when the program executes. A) compilerB) runtimeC) syntaxD) logical Assume good Z is produced in a competitive output market that is in long-run equilibrium. In the short run, the variable input is unskilled labor whose wage is determined in a competitive labor market. Suppose there is an increase in consumer demand for good Z. Which of the following explains the resulting change in the labor market for unskilled workers in the short run?The price of good Z increases and the labor demand curve shifts to the right along the existing labor supply curve, resulting in higher wages and employment of unskilled workers Calculate [OH -] given [H3O+] in each aqueous solution and classify the solution as acidic or basic a) [H3O+] = 1.3 x 10^-3 M b) [H3O+] = 9.1 x 10 ^-12 M c) [H3O+]= 5.2 x 10^-4 M d) [H3O]= 6.1 x 10 ^9 M when the fed buys bonds from the public, banks' reserves and the quantity of money in circulation . The _____provides an entrepreneur a way to assess a firm's ability to meet all its obligations (short and long-term). statutory laws multiple choice include regulations developed by the federal trade commission. grow out of court decisions. include regulations developed by the better business bureau. are based on legislation passed either by state legislatures or by congress. are established by local, state, and federal regulatory agencies. combining form referring to the eyelid which type of crystalline solid is characterized by high mobility of electrons throughout the solid? in the committee on shuttle criticality review and hazard analysis audit report what were the committee's assessment of nasa's use or lack of use of quantitative assessment methods. in the phase, managers examine a situation and then identify and define the problem or opportunity. If BCDE is congruent to OPQR, Then DE is congruent to what? A. QR B. PQ C. OP D. OR 3. Miguel (m-72) and Fernando (89 kg) board the bumper cars at the local carnival. Miguel is moving at a velocity of 4 m/s when herear-ends Fernando who is at rest in his path. Fernando and his 125-kg car lunge forward at 2 m/s. Determine the post-collisionvelocity of Miguel and his 125-kg car. An arithmetic sequence has first term 13 and common difference 6. Find the 25th termof the sequence. software piracy relates to transferring programs and information from hard disks to floppy disks. group of answer choices true false Hi!, may I ask how this is meant to be solved? Studying for finals! a chemical engineer must calculate the maximum safe operating temperature of a high-pressure gas reaction vessel. the vessel is a stainless-steel cylinder that measures Which of the pricing orientations discussed in the text does Planet Fitness most closely pursue?A. profit-oriented.B. customer-oriented.C. sales-oriented.D. premium-oriented.E. competitor-oriented. which of the following is the best descriptor of the socio-ecological approach? true or false: the result of telophase is two nuclei surrounded by unwound dna inside a centriole. how healthy are the employees at direct marketing industry? a random sample of 12 employees was taken, and the number of days each was absent for sickness was recorded (for a 1-year period). use these data to create a 95% confidence interval for the population mean days absent for sickness.