A client is experiencing tonic-clonic seizures. The statements which is correct is option c. which states that move objects out of the clients way. Must Observe and document the characteristics of the seizure and anticipate the need to obtain a blood glucose level. The drug that is considered to be the right choice for this type of seizure is known as carbamazepine (Tegretol).
What are tonic-clonic seizures?
Tonic-clonic seizures or generalized onset motor seizures can be explained in short as a combination of tonic seizures (stiffening of the muscles) and clonic seizures (twitching). There are two stages which are experienced in a tonic-clonic seizures:
The tonic stage is when the patient loses their consciousness completely and their body undergoes stiffness or in some scenarios they may fall to the floor.
The clonic stage is experienced when the patient lose their control over their muscles as their limbs twitch. They may cause them to bite their tongue or inside their cheek, and have difficulty in the process of breathing.
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The volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation is the:
a. tidal volume.
b. residual volume.
c. inspiratory reserve volume.
d. expiratory reserve volume.
e. minute volume of respiration.
The volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation is the expiratory reserve volume. Option D is correct.
Lung volumes and lung capacities are the amounts of air in the lungs at various stages of the respiratory cycle. An adult male's entire lung capacity is around 3 litres of air.
Tidal breathing is typical, resting breathing, and tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled or expelled in a single breath. At birth, the typical human respiratory rate is 30-60 breaths per minute, falling to 12-20 breaths per minute in adults.
A spirometer can directly measure tidal volume, vital capacity, inspiratory capacity, and expiratory reserve volume. A ventilatory pulmonary function test consists of the following components. Because it is hard to "fully" breathe out, determining the leftover volume is more challenging.
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the emergency department nurse is caring for a client injured in a motor vehicle collision. the client recently immigrated to the country. the nurse should implement interventions aimed at addressing which issue?
The nurse should implement interventions aimed at addressing language and cultural barriers for a client who recently immigrated to the country and is injured in a motor vehicle collision.
The capacity of a patient to access healthcare and receive the right care can be substantially impacted by language and cultural obstacles. To guarantee efficient communication with the patient in this scenario, the nurse should make arrangements for a multilingual staff member or use a professional translation service. The nurse must also be conscious of cultural variations that may affect the patient's understanding of their condition or desire to provide private information.
To make sure the patient's requirements are being fulfilled, it could be beneficial to speak with a cultural liaison or social worker. The nurse can assist in making sure the patient receives the finest care and assistance by addressing these concerns.
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Which medication should be administered to a patient who has a cholinergic crisis?
1. Atropine
2. Donepezil
3. Echothiophate
4. Pyridostigmine
The medication that should be administered to a patient who has a cholinergic crisis is Atropine. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.
A cholinergic crisis is a medical emergency that occurs when there is an excessive amount of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the body. This can happen due to an overdose of medications that increase acetylcholine levels, such as donepezil, echothiophate, and pyridostigmine.
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This helps to reduce the symptoms of a cholinergic crisis, such as excessive salivation, sweating, abdominal cramps, and muscle weakness.
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the mother of a 6-year-old girl tells the nurse that she is very concerned that her daughter develops good self-esteem. which nursing instruction is best?
The best nursing instruction in this case would be to encourage the daughter to participate in activities with her peers.
Developing positive interactions with others can aid in the development of self-esteem and confidence. She may grow socially, learn to cooperate with others, and have a sense of belonging by taking part in activities with other kids her age.
It's also crucial to compliment the daughter's effort rather than her achievements. If a youngster is just concerned with the outcomes of an activity, she may feel inadequate if she doesn't "succeed."
No matter the outcome, stressing the value of effort and hard work may provide the kid a sense of success. By teaching her to focus on the process of obtaining a goal rather than simply the outcome, setting realistic objectives for her and helping her come up with a strategy to achieve them may also help her develop self-esteem.
Lastly, she may absorb these empowering words and experience a higher feeling of self-worth by crafting positive affirmations for her and having her repeat them every day.
Complete Question:
The mother of a 6-year-old girl tells the nurse that she is very concerned that her daughter develops good self-esteem. Which nursing instruction is best?
