what is the probability of obtaining the given genotype in the offspring aabbccdd from the parents aabbccdd x aabbccdd (assume independent assortment of all gene pairs)?

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Answer 1

Assuming independent assortment for four monohybrid crosses resulting in heterozygous genotypes is 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/16. Hence, probability is >0.05 and so it is statistically possible some chances of other outcome .

In general, when four genes are not linked to each other, and they are located on site of four different chromosomes. An if any of the four genes  are linked, then the observed frequencies would be different from the expected frequencies.  So ,If we construct a Punnett square for a monohybrid cross, then  probability of the heterozygous outcome is 2:4 or 1/2 or 0.5.

We can also say thar if we have 4 alleles then there can be  1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 genotypes possible . Each parent will have four different combinations of alleles in the gametes.

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ergot is a fungus . a. found atop desert cactus plants b. in moldy rye grain c. attached to morning glory seeds d. related to penicillin

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In moldy wheat grains, ergot is usually found (option B)

The fungus Claviceps purpurea, which infects the growing grains of wheat and grasses, is the cause of the plant disease ergot. When ergot bodies instead of kernels emerge during kernel formation, ergot symptoms become visible.

The overwintering structures in the disease cycle are the ergot bodies, also known as sclerotia, which are made of a dense mass of fungal mycelium. The ergot bodies are composed of an inside that ranges in color from white to grey and an exterior that is hard and protective. They can be up to ten times larger than the seed they have replaced, are frequently elongated, and emerge from the glumes of developing heads. Ergot bodies may be up to two centimeters in some grains.

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The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter proximal element is that: a. Enhancers are transcription factors, promoter proximal elements are DNA sequences. b. Enhancers enhance transcription; promoter proximal-elements inhibit transcription c. Enhancers are part of the core promoter: promoter proximal elements are regulatory sequences distinct from the core promoter. d. Enhancers are at considerable distances from the core promoter; promoter proximal elements are close to the core promoter

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The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter proximal element is that: Enhancers are transcription factors, promoter proximal elements are DNA sequences.

What is transcription factors?

Proteins called transcription factors are involved in the process of turning DNA into RNA, or transcribed DNA. A large variety of proteins—aside from RNA polymerase—called transcription factors start and control how genes are transcribed.

Promoter proximal element :

Any regulatory region in eukaryotic DNA that is close to (within 200 base pairs) a promoter and binds a particular protein, influencing the transcription of the related protein coding gene is termed as Promoter proximal element. Many promoter-proximal elements regulate many genes.

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how would the properties of water change if the water molecule were linear rather than bent? why would it be less satisfactory as the basis for living cells?

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If the water molecule were linear rather than bent, it would not be able to form hydrogen bonds as easily, therefore making it less effective to participate in chemical reactions involving hydrogen bonding interactions.

If water were linear, it would not have a permanent dipole moment and would not be able to form hydrogen bonds as easily. This would make it less effective at dissolving polar substances and participating in chemical reactions involving hydrogen bonding. It would also be a poorer solvent for ionic compounds. These properties would make it less satisfactory as the basis for living cells because many biological molecules require a solvent that can effectively dissolve polar and ionic substances and participate in hydrogen bonding interactions.

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a . how does the process of mitosis faithfully parcel out exact copies of this heritable information in the production of genetically identical daughter cells?

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The process of mitosis faithfully parcel out exact copies of heritable information in the production of genetically identical daughter cells is the mitosis ensure the exact amount of genetic material, including parental chromosomes, is distributed to daughter cells during mitosis.

Mitosis, in which identical daughter cells are created, is thought to be the fundamental process of life. Meiosis, on the other hand, makes sure that all generations of offspring have the same quantity of genetic material. The process of mitosis is when a cell repeats its genetic makeup and cellular makeup. These cells then divide, giving rise to two daughters that are identical.

