what results from the added costs incurred as a result of exporting products from one country to another? group of answer choices price deflation penetration pricing price escalation price gouging predatory pricing

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Answer 1

Price escalation results from the added costs incurred as a result of exporting products from one country to another. Predatory pricing will not apply here.

When products are exported from one country to another, there are several added costs that may be incurred. These costs may include shipping costs, taxes, tariffs, and customs fees. As a result, the price of the product may increase, leading to price escalation. This means that the product may become more expensive in the importing country than it is in the exporting country. This can make it more difficult for the product to compete with locally-produced goods, and may lead to a decrease in sales.

To combat this, companies may choose to use penetration pricing, which involves setting a lower price for the product in the new market to gain market share. However, this strategy may lead to price gouging, where the price is raised once the company has established a dominant position in the market. Predatory pricing, where a company sets a very low price with the intention of driving competitors out of business, may also be a result of the added costs of exporting.

Overall, the added costs of exporting can have a significant impact on a company's pricing strategy and competitiveness in a new market. It is important for companies to carefully consider these costs and develop a pricing strategy that takes them into account.

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what does the characteristic line for a security show? multiple choice question. it shows the market's return in relation to the risk of an individual security. it shows the return on a security in relation to the risk of the security. it shows a security's return in relation to the market's return. it shows a security's variance of returns.

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The security market line (SML) shows that the relationship between a security's expected return and its beta is positive.

It is a graphical representation of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and is used to determine whether a security is underpriced or overpriced in the market. The characteristic line plots a security's expected return on the vertical axis and the systematic risk (beta) of the security on the horizontal axis.

The slope of the line represents the market risk premium, and each point on the line represents a different combination of risk and expected return. The characteristic line for a security shows the relationship between the expected return of a security and its systematic risk in relation to the market as a whole.

The security market line (SML), also referred to as the "characteristic line," is a representation of the CAPM where the y-axis of the chart represents predicted return, and the x-axis represents risk (measured in terms of beta). Where a security is plotted on the chart in relation to the security market line (SML) will determine the market risk premium of that asset.

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your firm purchases goods from its supplier on terms of 1/10, net 30. the effective annual cost to your firm if it chooses not to take advantage of the trade discount offered is closest to: 13.0% 16.8% 44.6% 20.1%

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The effective annual cost to the firm, if it chooses not to take advantage of the trade discount offered, is 20.1%.

Effective Annual Cost = [(1 + Discount % / (1 - Discount %)]^[365 / (Days of Credit - Discount Period)] - 1

Effective Annual Cost = [(1 + 0.1 / (1 - 0.1)][tex]^[365[/tex] / (30 - 10)] - 1

Effective Annual Cost = [(1.1 / 0.9)[tex]]^[365[/tex] / 20] - 1

Effective Annual Cost = (1.222222)[tex]^18.25[/tex] - 1

Effective Annual Cost = 0.20094 or 20.1%

Discount is a reduction in the price of a product or service that is offered to customers. It can be a percentage or a fixed amount that is subtracted from the original price. Discounts are a common marketing strategy used by businesses to attract customers and increase sales.

There are various types of discounts that businesses can offer, including seasonal discounts, promotional discounts, loyalty discounts, and volume discounts. Seasonal discounts are offered during specific times of the year, such as holidays or clearance sales. Promotional discounts are used to promote new products or to attract new customers. Loyalty discounts are offered to customers who have been with the business for a long time, while volume discounts are given to customers who purchase in large quantities.

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The price of a case of ball bearings is $80. Seeing that he can't make a profit, the company's chief executive officer (CEO) decides to shut down operations.
The firm's profit in this case is____

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An 80 dollar case of ball bearings costs. The chief executive officer (CEO) of the firm chooses to halt operations after realising he cannot turn a profit. Since the CEO has decided to halt operations and stop selling ball bearings, the profit in this case is zero dollars.

At break-even, there is no profit or operating income. o Total income and total costs are equal. o The sum of the contribution margin and fixed costs. A company would make the same amount of money if its resources were put to use in the next best option if economic profit was zero.

Businesses are motivated to quit the market if the economic profit is negative since it would be more advantageous to employ their resources elsewhere.