A. Encourage your daughter to participate in activities with her peers
B. Praise your daughter for her effort rather than her accomplishments
C. Set achievable goals for your daughter and help her to develop a plan to reach them
D. Create positive affirmations for your daughter and have her repeat them daily
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the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:______.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:
QRS complex.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in an electrocardiogram (ECG) can be either positive or negative, depending on the direction of the heart's electrical activity during that specific period of the cardiac cycle.
The QRS complex, which signals ventricular depolarization, is generally the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in a conventional 12-lead ECG. The QRS complex is made up of three waves: the Q, the R, and the S.The R wave, which depicts the rapid depolarization of the ventricles, is often the biggest and most noticeable wave in the QRS complex.
In rare situations, the ST section may also deviate significantly from the isoelectric line. Any departure from the isoelectric line might suggest ischemia, damage, or other pathological changes in the heart.
It's important to note that the biggest deflection in an ECG might vary based on the lead utilised for measurement and the patient's individual cardiac condition. As a result, a thorough interpretation of an ECG necessitates a careful examination of all leads as well as the clinical context.
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1. Why it is imperative the correct code is used when submitting specimens to the lab for additional testing?
2. What do you think would happen if the diagnostic code is incorrect or missing from the documentation sent to
lab with the specimen?
Answer:
Explanation:
For the first answer I looked it up and it said, "Improperly identified specimens can result in delayed diagnosis, additional laboratory testing, treatment of the wrong patient for the wrong disease, and severe transfusion reactions. Specimen identification errors have been reported to occur at rates of 0.1% to 5%." And for the second question, it said, "Transfusion-related death, medication errors, misdiagnosis, and patient mismanagement."
1. an older adult patient has been admitted after an inferior myocardial infarction (mi). the nurse knows that age-related changes in the cardiovascular system coupled with the mi place the patient at risk for what problem? 1. hypertension 2. heart failure 3. ventricular fibrillation 4. bradycardia quizet
Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system associated with MI put patients at risk for heart failure.
The most common age-related change is increased hardening of the large arteries known as atherosclerosis or hardening of the arteries. This causes hypertension and hypertension, which become more common with age. Resting cardiac output is not affected by age. Maximum cardiac output and aerobic capacity decline with age. There is almost no change in stroke volume with aging. At rest, healthy people may even see a slight increase.Blood pressure is a measure of cardiovascular function. As we age, the structure and function of the heart deteriorate, making us more susceptible to heart failure. As the geriatric population continues to grow, the need for interventions to combat this age-related heart disease becomes more urgent.
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A nurse instructor outlines the criteria establishing nursing as a profession. What teaching point correctly describes this criteria? Select all that apply.a) Nursing is composed of a well-defined body of general knowledgeb) Nursing interventions are dependent upon medical practicec) Nursing is a recognized authority by a professional groupd) Nursing is regulated by the medical industrye) Nursing has a code of ethicsf) Nursing is influenced by ongoing research
The criteria that correctly describes nursing as a profession are: a) Nursing is composed of a well-defined body of general knowledge, c) Nursing is a recognized authority by a professional group, e) Nursing has a code of ethics, and f) Nursing is influenced by ongoing research. These criteria establish nursing as a profession because they demonstrate that nursing has a distinct body of knowledge, is recognized by a professional group, adheres to a code of ethics, and is influenced by ongoing research.
On the other hand, b) Nursing interventions are dependent upon medical practice and d) Nursing is regulated by the medical industry are not correct criteria for establishing nursing as a profession. Nursing interventions are based on the nursing process and are not solely dependent on medical practice. Additionally, nursing is regulated by nursing boards, not the medical industry.
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a nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (crf) have low erythrocyte counts. which response by the nurse is correct? a. 1cdamage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss. 1d b. 1cdialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells. 1d c. 1cerythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys. 1d d. 1cpatients with crf are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin b12. 1d
A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Option C. "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys.", is the response by the nurse is correct.
Erythropoietin is normally produced by peritubular cells in the kidney's proximal tubules, however it is not produced in CRF patients. Erythropoietin enhances red blood cell (RBC) formation; thus, its absence compromises RBC production. Low blood counts in persons with CRF are not caused by blood loss in injured renal tubules. Dialysis has no effect on low blood counts. Patients with CRF are not more likely to be iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12 deficient.