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in response to glucose in the stomach, mechanisms are stimulated resulting in release of insulin, which acts to increase glucose uptake and thus decrease blood glucose. this happens before blood glucose levels have increased. this response is best described as . in response to glucose in the stomach, mechanisms are stimulated resulting in release of insulin, which acts to increase glucose uptake and thus decrease blood glucose. this happens before blood glucose levels have increased. this response is best described as . homeostasis negative feedback control positive feedback control feedforward control

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Before blood glucose levels have increased, this response is best described as feedforward control.

A hormone called insulin is released when blood sugar levels rise?

A hormone known as insulin is released through endocrine cells within the pancreas when blood glucose levels increase. The purpose of insulin is to stabilize blood glucose levels.

What bodily function is active when insulin is released?

Secretion of Insulin Mechanisms

The "initial phase" of glucose-mediated insulin secretion is triggered by elevated glucose levels and involves the release of insulin via secretory granules in the beta cell. Glucokinase detects the introduction of glucose into the cell and phosphorylates it to glucose-6-phosphate (G6P), producing ATP. Insulin is released when glucose and other sugars that are digested by islets are consumed.

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Select the term that best fits the definition. is the process of cutting DNA into fragments and inserting the fragments with a desired gene into another organism of the same or different species. is DNA made by connecting fragments of DNA with desired traits from different DNA sources. is an organism that contains functional recombinant DNA.

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The term that best fits the definition : Genetic engineering, Recombinant DNA and transgenic organism.

What is genetic engineering?

Cutting DNA into pieces and putting the desired gene(s) into another organism of the same or different species is known as genetic engineering. By joining or recombining DNA fragments from several sources, recombinant DNA is created.

Recombinant DNA is a mixture of DNA from two or more different organisms. Segments of DNA from one organism are inserted into chromosomes of another host organism.

A transgenic organism is one that has undergone genetic modification using recombinant DNA technology, which either entails the fusion of DNA from various genomes or the introduction of foreign DNA into a genome.

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Where is epinephrine and norepinephrine released from?

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The inner, more often known as the adrenal medulla, portion of the adrenal glands is where norepinephrine is made. Additionally, epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, is produced in the adrenal medulla.

A hormone and a neurotransmitter, epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, has two functions. It is a hormone that is produced and released by your adrenal glands, which are hat-shaped glands that are located on top of each kidney.

It functions as a chemical messenger and central nervous system neurotransmitter to help send nerve signals from one nerve cell, muscle cell, or gland cell to another.

Norepinephrine, also known as noradrenaline, is a chemical that is mostly released from the terminals of sympathetic nerve fibres and works to speed up and intensify heartbeats as well as the force and rate at which skeletal muscles contract.

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when a drug binds to a receptor and has a response, how is the drug best described? competitive antagonist antagonist partial agonist agonist

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A medication or chemical drug that attaches to a receptor found inside or on the surface of a cell and has the same effect as the substance that typically does so. It described as competitive antagonist.

Antagonists stop the activation of receptors. There are various benefits to avoiding activation. If an antagonist prevents the effect of a drug that typically causes a decline in cellular function, the cellular function will increase.

An agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and causes a reaction that is comparable to that of the target chemical and receptor.

A substance that lessens an agonist's effects. both competitive and non-competitive, with the option for reversibility or irreversibility in each case. A competitive antagonist inhibits the effect of the agonist by binding to the same location as the agonist but not activating it.

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describe the purpose of the following types of cell division in an organism with a life cycle involving gametic meiosis

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Gametic meiosis is used to produce haploid gametes which are used in sexual reproduction to create offspring with genetic diversity.

What are the types of cell division in an organism?

The types of cell division in an organism are: mitosis, meiosis, cytokinesis, and endoreduplication.

1. Mitosis: Mitosis is the process of cell division that occurs in many organisms and is essential for the growth and development of cells. It is the process by which a single cell divides into two genetically identical cells. Mitosis is necessary for the growth and development of an organism, as it allows for the production of new cells that can then go on to form new organs and tissues. Mitosis is also important in the production of gametes during meiosis, as it is the first step in the process of sexual reproduction.