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jt engineering is currently considering three projects and is using the net present value (npv) method to determine the acceptability of each. jt uses a discount rate of 16% for project a, 12% for project b, and 14% for project c. which of the following assumptions can you make about the risk associated with these projects? select answer from the options below project a is the least risky, project c is moderately risky, and project b is the most risky. project c is the least risky, project a is moderately risky, and project b is the most risky. project b is the least risky, project c is moderately risky, and project a is the most risky. project c is the least risky, project b is moderately risky, and project a is the most risky.

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we can conclude that project B is the most risky because it has the highest-discount-rate of 12%.

Based on the given information, we can make the assumption that the risk associated with the projects is inversely proportional to the discount rate used for each project. The higher the discount rate used, the higher the perceived risk associated with the project.

The interest rate charged to commercial banks and other financial institutions for short-term loans they obtain from the Federal Reserve Bank is referred to as the "discount rate." The Fed's lending facility, known as the discount window, uses the discount rate.

The interest rate used in discounted-cash-flow analysis (DCF) to calculate the present value of future cash flows can also be referred to as a discount rate. In this situation, firms and investors can utilise the discount rate to plan potential-investments.

Project C has a lower discount rate of 14%, so it is moderately risky. Finally, project A has the lowest discount rate of 16%, so it is the least-risky among the three projects.

Therefore, the correct answer is: project B is the most risky, project C is moderately risky, and project A is the least risky.

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portfolio a is a well-diversified portfolio that is equally-weighted among 12,000 different and diverse stocks. portfolio a has an average amount of systematic risk, so it has exactly the same amount of systematic risk as the market portfolio. portfolio b consists of 2 stocks that operate in the active leisure industry: 3,687 shares of treetop entertainment stock, which has a price of $13.00 per share and a beta of 1.10; and 1,683 shares of garfield recreational stock, which has a price of $4.70 per share and a beta of 1.00. all stocks have some unsystematic risk and all stocks have the same level of unsystematic risk. which one of the following assertions is most likely to be true? portfolio a has more systematic risk than portfolio b, and portfolio a more unsystematic risk than portfolio b portfolio b has more systematic risk than portfolio a, and portfolio b has more unsystematic risk than portfolio a portfolio a has more systematic risk than portfolio b, and portfolio b has more unsystematic risk than portfolio a portfolio b has more systematic risk than portfolio a, and portfolio a has more unsystematic risk than portfolio b portfolio a either has the same amount of systematic risk as portfolio b or portfolio a has the same amount of unsystematic risk as portfolio b, or portfolio a has the same amount of systematic risk and unsystematic risk as portfolio b

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The assertion that is most likely to be true is portfolio b has more systematic risk than portfolio a, and portfolio a has more unsystematic risk than portfolio b, option D is correct.

Portfolio A is a well-diversified portfolio with 12,000 different and diverse stocks, and its systematic risk is the same as the market portfolio. Therefore, it has average systematic risk, which is lower than the systematic risk of a concentrated portfolio like Portfolio B. Portfolio B, on the other hand, consists of only two stocks from the active leisure industry, which is a concentrated portfolio.

This concentration exposes Portfolio B to higher systematic risk than Portfolio A. Moreover, both stocks in Portfolio B have some unsystematic risk, and since they have the same level of unsystematic risk, the unsystematic risk of Portfolio B is lower than that of Portfolio A, option D is correct.

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The correct question is:

Portfolio a is a well-diversified portfolio that is equally weighted among 12,000 different and diverse stocks. portfolio a has an average amount of systematic risk, so it has exactly the same amount of systematic risk as the market portfolio. Portfolio b consists of 2 stocks that operate in the active leisure industry: 3,687 shares of Treetop entertainment stock, which has a price of $13.00 per share and a beta of 1.10; and 1,683 shares of Garfield recreational stock, which has a price of $4.70 per share and a beta of 1.00. all stocks have some unsystematic risk and all stocks have the same level of unsystematic risk. which one of the following assertions is most likely to be true?

A) portfolio a has more systematic risk than portfolio b, and portfolio a more unsystematic risk than portfolio b

B) portfolio b has more systematic risk than portfolio a, and portfolio b has more unsystematic risk than portfolio a

C) portfolio a has more systematic risk than portfolio b, and portfolio b has more unsystematic risk than portfolio a

D) portfolio b has more systematic risk than portfolio a, and portfolio a has more unsystematic risk than portfolio b

D) portfolio a either has the same amount of systematic risk as portfolio b or portfolio a has the same amount of unsystematic risk as portfolio b

E) portfolio a has the same amount of systematic risk and unsystematic risk as portfolio b

How much oil is currently in the strategic petroleum reserve.

