The integrity of the interaction would decrease to the helix-3 interaction with DNA if a mutation occurred that altered this adenine to guanine. The integrity of the interaction would decrease to the helix-3 interaction with DNA if a mutation occurred that altered this adenine to guanine because one of the two hydrogen bonds would not be able to form.
If a mutation occurred that altered an Adenine to Guanine, the helix-3 interaction with DNA would be affected as follows:
1. Adenine is a purine base, while Guanine is a pyrimidine base. This means that the shape of the base in the DNA molecule would change, as purines are larger than pyrimidines.
2. This shape change would result in a decrease in the number of hydrogen bonds between the helix-3 and the DNA molecule. This is because Adenine can form two hydrogen bonds with a cytosine, while Guanine can only form three hydrogen bonds with a cytosine.
3. The decrease in hydrogen bonds would weaken the interaction between the helix-3 and the DNA molecule, reducing the stability of the DNA structure.
4. The DNA molecule would become more vulnerable to damage and mutations, as the helix-3 is an important structural component of the DNA molecule.
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Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia.A) intramuralB) collateralC) chainD) prevertebralE) suprarenal
Sympathetic chain ganglia.Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord
The sympathetic ganglia, or paravertebral ganglia are autonomic ganglia, of the sympathetic nervous system. Ganglia are 20,000 to 30,000 afferent and efferent nerve cell our bodies that run along on both side of the spinal cord.
The sympathetic ganglia include the segmental paravertebral ganglia (sympathetic chain) positioned near the intervertebral foramina along the vertebral column and the prevertebral ganglia (including celiac and mesenteric ganglia) positioned within the abdominal hollow space ventral to the vertebral column and close to the dorsal aorta
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Plants use solar energy to produce __ for their cells.
A. ADP
B. carbon dioxide
C. chemical energy
D. electrical energy
Answer:
C. chemical energy
Explanation:
In photosynthesis, solar energy is harvested and converted to chemical energy in the form of glucose using water and carbon dioxide. Oxygen is released as a byproduct.
True or False: In aquaponics, plants take up nitrites for their growth, making the water clean for fish.
Answer: True Plants take in nitrites for growth resulting in cleaner water for the fish.
Where do microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis?; Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells a centromere B centrosome C Centriole D chromatid e kinetochore?; Where are microtubules found in mitosis?; Where do microtubule spindle fibers come from?
The microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells from centrosome.
Chromosome separation occurs during mitosis on microtubule-based structures called mitotic spindles. Spindle microtubules originate from centrosomes or spindle pole bodies in the majority of animal and fungal cells.
The pericentriolar material, which is made up of two centrioles and an electron-dense matrix, is the centrosome, the main microtubule-organizing centre (MTOC) in eukaryotic cells (PCM). The centrosome's ability to nucleate, anchor, and release microtubules (MTs) is what allows it to organize MT arrays, like the mitotic spindle.
The duplication of centrioles makes sure that each daughter cell receives two centrioles. It happens in four stages that follow one another: the centrioles are disengaged at the conclusion of mitosis, the daughter centrioles are nucleated in G1-S before they reach their full centriolar length, the daughter centrioles are lengthened in S and G2, and the centrosomes are separated (G2–M).
Hence, centrosome is structure that provides centriole during cell cycle.
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describe the conclusions mendel reached about inherited traits, using the terms dominant and recessive
Mendel reached at conclusion about inherited trait is when a pair of alleles is heterozygous, the dominant allele expresses itself while the recessive allele does not.
The essential concepts of inheritance were discovered by Gregor Mendel through his study of pea plants. He came to the idea that genes are passed down from each parent as unique, paired units. Mendel looked into how parental genes changed and whether they were expressed as dominant or recessive features in the children. He was aware of the transmission of mathematical patterns from one generation to the next. Typically, Mendel's Laws of Heredity are phrased as follows:
1) The Law of Segregation: A gene pair controls each inherited trait. Only one of each pair of parental genes is present in each gamete as a result of the random distribution of parental genes to the gamete.