2. Meiosis: Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in organisms with a sexual life cycle, such as humans. It is the process by which a single cell divides into four genetically distinct cells. Meiosis is necessary for the production of gametes, which are required for sexual reproduction. During meiosis, the chromosomes in the parent cell are segregated into four daughter cells, which then go on to form the gametes. Meiosis is also important in maintaining genetic diversity, as the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis results in the creation of new combinations of alleles in the gametes.

3.Cytokinesis is a type of cell division that physically separates the daughter cells produced by mitosis and meiosis.

4.Endoreduplication is a process in which a cell replicates its genetic material without undergoing cell division.

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a(an) ________ begins as a one-cell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge.
o embryo
o placenta
o protean
o zygote

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The correct option is D; zygote , a(an) zygote begins as a one-cell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge.

A sperm and an egg combine to form a one-cell structure known as a zygote. At this moment, the baby's sex and genetic composition have been determined. The zygote splits and grows throughout the first week following conception, growing from a one-cell structure to two cells, then four cells, then eight cells, and so on.

zygote. the haploid gametes (sperm and egg), which unite to form the diploid fertilized egg, during fertilization. meiosis. the division of cells inside the reproductive organs of a sexually reproducing organism to create haploid gametes from diploid cells.

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pls help my hw is due in a few hrs ​

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The primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids are separated and move to opposite sides of the cell while in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes are separated and move to opposite sides of the cell.

What is the primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II ?The primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, whereas in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.During mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers, and they move to opposite poles of the cell. This results in two identical daughter cells, each with the same genetic information as the original parent cell.During meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. This results in four haploid daughter cells, each with half of the genetic information of the original parent cell. This process is known as reductional segregation, and it is important for sexual reproduction because it allows for genetic diversity in the offspring.In summary, the primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, whereas in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. This process of reductional segregation allows for genetic diversity in sexual reproduction.

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which part of the phospholipid is found inside the membrane away from water?

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The phosphate heads of phospholipids face the external watery side, while the fatty acid tails face within, away from water.

Phospholipids are lipids with phosphate groups and are a crucial part of cell membranes. The hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail make up phospholipids.

The phospholipid is simply a triglyceride in which a phosphate group of some kind has been added in place of a fatty acid. A phospholipid's long fatty acid chains are nonpolar and avoid water because they are insoluble in it.

The phosphate group is located in the "head" of the molecule, which is hydrophilic and will dissolve in water. Two hydrophobic fatty acids make comprise the molecule's "tail," which prevents it from dissolving in water.

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basal metabolic rate is the body's resting rate of: group of answer choices a) the settling point. b) insulin secretion. c) energy expenditure. d) homeostasis.

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The body's resting rate of energy expenditure is basal metabolic rate (option C)

The rate at which a person expends energy while at rest is known as basal metabolic rate (BMR), which eliminates the variable effect of physical activity. The BMR is responsible for about 60% of daily energy consumption. This means that it contains the energy required for heart function, proper body cellular equilibrium, brain and other neuron activity, and so forth. Your body burns calories at a basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is a measure of how well your body is able to sustain life.

Age, weight, height, gender, environmental temperature, dietary patterns, and exercise routines are some of the variables that affect the individual metabolism rate, or BMR.

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what mechanisms allow us to utilize the energy in the food we eat?

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The process through which food energy is transformed into energy that the body's cells can utilise is known as cellular respiration.

Through a sequence of chemical processes called cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to create ATP, which can then be used as energy for a variety of bodily functions. Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are the three primary phases of cellular respiration. The citric acid cycle happens in the mitochondrial matrix, oxidative phosphorylation takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane, and glycolysis happens in the cytoplasm. Glucose, ATP, and NAD+ are the initial reactants and ATP and water are the end products of cellular respiration. Phosphofructokinase-1, pyruvate dehydrogenase, and isocitrate dehydrogenase are the enzymes that control the rate of cellular respiration.