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However, as per the latest information available on the U.S. Department of Energy's website, the Strategic Petroleum Reserve currently holds approximately 621 million barrels of crude oil, which is the world's largest emergency oil stockpile. The SPR was established in the 1970s in response to the oil embargo by Arab countries, which led to oil shortages and skyrocketing prices.

The reserve's primary purpose is to provide a reliable source of crude oil to mitigate disruptions in oil supplies caused by natural disasters, conflicts, or other emergencies. The Department of Energy continuously monitors global oil markets and makes decisions on when and how much crude oil to release from the SPR based on various factors, including supply and demand dynamics, geopolitical risks, and economic considerations.
As of October 2021, the Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) in the United States holds approximately 621.3 million barrels of crude oil. Established in 1975, the SPR serves as an emergency stockpile of oil to counteract potential supply disruptions or price spikes. It is the world's largest reserve of its kind, stored in four underground storage facilities along the Gulf Coast. The SPR's capacity is 714 million barrels, meaning it is currently around 87% full.

To access the oil in the reserve, the U.S. government can authorize a release through an emergency drawdown, a test sale, or an exchange. This process ensures that the country has a reliable source of petroleum in case of natural disasters, geopolitical crises, or other events that could affect the supply or price of oil. The SPR has been tapped multiple times throughout its history, most recently in response to Hurricane Ida in 2021.

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a landlord in a large complex refuses to rent an apartment to anyone who is a college student. does this likely violate the fair housing act

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Yes, this action by the landlord is likely to violate the Fair Housing Act (FHA) of 1968.

The FHA is a federal law that prohibits discrimination in the sale, rental, and financing of housing based on protected characteristics, such as race, color, national origin, religion, sex, familial status, and disability.

College student status is not specifically listed as a protected characteristic under the FHA. However, the policy of refusing to rent to college students may have a disproportionate impact on individuals who are younger than 18 years old, or who are members of a particular race or national origin, or who have a disability, and thus may be considered discriminatory under the FHA.

Moreover, the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) has issued guidance stating that policies that exclude college students or require additional criteria for them to obtain housing may be discriminatory if they have a disparate impact on members of a protected class.

Therefore, it is likely that the landlord's policy of refusing to rent to college students would be considered discriminatory under the FHA, and the landlord could face legal consequences for violating the law.

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The global MNC faces the dual challenge of achieving scale economies through standardization while at the same time responding to
Select one:
a. global economics.
b. local customer differences.
c. increased competition.
d. increased shipping expenses.

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The global MNC faces the dual difficulty of attaining scale economies by standardization while still adapting to local customer differences. The right answer is b.

The trade-off between global integration and local responsiveness is a key issue for managers choosing a global business strategy. Global integration refers to how much a firm can use similar products and practises in various countries. The degree to which a corporation needs modify its goods and operating procedures to accommodate local requirements is known as local responsiveness.

Four fundamental worldwide business strategies are produced by the two dimensions: export, standardisation, multidomestic, and transnational. When a business is primarily concerned with its domestic operations, an export strategy is adopted. When a business approaches the entire world as one market with little to no real variation, it is using a standardisation strategy.

The correct answer is option b.

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OMG Inc. has 4 million shares of common stock outstanding, 3 million shares of preferred stock outstanding, and 5,000 bonds. Suppose the common shares are selling for $27 per share, the preferred shares are selling for $26 per share, and the bonds are selling for 108 percent of par. What weight should you use for debt in the computation of OMG's WACC?

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To compute OMG's WACC, the weight of debt is calculated by dividing the market value of debt by the sum of the market value of equity and debt. The final answer is weight of debt in the computation of OMG's WACC is 3.42%.

First, let's calculate the market value of weight of debt

Market value of debt = 5,000 bonds × 108% of par = $5,400,000

Next, let's calculate the market value of equity:

Market value of equity = 4 million shares × $27 per share + 3 million shares × $26 per share = $150 million

Now, we can calculate the weight of debt:

Weight of debt = Market value of debt / (Market value of debt + Market value of equity)

= $5,400,000 / ($5,400,000 + $150,000,000)

= 0.0342 or 3.42%

Therefore, the weight of debt in the computation of OMG's WACC is 3.42%.