2) The Law of Independent Assortment: Different traits are inherited independently of one another because genes for those traits are grouped into distinct groups.
3) The Law of Dominance states that if a gene has two potential variants, the dominant version will be expressed by the organism.
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What do you call the non-Mendelian inheritance that states that neither trait is dominant and the traits appear to blend together?; What do you call the non-Mendelian inheritance pattern that states that neither trait is dominant nor the recessive?; What is incomplete dominance in Mendelian genetics?; Is Mendelian inheritance incomplete dominance?
The non-Mendelian inheritance that states that neither trait is dominant and the traits appear to blend together is called incomplete dominance.
The non-Mendelian inheritance pattern that states that neither trait is dominant nor the recessive is codominance. Incomplete dominance is the phenomena when a dominant allele is unable completely mask the features of a recessive allele due to which the organism results in a physical appearance which shows a blend of both alleles equally. For example, the case of pink flowers in Snapdragon. Mendelian inheritance is neither incomplete dominance nor codominance as Mendel gave the law of passing of dominant and recessive alleles to the off springs such that only dominant alleles if present determined the phenotype of the progeny and recessive alleles must be present from both parents to become the phenotype in the progeny.
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which of the following is not a major endocrine organ? group of answer choices pineal gland hypothalamus kidneys testis pancreas
Among the given option, kidneys are not considered as major endocrine gland, which suggests option C is the right answer.
Endocrine glands are those gland which secrete their products directly into the bloodstream. There are eight major endocrine glands scattered throughout the body. The examples of endocrine glands are pineal gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, hypothalamus and adrenal glands etc. Kidneys are not considered as glands because they are part of organ system and produces hormones. The body's metabolism, energy level, reproduction, growth and development, and response to injury are some functions of the endocrine system in the body. It is mainly responsible for all the swift actions that occur internally in the body.
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brucella bacteria are considered a potential agent of bioterrorism because group of answer choices infection causes a fever. they are not susceptible to antibiotics. they cause ulcerating lesions of the skin. they are endospore-forming bacteria. they easily become airborne.
The bacteria brucella is potential agent of bioterrorism because easily become airborne.
Most instances end result from tour outdoor the USA and ingestion of unpasteurized milk products. Person-to-man or woman transmission hardly ever has been documented. Because small quantities of aerosolized micro organism can purpose disease.
Brucella is taken into consideration a ability agent of bioterrorism. This manner that they've the ability to be evolved as bioterrorism retailers because of their capacity to go through aerosolization.
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at the end of tca cycle, glucose is converted to the final product, co2, and all the energy are released in the form of atp/gtp.
The energy released in form of ATP are 6 NADHs, 2 ATPs and 2 FADH2 as the end products of TCA cycle.
What is the TCA cycle?Tricarboxylic acid cycle is also known as Krebs or citric acid cycle. It can be described as the primary source of energy for cells and an essential component of aerobic respiration.
The TCA cycle converts acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA)'s available chemical energy into the reducing power of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). The end products of this cycle are 6 NADHs, 2 ATPs and 2 FADH2 from each molecule of glucose yielding two molecules of acetyl-CoA.
The complete question is:
At the end of tca cycle, glucose is converted to the final product, co2, and all the energy are released in the form of atp/gtp. What are the end products of this cycle?
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as charlotte snorkels near the shoreline, she notices large masses of something green swaying with the surf. she suspects this to be a large plant in the ocean. she collects a sample. upon closer examination, she discovers that there are no vascular structures to absorb and transport water and nutrients throughout the organism, but there are chloroplasts present in the cells. this organism most likely belongs to kingdom Fungi. Plantae. Animalia Protista.
The Protista kingdom includes the unicellular creatures Fungi amoeba, paramecium, and euglena.
Which species most likely belongs to the Plantae kingdom?In general, the Kingdom Plantae is made up of four closely related evolutionary groups: angiosperms, gymnosperms, mosses, and seedless vascular plants (flowering seed plants).