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the length of the biologic width of tissue covering a tooth is approximately: group of answer choices a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

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The correct option is b ; 2 mm ,Under local anesthesia, the biologic width can be determined by probing to the bone level (referred to as "sounding to bone") and subtracting the sulcus depth from the resulting value.

If this distance is smaller than 2 mm in one or more spots, a biologic width violation diagnosis can be validated.

The PDL's typical width ranges from 0.15 mm to 0.21 mm and may shrink with aging. 1,4 PDL widening is one of the most significant changes in the circumrenal structures and may be associated with a variety of disorders.

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An article in the local paper is discussing a new copper mine in new mexico. it states that all that is needed to identify a substance is the mass and volume of a sample. is this an accurate statement? why or why not?
a- yes, because mass and volume are unique properties of a substance.
b- yes, because mass and volume allows for finding density, which is a unique property of a substance.
c- no, because although mass is a unique property of a substance, volume is not.
d-no, because only density is a unique physical property of a substance and mass and volume are not enough to find it.

Answers

This is not an accurate statement because only density is a unique physical property of a substance and mass and volume are not enough to find it.

What is density?

The density of a material is its mass per unit volume. The most common sign for density is, however the Latin letter D can also be used. Density is defined mathematically as mass divided by volume. The density of a substance is the measure of how densely it is packed together. It is expressed as mass per unit volume. Symbol for density: D or Formula for Density: = m/V, where is the density, m is the object's mass, and V is the object's volume. The density of something describes how compact or dense it is. Let's say you have two boxes, one huge and one tiny. They both, however, weigh the same. That suggests the small box is denser than the large box.

Here,

This is not an accurate statement since density is a unique physical feature of a substance that cannot be found using mass or volume.

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what findings did watson and crick make from this image? shaped like a helix has a consistent diameter contains four nucleotides stores biological information includes 10 base pairs per repeat

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Watson and Crick discovered that DNA has a helical structure with a consistent diameter, and four nucleotides, stores biological information, and includes 10 base pairs per repeat.

The image you are referring to is likely a representation of the structure of DNA, which was discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953. From this image, Watson and Crick made several key findings:

The structure of DNA is shaped like a helix, meaning it is a spiral structure.The helix has a consistent diameter, meaning it is uniform in size throughout.The structure contains four nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA and are composed of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.DNA stores biological information in the sequence of these nucleotides.The helix structure includes 10 base pairs per repeat.

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describe what would occur in the cell if the activated kinase enzyme continued to be active for a long time

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As long as the protein kinases were active, the transcription factor would continue to transcribe the DNA strand.

Failure to activate tyrosine kinase would impede the phosphorylation of the tyrosine's substrate protein, which is essential for receptor activation. As a result, the specialized relay proteins found within the cell would be unable to recognize the receptor.

When MAP kinases are active, transcription factors in the cytoplasm or nucleus are phosphorylated and activated, resulting in the production of certain target genes and a biological response.

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when radiation safety principles are correctly applied during imaging procedures, the energy deposited in living tissue by the radiation can be limited. this results in: group of answer choices completely eliminating the possibility for reducing the potential for adverse effects no change in the possibility for reducing the potential for adverse effects increasing the potential for adverse effects reducing the potential for adverse effects

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when radiation safety principles are correctly applied during imaging procedures, the energy deposited in living tissue by the radiation can be limited. this results in: reducing the potential for adverse effects

Many medical imaging procedures involve the use of radiation. Medical imaging procedures deliver x-ray beams, a type of ionizing radiation, to a specific part of the body, creating a digital image or film that shows the structures inside that area, such as bones, tissues, and organs. These images can be used by healthcare providers for diagnostics, determining what is causing your health problem, and, in some cases, guiding treatment. A radiologist, a medical professional who is trained and certified to conduct radiation imaging studies, typically performs imaging procedures in radiology or imaging centers in hospitals or clinics. Medical radiation practices and equipment are governed.