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which statement is the most accurate explanation of the information on the graph?unemployment rates rise and fall in predictable patterns.unemployment will never again be as high as it was in 2010.the united states suffered an economic downturn starting in 2009.the united states does not have to worry about unemployment.

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The most accurate explanation of the information on the graph is that the United States suffered an economic downturn starting in 2009, as the graph likely shows an increase in unemployment rates during that time period.

It would be incorrect to say that unemployment rates rise and fall in predictable patterns, as there are often unpredictable factors that can impact the economy and employment rates.

It would also be incorrect to say that unemployment will never again be as high as it was in 2010, as economic conditions can change and lead to higher levels of unemployment in the future. Finally, it would be incorrect to say that the United States does not have to worry about unemployment, as unemployment remains a significant economic and social concern for the country.
The most accurate explanation of the information on the graph is: "The United States suffered an economic downturn starting in 2009." This statement highlights the significant impact of the 2009 recession on unemployment rates, which is supported by historical data. The other statements are either too broad or not supported by the given information. It is essential to consider economic factors and historical patterns when analyzing unemployment trends.

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machinery manufacturing company is considering a three-year project that has a cost of $75,000. the project will generate after-tax cash flows of $33,100 in year 1, $31,500 in year 2, and $31,200 in year 3. assume that the firm's proper rate of discount is 10% and that the firm's tax rate is 40%. what is the project's payback? 0.33 years 1.22 years 2.33 years three years

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The project's payback period is 2.33 years. While the payback period is a useful measure of a project's liquidity, it does not account for the time value of money or the profitability of the project over its entire life.

This is used in conjunction with other capital budgeting techniques such as net present value (NPV) or internal rate of return (IRR) to make informed investment decisions.

The payback period is the length of time required for a project to recover its initial investment. To calculate the payback period, we need to determine the point in time when the sum of the cash inflows equals the initial investment.

First, we need to calculate the present value of the cash flows using the firm's discount rate and tax rate. Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet, we can calculate the present value of each cash flow as follows:

PV(year 1) = $33,100 / (1 + 0.10) * (1 - 0.40) = $17,820

PV(year 2) = $31,500 / (1 + 0.10)^2 * (1 - 0.40) = $15,201

PV(year 3) = $31,200 / (1 + 0.10)^3 * (1 - 0.40) = $13,274

Next, we need to calculate the cumulative cash flows to determine the payback period:

Year 0: -$75,000

Year 1: -$75,000 + $33,100 = -$41,900

Year 2: -$41,900 + $31,500 = -$10,400

Year 3: -$10,400 + $31,200 = $20,800

The payback period is the point in time when the cumulative cash flows equal the initial investment, which occurs at the end of Year 2. Therefore, the payback period is 2 years and 4 months, or 2.33 years.

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Perfectly competitive firms are price takers because:
A) each firm is very large
B) there are no good substitutes for their goods
C) many other firms produce identical products
D) their demand curves are downward sloping

Answers

Perfectly competitive firms are price takers because many other firms produce identical products. Perfectly competitive market: many small firms, identical products, and no barriers to entry or exit. Therefore, Option C is correct.

In a perfectly competitive market, there are many small firms that sell identical products or services, with no barriers to entry or exit. Because there are so many sellers, each firm is a price taker, meaning they have no control over the price of the product or service they sell.

Each firm has to accept the market price as given and adjust their output accordingly. This is because if they try to charge a higher price, customers will simply buy from a competitor instead.

As a result, each firm in a perfectly competitive market faces a horizontal, or perfectly elastic, demand curve, which means that they can sell as much output as they want at the market price.

Because of this, firms have no incentive to charge a higher price than the market price, as they would lose all their customers.

Therefore, perfectly competitive firms are forced to operate at the efficient level of output, where marginal cost equals price, leading to the highest possible level of consumer surplus. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

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Which of the following is a correct statement regarding an instrument payable in the alternative using the word or​?
A.Both​ persons' indorsements are necessary to negotiate the instrument.
B.If the instrument is payable in the alternative using the word or​, either​ person's indorsement signature alone is sufficient to negotiate the instrument.
C.The instrument is​ non-negotiable.
D.The instrument is​ non-transferable.
E.The instrument is​ non-assignable.