Chronic renal failure (CRF) or chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined as a long-term reduction in renal clearance or glomerular filtration that results in permanent kidney failure. According to the Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) declaration, CKD is defined as either kidney damage or a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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Complete question is:
A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Damage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss."
b. "Dialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells."
c. "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys."
d. "Patients with CRF are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12."
which of the following is not a risk factor for sids? question 4 options: above average birth weight hyperthermia premature birth smoking in the home
Above average birth is not a risk factor for SIDS. Additionally, there are birth-related issues including early birth and low birth weight babies.
According to the definition of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), a newborn under one year of age dies suddenly and for no apparent reason following a comprehensive investigation that includes doing a full autopsy, looking at the death site, and going over the clinical history.
One of the main causes of infant death, SIDS affects newborns and babies from their first month of life until their first birthday. Increased SIDS incidence is linked to pregnancy-related variables. 80–90% of the time, a second child's abrupt death in a family is natural.
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which standard does qsen identify? A. Evidence-based practice B. Informatics C. Nursing research D. Patient-centered care E. Quality Improvement
QSEN identifies multiple standards, including evidence-based practice, informatics, patient-centered care, and quality improvement.
QSEN(Quality and Safety Education for Nurses)
QSEN, which stands for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses, identifies several nursing competencies that are essential to providing safe and effective care to patients.
These competencies include patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics.
Therefore, QSEN identifies multiple standards, including evidence-based practice, informatics, patient-centered care, and quality improvement.
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Files have slanting rows of teeth and rasps have ___ teeth
The clinical term for a headache, or a generalized pain in the region of the head, includes the combining form for head, cephal/a, and the suffix that means "condition of pain."
According to the question, the clinical term for a headache is cephalalgia.
What is headache?
Headache is a type of pain or discomfort in the head, scalp, or neck that is caused by a variety of conditions, such as tension, migraine, sinus, or cluster headaches. Headaches can range from mild to severe and can last anywhere from a few minutes to several days. Common symptoms of a headache include throbbing, pressure, aching, and tightness in the head, as well as symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. Treatments for headaches vary depending on the type and severity of the headache, but can include taking pain relievers, practicing relaxation techniques, aromatherapy, avoiding triggers, and making lifestyle changes.
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you are the nurse manager of a nursing service organization that provides around-the-clock care to clients in their homes. to achieve maximum reimbursement for a client who is recovering from a hip replacement, the nursing staff most likely will follow the nursing care guidelines presented in the:
The nursing staff most likely will follow the nursing care guidelines to achieve maximum reimbursement for a client who is recovering from a hip replacement surgery is critical pathway.
The critical pathways outlines as well as it explains, outcomes, clinical standards, and interventions for a patient in each phase of treatment. The goal and objective of critical pathways is effective coordination of care across various staff and levels of care.
An orthosis for the ankle and foot helps the foot clear the ground by stabilizing the ankle and foot. Early on in the process of rehabilitation, it is frequently prescribed. For customers who have poor balance, canes with three (tripod) or four (quad) prongs or legs to give a wide base of support are advised.
Question: You are the nurse manager of a nursing service organization that provides around-the-clock care to clients in their homes. To achieve maximum reimbursement for a client who is recovering from a hip replacement, the nursing staff most likely will follow the nursing care guidelines presented in the:
a. Nursing care plan.
b. Physician's orders.
c. Critical pathway.
d. Clinical practice guidelines.
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During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?
A. To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media
B. To force the contrast media outside of the joint if there is a tear
C. To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast
D. none of the above; the knee should not be flexed
During an arthrogram, the knee flexed following the injection of contrast media before imaging to coat the soft tissue structures with contrast (option C).
An arthrogram is a type of medical imaging test used to examine the inside of a joint. It involves injecting a contrast dye into the joint, which helps to make the structures inside the joint more visible on an X-ray or MRI scan. This allows doctors to better assess the condition of the joint and diagnose any issues, such as tears or damage to the cartilage, ligaments, or tendons. Arthrograms are often used to evaluate joints such as the shoulder, knee, hip, or wrist.