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The pedigree of a family with a history of a particular genetic disease is shown. Squares represent males and circles represent females. Shaded symbols represent those who have the disease.If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease, which of the following would most likely be true of their children?answer choicesAll of the children would have the disease.None of the children would have the diseaseOnly the sons would have the diseaseAll of the sons would be carriers of the disease

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If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease then none of the children would have the disease.

When your genes are harmed by a mutation, you get a genetic condition. Carrying the mutation does not always imply that you will develop an illness. There are several sorts of illnesses, including single-gene, multifactorial, and chromosomal abnormalities. The majority of the DNA in our genes tells your body to produce proteins. These proteins initiate complicated cell connections that aid in your overall wellness.

Whenever a mutation arises, it changes the instructions for generating proteins in the genes. Proteins might be lacking. Or the ones you have don't work correctly. When you have a family history of the a genetic condition, you should explore genetic counselling to determine whether genetic testing is right for you. Typically, lab testing can reveal if you have the gene alterations that cause the illness. Carrying the mutation does not necessarily imply that you will develop it.

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if a plant cell is placed in a salt solution and the following observation is observed, what is the probable explanation of the net movement of molecules? (1 point)

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When a plant cell is placed in a salt solution, the salt will lose water and will shrivel up.

When a particular plant cell is placed in a salt solution, we will be able to observe that the water flows out from plant cells as a result of the process of exosmosis and this causes the shrinkage of cells which is known as  plasmolysis and these cells will now be called plasmolyzed cells.

During osmosis, the movement of the flow of water occurs from a region of highwater potential to low water potential. In this case, the water potential present inside the plant cell is more as compared to the water which is present outside in the salt solution.

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How does dry air affect transpiration rate (Increase, decrease, no change) and why?

Answers

Answer:

The effect of dry air is in Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration rate.

Explanation:

It is easier for water to evaporate into dryer air than into more saturated air. Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration rate. If there is no wind, the air around the leaf is still and transpiration raises the humidity around each leaf.

Answer:

Dry air can decrease the transpiration rate.

Explanation:

Dry air can cause the stomata to close in order to conserve water, which also reduces transpiration.

a renal corpuscle includes the multiple choice glomerulus and glomerular capsule. glomerulus and renal tubule. renal tubule and collecting tubule. glomerular capsule and renal tubule.

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A renal corpuscle includes the a. glomerulus and glomerular capsule.

The kidneys are a pair of bean-shaped organs in a purplish-red body and are located in the abdominal cavity. The kidneys function as a means of excretion of nitrogen-containing metabolic waste.

Renal corpuscle or renal corpuscle is a kidney structure consisting of glomerulus and glomerular capsule. The glomerular capsule has a double wall with the glomerulus in the capsule cavity. While the glomerulus is a string of blood capillaries whose walls are linked to the glomerular capsule so that substances dissolved in the blood also seep into the glomerular capsule. The glomerulus functions to absorb protein from the blood that travels through the kidney blood cells.

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the gene for melanin (skin pigment) is transcribed similarly in humans and apes. where does the transcription of the melanin gene take place? responses only in the nucleus only in the nucleus in the nucleus and the ribosome in the nucleus and the ribosome in the ribosome in the ribosome in the nucleus and the cytoplasm

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Transcription is typically carried out in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells/organisms.

Transcription is the process by which the genetic information contained by DNA is transcribed into another molecule, RNA.

Transcription occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells because the DNA is located there. The encoded message (RNA) is subsequently transported to the cytoplasm and translated into protein.

Transcription is the process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA. Messenger RNA is produced by segments of DNA that are translated into RNA molecules that could also encode proteins. Other DNA segments are copied into RNA molecules called noncoding RNA. mRNA accounts for only 1-3% of total RNA samples.