Answers

If the instrument is payable in the alternative using the word or, either person's indorsement signature alone is sufficient to negotiate the instrument  is a correct statement regarding an instrument payable in the alternative using the word or​

An endorsement signature is a signature on a negotiable instrument, such as a check or a promissory note, that indicates the payee's intention to transfer the rights to the instrument to another party. In the case of an instrument payable in the alternative using the word "or", either person's endorsement signature alone is sufficient to negotiate the instrument.

This means that either of the two named payees can endorse the instrument and transfer it to a third party without the need for the other payee's endorsement.

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what form of analysis do courts employ that is a balancing test to see if the benefits of the company's behavior outweigh the harm of the anticompetitive behavior? multiple choice question. rule-of-reason

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The anticompetitive effects outweigh the benefits, the behavior is deemed illegal and a violation of antitrust law.

The form of analysis that courts employ to balance the benefits of a company's behavior against the harm of anticompetitive behavior is known as the Rule of Reason. Under the Rule of Reason, courts examine the procompetitive and anticompetitive effects of a company's behavior to determine if it violates antitrust law. This involves an analysis of the relevant market, including the market share of the defendant and its competitors, the nature and extent of barriers to entry, and the impact of the behavior on competition in the market.

The Rule of Reason requires a balancing test that weighs the benefits of the challenged behavior against its anticompetitive effects. If the benefits outweigh the harm to competition, the behavior is deemed lawful under the antitrust laws.

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a particular task with a 5 day duration in a project cost $32000 for reducing its duration to 3 days. the rate of crashing for this task would then be:

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The rate of crashing for the task would be $10667 per day ($32000 cost reduction divided by 2 days reduction in duration).

Crashing a project task involves compressing its schedule in order to complete it earlier than planned. This can be done by adding more resources to the task or by reducing the scope of the task. In this case, reducing the duration of the task from 5 days to 3 days would require additional resources to be allocated to the task, resulting in an increase in cost. The cost of crashing the task can be calculated by dividing the cost of the task reduction by the number of days reduced. Therefore, the rate of crashing for this task would be $10667 per day ($32000 cost reduction divided by 2 days reduction in duration).

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FILL IN THE BLANK. A firm's _____ determines how the work efforts of individuals and teams are orchestrated and how resources are distributed.A. controlB. structureC. normD. culture

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A firm's structure is the framework that outlines the relationships among the different roles, functions, and positions within the organization. The correct answer is B. structure.

It determines how tasks are divided and how communication and decision-making are coordinated. The structure also determines how resources are allocated and how the work efforts of individuals and teams are coordinated to achieve the organization's goals.

Control refers to the process of monitoring and regulating the organization's activities to ensure that they align with its objectives. Norms are the informal rules and expectations that guide behavior within an organization. Culture refers to the shared values, beliefs, and practices that shape the behavior of individuals and groups within an organization

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Which of the following correctly shows the relationship between savings, the government budget balance, and the current account?
A) S + CA = I + (T - G)
B) S + CA = I + (T + G)
C) S + (T - G) = I + CA
D) S + (T + G) = I + CA

Answers

The national income accounting identity must include the current account balance to account for this international flow. The correct answer is option D: S + (T + G) = I + CA.

This equation represents the national income accounting identity, which states that total national savings (S) plus the government budget balance (T + G) equals total domestic investment (I) plus the current account balance (CA).

The government budget balance is equal to total government revenue (T) minus total government expenditure (G). Therefore, (T + G) represents the total government deficit or surplus.

In a closed economy (i.e., one without international trade), the current account balance is zero, and the national income accounting identity reduces to S = I - (T - G), which shows that savings must equal domestic investment minus the government budget deficit.

However, in an open economy with international trade, the current account balance (CA) represents the net flow of goods, services, and capital between a country and the rest of the world. Thus, the national income accounting identity must include the current account balance to account for this international flow.

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a machine with a cost of $160,000, accumulated depreciation of $100,000, and current year depreciation expense of $24,500 is sold for $52,000 cash. the amount that should be reported as a source of cash under cash flows from investing activities is:

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The amount that should be reported as a source of cash under cash flows from investing activities for the machine sold is $52,000. This is because the machine was sold for $52,000 cash, which represents the inflow of cash from the sale. The sale of the machine represents a disposal of a long-term asset and should be reported as a cash inflow under cash flows from investing activities in the statement of cash flows.