What are the plant and animal kingdoms of Protista?Early in the 20th century, the two kingdoms were expanded into five kingdoms, which included Protista (single-celled eukaryotes), Fungi (fungi and related organisms), Plantae (plants), Animalia (animals), and Monera. This was done because it became very difficult to categorize some living things into one or the other (the prokaryotes).
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The pedigree traces red-green color blindness. Which family ...
Color blindness is an X-linked trait, so there is much higher probability for male color blindness than female colorblindness (males only need one allele, females need two). So, the males are color blind and the females are not.
What is color blindness?Color blindness can be simply defined as trouble in seeing or identifying colors like blue, green. and red. There are some cases where a person cannot see and identify any colors at all. This syndrome is also called a color vision problem or color vision deficiency.
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The members that have color blindness are Sam, Tim, Bella, and Joshua.
What is color blindness?
Reduced perception of color or color distinctions is referred to as color blindness or color vision deficit (CVD). It can make it difficult to do things like choose ripe food, dress appropriately, and read traffic lights. Some academic tasks could be harder if you're color blind. However, problems are typically small, and colorblind people naturally adjust and develop coping techniques.
Given that color blindness is an X-linked trait, men are considerably more likely than women to be affected than vice versa (males only need one allele, females need two). As a result, whereas more women are not color blind, men are.
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Outline an experimental approach to determining the average chain growth rate for transcription in vivo. Chain growth rate is the number of nucleotides polymerized per minute per RNA chain. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences DNA Label a growing bacterial or cell culture for a brief interval with a mixture of "C-labeled nucleosides which would be converted to nucleotides and incorporated into . Isolate total sucrose-gradient centrifugation and equilibrium density-gradient centrifugation and subject it to hydrolysis with mild Every -terminal nucleotide will be released as a nucleoside. Separate nucleosides from nucleotides, by Total picomoles of nucleotide in the hydrolysate divided by total picomoles of nucleoside gives the number of nucleotides incorporated per interval (minutes) gives the growth rate of individual chains (nucleotides incorporated per growth rate chain-which, when divided by the labeling alkali chain per minute). An interesting variant of the experiment would be to carry it out length with individual radiolabeled nucleosides and ask whether the chain is the same for each ion-exchange chromatography or electrophoresis nucleotide acid RNA microarravs methods reset ?
Label a growing bacterial or cell culture for a brief interval with a mixture of 14C-labeled nucleosides, which would be converted to nucleotides and incorporated into DNA Isolate total Protein and subject it to hydrolysis with mild temperature. Every Nerve-terminal nucleotide will be released as a nucleoside. Separate nucleosides from nucleotides, by Esterification of inorganic phosphate to C5 on aldose.Total picomoles of nucleotide in the hydrolysate divided by total picomoles of nucleoside gives the number of nucleotides incorporated per nucleic acid polymer chain-which, when divided by the labeling interval (minutes) gives the growth rate of individual chains (nucleotides incorporated per growth rate chain per minute). An interesting variant of the experiment would be to carry it out with individual radiolabeled nucleosides and ask whether the chain growth rate is the same for each nucleotide.
Nucleosides have nitrogen base surrounded by 5 carbon carbohydrates which is called as ribose molecule. Nucleotides is simply a nucleoside with one or more phosphate group. There are 4 different types of nucleosides which are, adenosine, guanosine cytidine, and uridine. Nucleotides are formed from nucleosides by esterification of inorganic phosphate on aldose.
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Outline an experimental approach to determining the average chain growth rate for transcription in vivo. Chain growth rate is the number of nucleotides polymerized per minute per RNA chain. Fill in the blanks.
Label a growing bacterial or cell culture for a brief interval with a mixture of 14C-labeled nucleosides, which would be converted to nucleotides and incorporated into _____. Isolate total ______and subject it to hydrolysis with mild _____. Every _____-terminal nucleotide will be released as a nucleoside. Separate nucleosides from nucleotides, by ______. Total picomoles of nucleotide in the hydrolysate divided by total picomoles of nucleoside gives the number of nucleotides incorporated per _______chain-which, when divided by the labeling interval (minutes) gives the growth rate of individual chains (nucleotides incorporated per ______ chain per minute). An interesting variant of the experiment would be to carry it out with individual radiolabeled nucleosides and ask whether the chain ______is the same for each nucleotide.
based on the electron configuration of the elements below, which would exhibit a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
*where the upper index is atomic mass and the lower index is atomic number.