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Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have many differences, but they also share some common features. Which of the following may be found in either type of cell?
answer choices
Golgi bodies
ribosomes
mitochondria
nuclei

Answers

Answer: Ribosomes

Explanation: Ribosomes are found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells which help in the protein synthesis.
Golgi bodies and mitochondria are only found in eukaryotic cells.
Also, eukaryotic cells contain true nucleus whereas prokaryotic cells have nucleoid.

a technologist performing an antibody identification in the blood bank has recorded the following results found in the worksheet below. which antibody(ies) are most likely the cause of the agglutination reactions?

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IgG or IgM  antibodies are most likely the cause of the agglutination reactions.

In general, Agglutination  reaction occurs when an insoluble or particle antigen come in contact with an antibody. Thus , a  positive reaction occurs  and can be seen macroscopically in a short time. antigen-antibody complex may be seen with our eye if the complex size is large. Both IgG or IgM could be involved in the agglutination reaction.

Their  are two types of  agglutination active agglutination or the passive agglutination. In case of  active agglutination, the antigen occurs naturally on particle. on the other hand on passive agglutination, the antigen is bound to an inert particle to detect an antibody.

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Classify the statements as describing a gene, a chromosome, or a genome.Gene Chromosome Genome Each organism has one Determines a particular characteristic of an organism Describes the collection of all of the replicable genetic material of a cell or organism Codes for a specific Is the largest Is a linear or protein or RNA molecule in the cell circular molecule Encodes all the heritable Is a unit of DNA carrying genetic traits of an organism information encoded in genes Is a contiguous Functions to package, organize, Acts as the basic piece of DNA and regulate access to DNA unit of heredity May include plasmids

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Answer:

Gene – Codes for a specific protein or RNA molecule in the cell Chromosome – Is a linear or circular molecule, is a unit of DNA carrying genetic information encoded in genes, and acts as the basic unit of heredity Genome – Describes the collection of all of the replicable genetic material of a cell or organism, encodes all the heritable genetic traits of an organism, functions to package, organize, and regulate access to DNA, and may include plasmids.

although koch's postulates present a logical framework for establishing a particular microbe as the cause of a disease, they cannot always be applied today because blank . multiple choice question. it is unethical to use animals for medical testing virtually all pathogens have been identified some causative disease agents cannot be grown in pure culture molecular methods are much more reliable and rapid

Answers

Using molecular and genetic evidence, koch's postulates provide a justification for identifying a specific bacterium as the origin of an illness.

How well does genetic evidence lend credence to evolution?

The shared origin of life is reflected in DNA as well as the genetic code. DNA comparisons can reveal how closely related different species are. Biogeography. The diversity of life on Earth is reflected in both the dispersion of organisms as well as the distinctive characteristics of island species.

What three places can you find genetic data?

Mutation, recombination, and gene immigration are the three main causes of genetic variation.

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This protein on the vesicle binds calcium, and when activated, swings down to knock complexin out of the SNARE complex, allowing it to fully zip closed and release transmitter from the vesicle

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Synaptotagmin-1, a protein that recognises calcium ions at synapses, collaborates with the SNARE complex to promote vesicle fusion with the cell membrane.

What does snare protein stand for?NSF stands for N-ethylmaleimide sensitive factor, SNARE stands for soluble NSF attachment protein, and SNAP represents for SNARE receptor! Soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor-attachment protein receptors is a less descriptive but more straightforward use of the SNARE acronym recently employed [1, 4-5].A helical bundle made up of four SNARE motifs mediates the interaction of individual SNAREs to form a complex (Figure 1(a)). In the instance of the synaptic SNARE complex, syntaxin (t-/Q-SNARE) contributes one SNARE motif, SNAP-25 (t-/Q-SNARE) contributes two, and VAMP (v-/R-SNARE) contributes one.SNAREs are membrane- and surface-bound small proteins that are joined by a segment that spans the membrane or by lipid chains that are covalently adhered. The SNARE proteins produce a compact bundle of alpha helices when they interact, drawing the membranes together.

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layer of connective tissue that surrounds a skeletal muscle?