To calculate the amount of cash inflow, we need to determine the machine's carrying value or book value at the time of sale. The carrying value is calculated by subtracting the accumulated depreciation from the cost of the machine:
Carrying value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation
Carrying value = $160,000 - $100,000
Carrying value = $60,000
Cash inflow = Cash received + Loss on disposal
Cash inflow = $52,000 - Loss on disposal
Loss on disposal = Carrying value - Proceeds from sale
Loss on disposal = $60,000 - $52,000
Loss on disposal = $8,000
Cash inflow = $52,000 - $8,000
Cash inflow = $44,000

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Governments in Australia and around the world are consideringimplementing a minimum price (aka price floor) on alcohol. Yourtask is to use the Economic way of thinking learnt in this unit toformall

Answers

A price floor on alcohol is an economic policy that sets a minimum price below which alcohol cannot be sold.

When a price floor is implemented, it affects both the supply and demand sides of the market. Here are the step-by-step impacts of a price floor on alcohol:

1. The government sets a minimum price for alcohol that is higher than the current market equilibrium price.

2. As a result, the quantity of alcohol demanded decreases, since some consumers are unwilling or unable to pay the higher price.

3. The quantity of alcohol supplied, on the other hand, may increase, as producers seek to take advantage of the higher price.

4. This leads to a surplus of alcohol in the market, as the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

5. Over time, the surplus may be absorbed through various channels, such as government buy-back programs, producers adjusting their production levels, or increased exports to other countries.

6. As the goal of the policy is to reduce alcohol consumption and its negative externalities, the decrease in quantity demanded should ideally lead to improvements in public health and social outcomes.

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If a company spends $28.8 million to install refurbished footwear-making equipment with capacity to produce 2 million pairs of athletic footwear at its Asia Pacific production facility then its annual depreciation costs at that facility will rise by a 2.5% or $720,000. b 8% or $2,304,000. c 10% or $2,880,000. d 5% or $1,440,000. e 4% or $1,152,000.

Answers

The correct choice is C, Therefore, the company's annual depreciation costs at that facility will rise by 10% or $2,880,000.

Annual depreciation cost = Depreciation rate x Initial cost / Useful life

Annual depreciation cost = 2.5% x $28.8 million / 10

Annual depreciation cost = $720,000

Option B: Annual depreciation cost = 8% x $28.8 million / 10 = $2,304,000

Option C: Annual depreciation cost = 10% x $28.8 million / 10 = $2,880,000

Option D: Annual depreciation cost = 5% x $28.8 million / 10 = $1,440,000

Option E: Annual depreciation cost = 4% x $28.8 million / 10 = $1,152,000

Depreciation refers to the gradual decrease in value of an asset over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors that make it less useful or valuable. It is a non-cash expense that is recognized in the financial statements of a business or organization to reflect the decline in the value of its fixed assets.

Depreciation is calculated by dividing the cost of an asset by its estimated useful life, which is the length of time it is expected to provide value to the business. The resulting annual depreciation expense is then recorded on the income statement and deducted from revenues to calculate net income. Depreciation is important for businesses because it allows them to allocate the cost of assets over their useful lives, rather than recognizing the full cost upfront.

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have a cell that is the sales price of a given product, the value of which will change to produce the desired solver result in the target cell, this cell is what kind\

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The cell that is the sales price of a given product and changes to produce the desired solver result in the target cell is known as a variable cell or decision variable.

In the context of optimization problems, decision variables are those values that need to be determined in order to optimize the objective function. In this case, the sales price is the variable that needs to be optimized to achieve the desired result in the target cell.

Decision variables are typically denoted by symbols such as x, y, or z, and are subject to certain constraints or limitations. These constraints may be related to resources, capacities, or other factors that limit the values that the decision variables can take.

Optimization problems involving decision variables are often solved using mathematical techniques such as linear programming, nonlinear programming, or integer programming. These techniques involve formulating the problem as a mathematical model, which includes the objective function, decision variables, and constraints.

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How many americans could not find work in 1930? 1931?.

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There were 6 million unemployed Americans in America by 1931, up from the 4 million who were unemployed in 1930. The number of unemployed persons has increased from 1.5 million in October 1929 to over 3.2 million today.

Later estimates from the Bureau of Labour Statistics put the number of unemployed people in 1933 at 12,830,000, or around one-fourth of the nearly 51 million people in the civilian labour force. With around fifteen and a half million unemployed, March set a new record.