According to the elements' electron configurations, sulphur would behave chemically in the most similar way to oxygen.
Two electrons make up the first shell of oxygen (O), while six electrons make up the valence shell. Eight electrons make up the second shell of sulphur (S), which has two electrons, while six electrons make up the valence shell. Chemical behavior is similar among atoms with the same number of electrons in their valence shells. For instance, both oxygen and sulphur can finish out their valence shells by forming two single covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms. Oxygen and sulphur should have the same chemical properties since the electrons in an atom's outermost shell are available for chemical reactions and determine the atom's chemical makeup.
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which disease is an autosomal dominant disease?; the cell division that creates gametes according to these principles is known as __________.; bacteria can reproduce quickly by means of binary fission. because of this, after binary fission; based on the pedigree chart, what should you assume about the parental generation?; this is a form of a gene that is hidden by another, dominant, form of the same gene.; all but one statement describes an advantage of meiosis.; what law best explains why we would expect 75% of the offspring to have large teeth?
The cell division that creates gametes according to these principles is known as Meiosis.
In the majority of unicellular organisms, cell division occurs by a mechanism called binary fission. It resembles the process of mitotic division in multicellular organisms extremely closely. Cells of bacteria that divide by binary fission copy their DNA. Because DNA replication and DNA separation occur simultaneously during binary fission, the newly created cells are identical to one another.Law of dominance would be why there is 75% chance.According to Mendel's law of dominance, when two parents that have the same qualities are crossed, only one of the traits will be dominant and show up in the offspring, while the other will be hidden. It will manifest in the dominant trait.The traits that do not express themselves are referred to as recessive traits while the alleles that are expressed are referred to as dominant traits.To know more about cells check the below link:
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By his or her first birthday, an infant will have tripled his or her birth weight and increased his or her length by about 50 percent.
True
False
By the time an infant is 4 months old, it usually doubles in weight and by one year has tripled its birth weight. By age 2, the weight has quadrupled and lengths increases by 50 percent thus the statement is correct.
The typical American newborn weighs around 7.5 pounds and is around 20 inches in length. Infants normally lose about 5% of their body weight during the first few days of life as they get acclimated to feeding and removing waste. Most parents seem to miss this, but those who have tiny infants may find it worrying. However, this loss of weight is just momentary, as a quick period of growth follows. An infant typically doubles in weight by the time it is 4 months old, and by the time it is 1 year old, it has tripled. The weight has quadrupled by the age of two. At one year, the length doubles (range between 26 and 32 inches).
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What is the source of ethylene gas in a plant?
d. vascular tissue.
a. root hairs b. leaf buds
c. lateral meristems
d. fruit tissues
There is a one-way movement of water and minerals from the cortex into the vascular cylinder of a root because
a. the Casparian strip is waterproof.
b. water molecules are in high concentration in the cortex
c. nutrients are in low concentration in the cortex.
d. the root pressure is low.
Plants use the energy of sunlight to
a. carry out photosynthesis.
b. carry out cellular respiration.
c.exchange gases with the muatmosphere.
d. take in water from the soil.
Which of the following terms is LEAST related to the other terms?
a. oxygen
b. stomata
c. carbohydrates
d. carbon dioxide
Vascular tissue in plants consists of
a. meristem.
b. xylem and phloem.
c. parenchyma and collenchyma cells.
d. epidermal cells.
Vascular tissues are the xylem, phloem, and associated tissues in a vascular plant including ferns, conifers, and flowering plants.
Ethylene gas is produced by flower, aging leaves, and fruit itself to promote ripening. The ethylene in a plant growth regulator that acts as a trace level of entire plant life by regulating and stimulating the opening of flowers, fruit ripening and shedding of leaves.