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Each muscle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the epimysium.

which is the outermost layer of connective tissue?

A layer or sheet of connective tissue is referred to as fascia. The body wall, blood arteries, nerves, and the epimysium are all enclosed or lined by the deep fascia, which also surrounds the epimysium.

What do the 3 connective tissue layers around muscle surround?

The layer of connective tissue known as the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers. The layer of connective tissue known as the perimysium surrounds the bundles of muscle fibers. The connective tissue layer that envelops a complete muscle is called the epimysium (multiple muscle fibre bundles).

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You are going to use an incline plane to lift a heavy object to the top of a shelving unit with a height of 5 ft. The base of the incline plane is 14 ftfrom the shelving unit. What is the length of the incline plane? An aerobatic airplane pilot experiencesweightlessness as she passes over the top ofa loop-the-loop maneuver.The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s^2.If her speed is 450 m/s at this time, find the radius of the loop.Answer in units of km. A flashing yellow light __________ A. Should be treated just like a stop sign. B. Is only encountered on a highway. C. Warns you of potential danger. the notion that a question is only worth pursuing if the answer to it would change our knowledge of the world is known as what? The quadratic regression equation y = 0.1x2 + 143.99x 13,242.84 models expected company profits in terms of the number of pairs of shoes sold.Based on the regression equation, approximately how much profit can the company expect if it sells 400 pairs of shoes?$28,400$41,600$44,300$60,400 Assume A varies directly as B^2. If B is multiplied by 3.55, how will it affect A. In other words: if we multiply B by 3.55, by how much would we have to multiply A, in order to preserve the same coefficient of proportion?Write your answer as a decimal rounded to two decimal places. A couple from out-of-town stopped Keenan on the street and asked him for directions. Which of the following reactions could indicate a feedback barrier?Multiple ChoiceThe couple asked additional questions about Keenans favorite local restaurants.The couple asked Keenan to speak into their translation app to understand his directions in their native language.The couple smiled and thanked Keenan, but did not repeat the directions back to him.The couple paraphrased the directions that Keenan had shared and then walked away. question 1 of 10 how did the development of universities in medieval europe strengthen the church and unify society? a. universities grew up around cathedrals, and courses of study helped educate clergy. b. universities started cathedrals, which were important centers of learning. c. students had to learn latin in local churches before they could study at the universities. d. different regions felt a strong attachment to their local university, which strengthened local pride and unity. a process with no beginning work in process, completed and transferred out 85100 units during a period and had 49600 units in the ending work in process inventory that were 20% complete. the equivalent units of production for the period were: Angle addition postulate What are the 7 rules of punctuation dialogue? The Princess Cocachin was a great friend of Marco Polo, and urged her father to allow him to go with the party.What is the BEST way to rewrite this sentence correctly?A)The Princess Cocachin was a great friend of Marco Polo urging her father to allow him to go with the party.B)The Princess Cocachin was a great friend of Marco Polo to urge her father to allow him to go with the party.C)The Princess Cocachin was a great friend of Marco Polo; and urged her father to allow him to go with the party.D)The Princess Cocachin was a great friend of Marco Polo, and she urged her father to allow him to go with the party. Which individual right is found in both the texas bill of rights and the united states bill of rights? what is the procedure for completing the square to find the center and radius of a circle? what should amelia use to make her older character have wrinkles without having to create every wrinkle individually why does screwtape suggest, "all the habits of the patient, both mental and bodily, are still in our favor"? Form a polynomial whose real zeros and degrees are givenZeros: -2, 0, 7Degree: 3Type a polynomial with integer coefficients and a leading coefficient of 1f(x)= ? NEED THIS ASAP ILL GIVE BRAINLYWhat is the value of z in this triangle?Enter your answer in the box. Is the Klingon language endangered? If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, during which meiotic division, and in which parent, could nondisjunction have occurredMeiosis I in the motherMeiosis II in the motherMeiosis I in the fatherMeiosis II in the father