In 1930, the unemployment rate reached 8.7 percent, and by 1933, it had reached 24.9 percent. In contrast, figures from the Current Population Survey of the Census Bureau reveal that during the 2007–2009 Great Recession, the unemployment rate reached a peak of 10%.

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which of the following is the best predictor of job performance? group of answer choices intelligence test personality trait of conscientiousness years of education reference checks

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Among the options provided, the personality trait of conscientiousness is generally considered the best predictor of job performance.

Conscientiousness is characterized by traits such as dependability, self-discipline, organization, and attention to detail, which are highly valued in many job roles. Research has consistently shown that individuals who score high on conscientiousness tend to be more successful in their careers, perform better on the job, and have higher job satisfaction. While intelligence and education may also be relevant factors in job performance, they are not as consistently predictive across all job roles and industries as conscientiousness.

Reference checks can provide valuable information about a candidate's past performance, but they may be subject to biases and limitations, such as the quality of the reference and the context in which the candidate worked.

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currently andrews is paying a dividend of $20.00 (per share). if this dividend were raised by $3.64, given its current stock price what would be the dividend yield? select : 1 save answer 12.8% $23.64 $3.64 15.2%

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The dividend yield after the increase of $3.64 in the dividend per share would be 15.76%, which is option D in the provided choices.

To calculate the dividend yield, we need to divide the annual dividend per share by the current stock price. Since we are given that the current dividend per share is $20.00, we need to calculate the new dividend per share after the increase of $3.64. This would be $20.00 + $3.64 = $23.64.

Next, we need to know the current stock price of Andrews to calculate the dividend yield. Let's assume the current stock price is $150.00 per share.

Using the formula for dividend yield, we get:

Dividend Yield = (Annual Dividend per Share / Stock Price) x 100%

Dividend Yield = ($23.64 / $150.00) x 100%

Dividend Yield = 0.1576 x 100%

Dividend Yield = 15.76%

Option D.

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1. (4 points) you work for a firm that owns and operates five car dealerships. the chief investment officer suggests that the firm should buy gold as an investment because he read in the paper that the demand for gold is expected to go up significantly in the future. would you expect this to be a value enhancing investment? explain!

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No, I would not expect buying gold to be a value enhancing investment for the firm that owns and operates five car dealerships. The firm's primary business is operating car dealerships, and investing in gold is not directly related to its core operations.


While it is true that the demand for gold may go up in the future, this does not necessarily mean that buying gold would be a profitable investment for the car dealership firm. Gold is not directly related to the car dealership industry, and therefore does not have a direct impact on the firm's revenue or profitability. Additionally, investing in gold can be risky, as its value can fluctuate greatly depending on a variety of economic and geopolitical factors.
While the demand for gold might increase in the future, it would not necessarily contribute to the firm's growth in the automotive industry. Instead, the firm should focus on investments that align with its business objectives and core competencies, such as improving dealership facilities or expanding its vehicle inventory. This would likely enhance the firm's value more effectively than investing in gold.

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maguire was considering selling stock as a source of funds but was concerned about: a. damaging his corporate image. b. estate planning. c. the effect that might have on future financing. d. the loss of voting control of the company.

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Maguire's consideration of selling stock as a source of funds raises several concerns that he should carefully evaluate. Firstly, he must consider the impact that such a move may have on his corporate image.

Selling stock may send a message to investors that the company is struggling financially, which could negatively affect the company's reputation and share value.

Secondly, Maguire should think about how selling stock may affect his estate planning. Selling stock may have tax implications that could impact his estate, so he should consult with a financial advisor or attorney to ensure that his estate planning is not negatively affected.

Thirdly, Maguire must also evaluate the effect that selling stock may have on future financing options. If he sells too much stock, he may limit his ability to raise additional capital in the future, which could be a problem if the company needs more funds down the line.

Lastly, Maguire must consider the potential loss of voting control of the company if he sells too much stock. If he sells enough shares to fall below a certain percentage of ownership, he may lose the ability to make important decisions for the company. Therefore, Maguire should weigh all of these factors carefully before making a decision about selling stock as a source of funds.

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When determining if there is evidence of a linear relationship between variables, OLS estimators must be ______ for the test to be valid.

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When determining if there is evidence of a linear relationship between variables, OLS (Ordinary Least Squares) estimators must be unbiased and efficient for the test to be valid.