Water and minerals move from the cortex of the root hairs into the vascular cylinder of the root in one-way. This is because a band of suberin in the walls of the endodermis called casparian strip is waterproof.
Photosynthesis is the process whereby green plants synthesize their own food (carbohydrates) using sunlight's energy. In the photosynthetic process, carbondioxide and water are reactants used to produce sugar and oxygen gas.
The stomata of a plant is located on the leaf and is one of the tiny pores in the epidermis of a leaf or stem through which gases (oxygen and carbondioxide) and water vapor pass.
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label the rotator cuff muscles and bone features (lateral view) by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
By clicking and dragging the labels to the appropriate spots, name the shoulder muscles. Supraspinatus muscles in the rotator cuff. These four muscles insert into the humerus from the scapula.
What is arm elevation?
The aspect of the joint is unprotected because the rotator cuff muscles' tendons have merged with the joint capsule to form a musculotendinous collar around the posterior, superior, and anterior parts of the joint. Supraspinatus regulates internal rotation and arm elevation. You can externally rotate your arm in the shoulder socket thanks to the infraspinatus. Your arm's teres minor muscle aids in rotation.
Arm abduction (holding your arm out straight, away from your body) is controlled by the subscapularis. Share on Pinterest The rotator cuff is made up of the subscapularis, teres minor, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus muscles.
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Do viruses qualify as a living organism?
Answer:
Viruses are a type of infectious agent that can replicate only inside the living cells of an organism. They are classified as non-living because they do not have many of the characteristics that are typically associated with living organisms, such as the ability to independently carry out metabolic processes such as metabolism and respiration. Unlike cells, viruses do not have a cell membrane or any cellular organelles, and they do not have a true nucleus or any genetic material of their own. Instead, they rely on the cellular machinery of their host to replicate and produce new viruses.However, viruses do exhibit some characteristics that are similar to those of living organisms. They can evolve and adapt to their environment through the process of natural selection, and they can reproduce and pass their genetic material on to their offspring. For these reasons, some scientists consider viruses to be a type of quasi-living entity that exists on the border between the living and non-living worlds.
Explanation:
which of the following common intermediates would be used to convert glycerol and lactate to glucose? group of answer choices pyruvate
Glucose-6-phosphate is a common intermediate used to convert glycerol and lactate to glucose.
Glycerol and lactate are converted into glucose by the metabolic process called gluconeogenesis(formation of new sugar). In this process, there is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources such as lactate, amino acids, glycerol, etc.
When the dietary intake is insufficient to supply the requirements of the brain, nervous system, erythrocytes, renal medulla, and testes embryonic tissues, all of which use glucose as a source of fuel, gluconeogenesis provides glucose.
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A researcher claims that different metabolic pathways allow bacteria to use different molecules as sources of matter and energy.
Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim by providing a relevant example?
Rhizobia bacteria form close associations with the roots of bean plants.
E. coli bacteria reproduce in liquid media containing either glucose or galactose.
The antibiotic rifampicin inhibits the growth of some bacterial strains but not of others.
Some viruses that infect bacteria reproduce by either the lysogenic cycle or the lytic cycle.
The solution that would best be the justification for the claim that the researcher has made is: E. coli bacteria reproduce in liquid media containing either glucose or galactose. Option B.
What is metabolic pathway?A metabolic route is a connected chain of chemical events taking place inside a cell in biochemistry. Metabolites are the reactants, products, and intermediates of an enzymatic reaction that are altered by a series of chemical reactions that are catalyzed by enzymes.
Through a sequence of intermediates, the route transforms one or more starting molecules into products. Based on their outcomes, metabolic pathways can be roughly classified into two groups.
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which of the following features of archaeal gene expression differentiate them from bacteria?
The following characteristics of archaeal specific genes set them apart from bacteria genetically: By contract, bacteria include base pairs in their tRNA but archaeans do not.