During an arthrogram of the knee, the knee is flexed following the injection of contrast media in order to coat the soft tissue structures within the joint. This allows for better visualization of the structures during imaging and can help to identify any abnormalities or injuries within the joint.
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a 22-year-old person receives a prescription for oral contraceptives. education for this patient includes:
Education for this patient includes: Counseling regarding decreasing or not smoking while taking oral contraceptives. Option 1 is correct.
The combination oral contraceptive pill, sometimes known as the birth control pill or simply "the pill," is a method of birth control that is taken orally by women. A progestin and estrogen are both included in the tablet.
Oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are hormone-containing drugs that are taken orally. They prevent pregnancy by suppressing ovulation and blocking sperm from passing through the cervix. The most popular form of birth control pill is a monophasic pill. They are "single phase," which means they deliver a consistent amount of hormones throughout the pack.
The complete question is:
A 22-year-old woman receives a prescription for oral contraceptives. Education for this patient includes:
1. Counseling regarding decreasing or not smoking while taking oral contraceptives2. Advising a monthly pregnancy test for the first 3 months she is taking the contraceptive3. Advising that she may miss two pills in a row and not be concerned about pregnancy4. Recommending that her next follow-up visit is in 1 year for a refill and annual examTo learn more about oral contraceptives, here
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9. a client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. a full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. the most important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to ?
The most important reason to elevate the cast was to keep the bone aligned under traction and reduce swelling of the injured leg after the post accidental injury.
Casts are different from splints in that they offer additional support and security for a broken limb. They are constructed from materials that are easily moldable to the contour of the wounded arm or leg, such as plaster or fiberglass.
These casts decrease the likelihood of bone displacement and assist in keeping the bone in place. While reducing post-traumatic edema and keeping the joint in a straight posture, casts are also beneficial.
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how might the resurgence of infectious diseases shift the research perspective of medical sociologists?
The resurgence of infectious diseases may shift the research perspective of medical sociologists to focus their research on the socioeconomic determinants of health, such as poverty, insufficient access to healthcare, or illiteracy, that contribute to the rise of infectious diseases.
The social effects of infectious diseases, such as the stigma attached to various illnesses, the influence of quarantine and contact tracing on people's daily lives, and the psychological affects of coping with a chronic or life-threatening sickness, could also be studied. They could also look at the ways that public health and governmental policies are applied, experienced, and received in various places, as well as how people react to them. Finally, they may look into how the media shapes public perceptions of infectious diseases and how that affects how people react to them. Understanding the social and cultural dynamics of vaccine hesitancy and resistance, as well as the social and economic effects of infectious disease outbreaks on various communities, may also receive more attention in the future.
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a client with a new onset of rib and spine pain is being evaluated for multiple myeloma. for which manifestations will the nurse assess this client? select all that apply.
The client with a new onset of rib and spine pain who is being evaluated for multiple myeloma for which the manifestations will the nurse assess this client with are encourage hydration, prompt management of hypercalcaemia and encourage ambulation.
Preventing bone injury care should be taken by the nurse.The laboratory values the nurse is more likely to see is hypercalcemia. Serum calcium levels of 13.8 mg/dL in the laboratory value most likely responsible for this client's symptoms.
Classic symptoms of multiple myeloma is bone pain in the back of the ribs. To access clients for fractures osteoclasts break dowm bone cells so pathologic fractues occur.
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The correct question is:
the nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of rib and spine pain is being evaluated for multiple myeloma, for which manifestations will the nurse assess this client?
The gallbladder is physically attached to the digestive system but has no role in digestion.
True
False
Which of the following medications is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as an add-on to stimulants in the treatment of ADHD?a. Topiramate (topamax)
b. Obtain a creatine kinase level
c. Quetiapine (seroquel)
d. Extended release guanfacine (Intuniv)
The medication which is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as an add-on to stimulants in the treatment of ADHD is:
Extended release guanfacine (Intuniv)
Extended release guanfacine (Intuniv) is an FDA-approved medicine for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children and adolescents aged 6 to 17 years. It works by influencing the brain's alpha-2A adrenergic receptors, which improves attention, reduces impulsivity, and stabilises mood.
