when the opportunity cost of lost revenue is relatively high,_____become(s) relatively more attractive.

More massive stars emit more energy and run out of hydrogen fuel in their cores faster.

In order to create helium and energy, hydrogen nuclei must fuse. The procedure uses hydrogen as its fuel. As the hydrogen is depleted, the star's core condenses and warms up further. As a result, all the elements up to iron are formed through the fusing of heavier and heavier elements.

Nuclear fusion is how stars generate their energy. This process, known as the "proton-proton chain," which involves a series of events that turns four hydrogen atoms into one helium atom, dominates for the majority of stars.

To know more about stars you may visit the link:

https://brainly.com/question/21521087

#SPJ4

The mass flow rate can be given as [tex]V=S[\frac{u_y}{2}-\frac{H^3}{12m}\frac{\delta p}{\delta x}][/tex] and when H=0 then net flow rate will be zero.

Given,

upper plate velocity = [tex]u_{s1}[/tex]

opposite plate velocity = [tex]u_{s2}[/tex]

The total velocity between the plates will be

[tex]u_y=u_{s1}+u_{s2}[/tex]

Flow rate is the velocity integrated over an area,

[tex]Q=\int \overline u \hat n \ dA[/tex]

The equation above is only valid for a flat, plane area. In general, including curved areas, the equation becomes a surface integral.

The areas would be cross-sectional.The area of a liquid passing through a pipe is the cross-section of the pipe at the section under consideration. The magnitude of the area through which the mass passes, A, and a unit vector normal to the area combine to form the vector area.

The mass flow rate ,

[tex]V=SQ=S\int\limits^H_0 \int\limits^L_0 u(y)dzdy\\\\=SL\int\limits^H_0u(y)dy\\\\\frac{V}{L}=S\int\limits^H_0[\frac{1}{2m}\frac{\delta p}{\delta x}(y^2-Hy)+\frac{u_y}{H}]dy\\\\=\frac{S}{2M}\frac{\delta p}{\delta x}(\frac{H^3}{3}-\frac{H^3}{2})+\frac{u_y}{2}[/tex]

The mass flow rate for unit width is

[tex]V=S[\frac{u_y}{2}-\frac{H^3}{12m}\frac{\delta p}{\delta x}][/tex]

if H=0 then net flow rate will be zero.

To learn more about mass flow rate refer here

https://brainly.com/question/28493774

#SPJ4

The angular acceleration is 0.19 and the number of turns is 41.07 revolutions.

m = 87 kg be the mass of the grindstone,

r = 0.35 m be the radius of the grindstone,

I = mr²/2 be the grindstone's moment of inertia,

ω = 95 revolution/min = 95 2π/60s = 9.9 s-1 be initial angular velocity,

F = 15 N be the force pressing radially,

f = 0.2 be the coefficient of friction,

α (unknown) be the grindstones angular acceleration.

a)The tangential force slowing the grindstone is

fF

Its torque is

rfF

By Newton's Second Law

rfF = Iα

Therefore

α = rfF/I = 2rfF/mr² = 2fF/mr

Substituting actual numbers

α = 2×0.2×15/(87×0.35) = 0.19 s-2

Note that the above is the absolute value of the acceleration.

Depending on which direction is considered positive or negative,

the answer may need to be negated.

b)

Let

t be the time it takes the grindstone to come to rest,

θ be the total angle by which the grindstone will turn before coming to rest.We have the following identities, which follow from the definition of acceleration:

ω = αt

θ = αt²/2

From the first

t = ω/α

Plug into the second

θ = α(ω/α)²/2 = ω²/2α

Substitute actual numbers

θ = 9.9²/2×0.19 = 257.92

The above result is in radians.

Since the result is supposed to be given in revolutions,

we need to divide by the number of radians per revolutions:

257.92/2π = 41.07 revolutions

Therefore, the angular acceleration is 0.19 and the number of turns is 41.07 revolutions.

To learn more about torque refer here

https://brainly.com/question/20691242

#SPJ4

The boundary layer thickness is 7.92 x 10^(-3) m.

A) Formula for Reynolds number to reflect this question is given as;

R_e = Vx/v

Where;

V is velocity

x is polar coordinate where the boundary layer will become turbulent.

R_e is reynolds number.