What carry out bacteria?Some bacteria aid in the digestion of food, assist the body produce necessary vitamins, and eliminate disease-causing cells. Additionally, bacteria are employed to create nutritious foods like cheddar cheese and yogurt. Though, influenza staph infections you to become ill. Within your body, they multiply rapidly.
Who are bacteria and what causes them?An intricate single cell encompasses a pathogens has the capacity to endure either within and outside the body on its own. Most germs don't cause harm. In truth, our bodies contain a variety of bacteria, particularly in the stomach where they aid in digestion. Some germs, however, can lead to illnesses.
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TRUE/FALSE. the fabella is a small sesamoid bone found in some mammals embedded in the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle behind the lateral condyle of the femur
True, the gastrocnemius muscle's lateral head tendon, which is located behind the lateral condyle of the femur, contains a tiny sesamoid bone called the fabella.
Where can one find fabella?Lines of tensile stress converge at the fabella, which is found in the back of the knee. It is implanted in the muscular fibers of the gastrocnemius muscle and articulates with the back of the articular surface of the lateral femoral condyle.
Do people have fabellas?The gastrocnemius muscle's lateral head tendon, which is located behind the lateral condyle of the femur, contains a tiny sesamoid bone called the fabella. It is an accessory bone, a difference in the human anatomy that 39% of people have. There are occasionally two or three of these bones (fabella bi- or tripartite).
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Bacteria are able to divide on a much faster schedule than eukaryotic cells. Some bacteria can divide every 20 minutes, while the minimum time required by eukaryotic cells in a rapidly developing embryo is about once per hour, and most cells divide much less often than that. State several testable hypotheses explaining why bacteria can divide at a faster rate than eukaryotic cells.
Bacteria can divide at a faster rate than eukaryotic cells because interphase (DNA Replication) is more simple in bacteria.
In bacteria, replication begins at the replication origin, where DNA gyrase unwinds supercoiled DNA, helicase makes it single-stranded, and single-stranded binding protein binds it to keep it in that state. A short RNA primer is created by primase and contains a free 3′-OH group that DNA polymerase III can use to add DNA nucleotides.
The lead strand of DNA is continually created from a single primer during elongation. Each of the brief Okazaki fragments that make up the lagging strand needs its own primer. Bacterial DNA polymerase I replaces the RNA primers with DNA nucleotides, and DNA ligase fills the spaces between these pieces.
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describe how regular physical activity benefits the following body system: cardiovascular system
Your muscle strength and endurance can both increase with regular exercise. Exercise helps your cardiovascular system function more effectively and distributes oxygen and nutrients to your tissues.
The heart, blood arteries, and blood make up the cardiovascular system. Its main job is to carry deoxygenated blood back to the lungs and to carry nutrients and oxygen-rich blood to all regions of the body. Serious health issues may arise from abnormalities or damage to any one or all of the cardiovascular system's components. Coronary artery disease, heart attacks, high blood pressure, and stroke are common disorders that can have an impact on the cardiovascular system. The cardiovascular system is examined in this article, along with each of its parts and their roles. We also go through some typical conditions affecting the cardiovascular system and the treatments that go along with them.
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one possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?
Preventing the vaccination recipients from becoming exposed to plant allergens. Plants, mites, insects, and fungal spores are the principal sources of allergies.
Which allergies are in the top 14?Celery, crustaceans (such as prawns, crabs, and lobsters), eggs, fish, lupin, milk, molluscs (such as mussels and oysters), mustard, peanuts, sesame, soybeans, sulphur dioxide, and sulphites (if the sulphur dioxide and sulphites are present) are among the 14 allergens.
Can plants cause allergies in people?13 million individuals in the UK suffer from plant allergies, which are very common. Additionally, it is referred to as allergic rhinitis, or hay fever. You might believe that the consequences of hay fever are unaffected by the season because it is winter.