Guanfacine is a non-stimulant medicine that is frequently used in the treatment of ADHD as an alternative or supplement to stimulants. It is often used when stimulants are ineffective or create undesirable side effects.
The other methods listed are not FDA-approved for ADHD therapy. Topiramate (topamax) is an anticonvulsant medicine that is occasionally used off-label to treat ADHD symptoms, although it is not FDA-approved for this purpose. A creatine kinase level is a lab test that may be conducted in some cases, but it is not a drug and is not used to treat ADHD. Quetiapine (seroquel) is an antipsychotic medicine that can be used off-label to treat ADHD symptoms, although it is not authorised by the FDA for this purpose.
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the baby of costello, a middle-aged woman, does not breathe within 5 minutes of delivery, and the doctors are concerned that it may have suffered brain damage owing to
The baby of Costello, who is a middle-aged woman, did not breathe within 5 minutes of the delivery and so the doctors got concerned that the baby may have suffered brain damage owing to anoxia.
Anoxia basically happens when our body or our brain completely loses the oxygen supply. Anoxia is usually a result of hypoxia. This basically means that a part of our body is not getting enough oxygen. When the body is harmed as a result of a lack of oxygen, then it is known as a hypoxic-anoxic injury.
Anoxia may occur in uterus at any time. Anoxia always occurs up to some degree during the process of birth and it may also end up developing after birth. The lack of oxygen may be intermittent or even continuous and can be of either greater or less severity as well as duration.
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What is the difference between constrictive bronchiolitis or obliterative bronchiolitis?
Constrictive bronchiolitis (CB), also known as obliterative bronchiolitis, is an inflammation and fibrosis that primarily affects the walls and surrounding tissues of membranous and respiratory bronchioles, narrowing their lumens as a result.
Inflammation and fibrosis cause bronchiolar lumina to narrow or occlude in obliterative bronchiolitis. The relationship between bronchiolar structural changes and lung function was investigated in 19 patients with a pathological diagnosis of obliterative bronchiolitis. The clinical appearance, lung function tests, and the bronchiolar inflammatory and fibrotic characteristics were associated. Four patients had normal spirometry, however eleven patients experienced airflow limitation. One patient had a restrictive pattern, one had a mixed pattern, two had isolated gas trapping. There was almost always mild-to-moderate bronchiolar irritation. It affected 54% of the adventitia and 60% of the bronchioles subepithelially.
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the nurse instructs a patient with iron deficiency anemia to take ferrous sulfate once a day. which patient response should indicate that teaching was effective?
The correct answer is option A. "I understand I need to take ferrous sulfate once a day to help my iron deficiency anemia."
This response indicates that the patient comprehended the nurse's instruction and is willing to follow it.
This reaction shows that the instruction was successful since the patient now understands the significance of taking ferrous sulphate to assist cure their iron deficient anaemia.
Taking ferrous sulphate on a daily basis will help replace the body's iron levels, which can enhance the patient's general health and minimise anaemic symptoms.
The likelihood that a patient will follow directions and take their prescription as directed increases if they are aware of how important it is to take their medication.
Complete Question:
The nurse instructs a patient with iron deficiency anemia to take ferrous sulfate once a day. which patient response should indicate that teaching was effective?
A. "I understand I need to take ferrous sulfate once a day to help my iron deficiency anemia."
B. "I will make sure to take my ferrous sulfate with food."
C. "I will take my ferrous sulfate at the same time every day."
D. "I will ask my doctor if I can stop taking ferrous sulfate after a few weeks."
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the nurse is caring for an older adult. when preparing for the client's surgery, the nurse needs to remove the client's religious garments but the client refuses. what is the nurse's best action?
When adopting interventions to enhance patients' spiritual wellbeing, nurses should respect their patients' spiritual and religious preferences. The nurse shouldn't push their own opinions on the patient.
Instead, they should respect and pay attention to how the patient expresses their beliefs. The evaluation of a client's spiritual requirements goes beyond a consideration of their religious views; it also takes into account their perception of God as well as their sense of hope, forgiveness, and relationships with others and themselves. By encouraging the patient to engage in spiritual activities like prayer or meditation, the nurse provides spiritual care. Instead of assuming that the client wants time for prayers before breakfast, the nurse should ask the client if they do.