OLS stands for "Ordinary Least Squares," and it is a statistical method used to estimate the parameters of a linear regression model. The goal of OLS is to find the best-fit line that minimizes the sum of squared residuals between the actual values of the dependent variable and the predicted values of the dependent variable.

In OLS, the dependent variable is regressed on one or more independent variables. The OLS method calculates the values of the regression coefficients, which represent the estimated relationship between the dependent variable and the independent variable(s). The regression coefficients can be used to make predictions about the dependent variable based on the independent variable(s).

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Nielsen collects national tv ratings by using a people meter. This is a box that is attached to televisions, dvrs, cable boxes, and satellite dishes in about 30,000 households across the country; has a remote control that is used to indicate when a viewer begins and finishes watching a tv program; and stores and then transmits the viewing information to nielsen each night. The information nielsen is collecting is referred to as:.

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Nielsen collects through people meters is referred to as "television audience measurement data" or simply "TV ratings data." Nielsen's people meters are attached to various devices in selected households to record when viewers start and stop watching TV programs.

This data is then transmitted to Nielsen, which uses it to determine the popularity and reach of TV programs across the country. Nielsen uses a people meter, a box attached to televisions, DVRs, cable boxes, and satellite dishes in 30,000 households across the country, to collect national TV ratings. The people meter has a remote control that indicates when a viewer starts and finishes watching a TV program. The viewing information is stored and transmitted to Nielsen each night, and this information is referred to as national TV ratings.

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the cost a consumer incurs when moving from one product to another. it can involve actual money spent (e.g., buying a new product) as well as investments in time, any data loss, and so forth.

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The price a customer pays to switch from one product to another. Switching costs can include financial outlays (such as purchasing a new product) as well as time commitments, data loss, and other expenses.

The expenses a consumer incurs as a result of switching brands or goods are known as switching costs. Financial, psychological, effort-based, and time-based switching costs are all possible.

High switching costs and low switching costs are two different categories of switching expenses. There are several names for switching expenses. In the business press, items may be described as "sticky" or as causing "friction." Some people could use the term "lock-in." Switching costs are intimately tied to the idea of staying power.

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what are the major differences between the outlined business entity options? focus your discussion on sole proprietorships, partnerships (general partnerships and limited partnerships), and llc's. within your discussion please identify the major advantages and/or disadvantages. once you have a good idea of the differences between the entity types, please read the posted fact pattern and answer the following questions. what law should be applied to resolve the dispute over profits? how will profits be distributed? how could this have been avoided? would you recommend that different business entity for the friends?

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it is recommended to have a clear and detailed partnership agreement or operating agreement that outlines the roles and responsibilities of each partner/member, the distribution of profits, and the process for resolving disputes.

The major differences between the outlined business entity options are as follows:
1. Sole Proprietorships: A sole proprietorship is the simplest form of business entity where an individual owns and operates the business. The owner is personally responsible for all the business debts and liabilities, and there is no legal distinction between the business and the owner. The major advantage of a sole proprietorship is that it is easy to set up, and the owner has complete control over the business. The major disadvantage is that the owner is personally liable for all the business debts and liabilities.
2. Partnerships: A partnership is a business entity where two or more people own and operate the business. There are two types of partnerships - general partnerships and limited partnerships. In a general partnership, all the partners are equally responsible for the business debts and liabilities, and there is no legal distinction between the business and the partners. In a limited partnership, there are two types of partners - general partners who are responsible for the business debts and liabilities, and limited partners who are only responsible for their investment in the business. The major advantage of a partnership is that it is easy to set up, and the partners can pool their resources and expertise. The major disadvantage is that the partners are personally liable for all the business debts and liabilities.
3. LLC's: A Limited Liability Company (LLC) is a hybrid business entity that combines the advantages of a corporation and a partnership. The owners of an LLC are called members, and they have limited liability for the business debts and liabilities. The major advantage of an LLC is that the members have limited liability, and the business is treated as a separate legal entity. The major disadvantage is that it is more complicated and expensive to set up than a sole proprietorship or a partnership.
In the given fact pattern, the law that should be applied to resolve the dispute over profits would depend on the state in which the business is located. Each state has its own laws regarding business entities and the distribution of profits. Generally, the profits would be distributed according to the terms of the partnership agreement or the operating agreement of the LLC.

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