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In a human karyotype; chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following is true of the pair? They are homologous chromosomes. They have the same length, centromere position, and staining pattern. They have genes that code for the same traits One of the pair is a maternal chromosome, and the other is paternal: All of the above are true Question 36 (2 points) After telophase of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids:
Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes are the traits for chromosomes 14
Each human cell typically has 23 pairs of the 46 chromosomes that make up the human genome. One of the pairings is made up of two copies of chromosome 14, one from each parent. More than 107 million DNA base pairs make up Chromosome 14, which makes up around 3.5 percent of all the DNA in cells. There are between 800 and 900 genes on chromosome 14 that give instructions for creating proteins.
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Which is not true about hunter-gatherer societies? A. They eat only meat. B. They have little impact on the environment. C. They are nomadic. D. They have low population density.
The statement that is not true about the hunter-gatherer societies is that they eat only meat. Option A
What is the hunter-gatherer societies?In the earliest times, people just moved from one point to the other in search of food. We had a lot of persons that travelled across mountains and seas and just settled at any point that seemed to be okay for them and there they created a society.
In that time, they did not have a sophisticated technology that could be able to have an impact on the environment as we have neither did they build permanent communities in which they lived.
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if the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal; which is an accurate description of the growth of a natural animal population?
Carrying capacity is defined as the average population size of a species in a given environment. Environmental factors such as adequate food, shelter, water, and mates limit the species population size.
If these requirements are not met, the population will decline until the resources recover.
If a species' population surpasses its carrying capacity, the ecosystem may become unfit for survival.
If the population outnumbers the carrying capacity for an extended period of time, resources may be depleted completely. If all resources are depleted, populations may perish.
Carrying capacity, or the greatest number of people that an ecosystem can support over time without harming or deteriorating it, is controlled by three essential factors: food supply, water availability, and space.2
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which of the following observations would cast doubt on the top-down hypothesis explaining population cycles in snowshoe hares. group of answer choices hare populations stop cycling and remain stable when give supplemental food hare populations remain cycling in abundance in the absence of predators hare populations increase in the absence of predators hare populations stop cycling and remain stable in the absence of predators
This research investigation found that the main element altering the population of prey during cycle is predation. Population cycles are a phenomenon in which numbers fluctuate over a predetermined time span.
For instance, there are some species where the patterns of change in Population cycles numbers are comparatively predictable. According to the study referenced in the question, many lynx leave their home range in search of food when snowshoe hares are in short supply. The reduction in the hare population is exacerbated by increasing hare predation brought on by large populations of lynx and other predators.The non-living elements of an ecosystem known as abiotic variables have an impact on their surroundings. Examples include temperature, light, and water in a terrestrial setting. Ocean currents and salinity are examples of abiotic components in a marine ecosystem. Through the interaction of biotic and abiotic components, an ecosystem is created.Abiotic factors, or the non-living elements of the environment, have a substantial effect on living creatures. They can help with research into issues like how big trees get, where diverse animals and plants are found, and why birds migrate. Water, sunlight, oxygen, soil, and temperature are important abiotic factors.
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When Robert Hooke observed plant cells through a microscope, it opened a new unseen world for scientists and led the way for the development of the cell theory. Which statement best explains why the cell theory is classified as a theory?
Responses
Predictions based on these principles have been confirmed.
These principles have been proven to be true.
These principles were formulated by a highly credible scientist.
The scientific community voted in favor of these principles.
PLS I NEED HELP!!!!!
The statement that best explains why the cell theory is classified as a theory is because the principles have been proven to be true.
What is cell theory?The cell theory is a group of theories formulated by a group of scientists to support the existence and behavior of cells. The theory, which has three parts was formulated through the works of Theodor Schwann, Matthias Schleiden, and Rudolf Virchow.
The three parts of the theory are:
Cells are the basic unit of life.Every organism is made up of, at least, one cell. Those made of single cells are said to be unicellular while those made of multiple cells are said to be multicellular.Cells cannot arise spontaneously. They arise from pre-existing cells.These assertions have been proven worldwide and found to be true. According to the definition of scientific theories as explanations of natural phenomena that have been widely tested and proven to be true, the assertions made with reference to the cell, therefore, qualify to be a theory.
More on the cell theory can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/1468725
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