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which of the following is not an anticipated nursing diagnosis for a patient with dka? a. ineffective therapeutic management b. fluid volume excess c. ineffective breathing pattern d. nutrition, less than body requirements, imbalance
The one that is NOT an anticipated nursing diagnosis for a patient with DKA is fluid volume excess. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
Diabetic ketoacidosis, often shortens as DKA, is a diabetes complication in which the body produces excess blood acids. It happens when the body is unable to produce enough insulin, leading to the breakdown of fat to fuel the muscles and other cells in the body. This causes a buildup of ketones, which can lead to DKA if left untreated.
Some symptoms of DKA are:
Being short of breath (ineffective breathing pattern). Having breath that is fruity-scented. Nutrition imbalance. Feeling the need to throw up (and does throw up eventually). Urinating often. Having stomach pain.Learn more about Diabetic ketoacidosis at https://brainly.com/question/28942350
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the nurse is teaching the student nurse how to perform a physical assessment based on the child's developmental stage. which statement accurately describes a recommended guideline for setting the tone of the examination for a school-age child?
Allowing the child to choose the pace and sequence of the health history or any other aspect of the interaction while still allowing the nurse to get the information she needs should be enough to get the child to cooperate.
Children may find a white examination coat or an all-white outfit unsettling because they may correlate it with unpleasant memories or because it is too foreign to them. Instead of making large motions that can terrify timid toddlers, the nurse should make slow, methodical gestures. Initially, the nurse should initiate non-threatening physical contact with the kid by gently shaking hands, placing a hand on the child's head or arm, and briefly snuggling infants before handing them back to caregivers.
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when a client's cells are deprived of oxygen during a cardiact arrest which medication corrects for deleterious efefcts of anaerobic energy production
Clinical outcomes in a number of disorders are influenced by high oxygen tension in blood and/or tissue. As a result, research into the ideal goal PaO2 for individuals recovering from cardiac arrest is considerable.
After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), many individuals experience hypoxic brain damage; this confirms the requirement for oxygen treatment in CA patients. Hypoxic brain damage is caused by insufficient oxygen supply because to reduced blood flow to cerebral tissue during CA. Contrarily, hyperoxia may lead to an increase in the blood's dissolved oxygen concentration and the production of reactive oxygen species, which are detrimental to neuronal cells. It's especially alarming because there was a subsequent brain injury.
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when a client with epilepsy presents with a tonic clonic seizure, the nurse should: a. insert an oral airway and suction to ensure airway patency. b. move objects out of the clients way. c. observe and document the characteristics of the seizure. d. anticipate the need to obtain a blood glucose level. e. support the head and when possible turn the client gently on the side.
A common illness that EMS providers face is seizures, and key responses can have a major impact on patient outcomes . A group of metropolitan medical directors put forth the benchmark of prompt seizure management, which is currently being investigated by the EMS Compass programme as a performance indicator .
During protracted seizures and the postictal period after seizures, oxygenation and breathing may be affected. Here are three things to be aware of about seizures and breathing difficulties. Seizures are typically treated with benzodiazepines, such as Valium (diazepam), as a first line option. Seizures are typically treated with benzodiazepines, such as Valium (diazepam), as a first line option. 5 things to know about respiratory distress and capnographs Utilize capnography as your primary evaluation method
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patient with history of renal impairment is given a medication excreted through the kidneys. how would assess for an adverse reaction
Drug buildup and potential toxicity may occur as a result of decreased drug excretion caused by disorders of the liver or impaired kidney function.
Several medications have enhanced sensitivity even when elimination is unaffected, many side effects are poorly tolerated by individuals with renal-impairment, and some drugs are ineffective when renal function is compromised. Reduced renal excretion of a drug or its metabolites may result in toxicity.
Dialysis is a technique used when the kidneys cease functioning correctly to eliminate waste and extra fluid from the circulation. Blood is frequently directed to a cleaning machine in this process. The kidney can eliminate drugs passively through glomerular filtration or actively through tubular secretion.
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