Reynolds number for turbulent flow of flat plates has a value of 5 x 10^(5)

v is kinematic velocity

From water tables at standard conditions, kinematic viscosity is 1.12 x 10^(-6) m²/s

Now, R_e = Vx/v

We are looking for x, so let's make x the subject.

x = v•R_e/V

Thus, plugging in the relevant values to obtain;

x = [1.12 x 10^(-6) x 5 x 10^(5)]/0.5

x = 1.12m

The boundary layer thickness at the point where the flow becomes turbulent is given by;

δ = 5√(vx/V)

Where;

V is velocity

x is polar coordinate where the boundary layer will become turbulent.

R_e is reynolds number.

Reynolds number for turbulent flow of flat plates has a value of 5 x 10^(5)

v is kinematic velocity

Plugging in the relevant values to get ;

δ = 5√(1.12 x 10^(-6)•1.12/0.5)

δ = 5√(2.5088 x 10^(-6)

δ = 7.92 x 10^(-3) m

Therefore, the boundary layer thickness is 7.92 x 10^(-3) m.

To learn know more about thickness, refer: https://brainly.com/question/15797129

#SPJ4

The answer is e-10³⁰.

Solution:

The expression for find transmission co-efficient is

[tex]T = e^{-2CL}[/tex]

Substitute values in the above equation

T = e -2(2.5-10³²)(2×10⁻³)

= e -10×10²⁹

≈ e-10³⁰

Magnitude estimation is a psychophysical method by which participants judge the perceived strength of a stimulus and assign a numerical estimate. Magnitude is an exponential change of plus or minus one in the value of a quantity or unit. The term is commonly used in relation to the 10th power scientific notation.

Magnitude is used to make the size of numbers and the scale of things more intuitive and understandable. A rough estimate of size helps the project manager estimate a rough figure for the total cost of the project. The approximate financial impact of future projects. Change the precision as needed.

Learn more about Magnitude estimation here:- https://brainly.com/question/26279305

#SPJ4

The wavelength in a vacuum is 5.08 x 10-7  m and the wavelength of the light in the glass is 3.367 x 10-7  m

As we know that

 Velocity = wavelength x frequency

So,    wavelength = Velocity / frequency

If the light travels in a vacuum,

Then,    wavelength = speed of light/frequency

Here  the frequency is 5.9 x1014 Hz  

And the speed of light = 3 x 10 8 m/s

So, wavelength in vacuum = 3 x 10 8 / 5.9 x1014

    = 5.08 x 10-7  m

Again,  the wavelength of the light in the glass

 λ=c/μn            where μ is a block of glass that has an index of refraction

Then  λ=(3 x 10 8 )/(1.51x5.9 x1014 )            

 = 3.367 x 10-7  m

To know more about wavelength, click the below link

https://brainly.com/question/13533093?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ4

The wavelength λ of the laser is 632.8 nm and the index of refraction for this mystery fluid is 1.329.

Refraction can change the wavelength of light or sound as it travels through a medium with a density greater than that of air. The wavelength reduces as a result of the wave's decreasing speed as it moves through the denser medium. If the wave travels faster when in a rarer medium, the wavelength rises. Because the speed and, consequently, the wavelength of the wave are lowered while traveling through the denser media, the index of refraction is greater for the denser medium than the rarer one.

An interferometer is a device that employs the interference phenomena to calculate the wavelength of light in terms of a standard length or the distance in terms of the wavelength of light that is already known. Through partial reflection and transmission, light from an extended source is split into two halves. The two directions in which these two beams are transmitted are at right angles to one another. They are noticed and studied as interference fringes that are created when they are reflected off the mirror.The angle between mirrors M1 and M2 determines how the fringes in the Michelson interferometer are shaped. Let S' be the replica of the source S, and let M2 be the virtual replica of mirror M1.Let D represent the distance between the mirror M1 and its virtual counterpart, M2'. As a result, the air film that is enclosed between M1 and M2' is what will cause the interference pattern to appear. Let S1' and S2' represent the respective Saras M1 and M2's photos.As a result of the amplitude division process, we are able to produce two coherent sources, S1' and S2'.

A)

2D = nλ

2 x 0.03164 x 10^-3 = 100 x λ

Wavelength, λ = 632.8 nm

B)

2D = n λ

2 x 0.02381 x 10^-3 = 100 λ

Wavelength,λ = 476.2 nm

Refractive index =λ₁/λ₂

Thus,

Refractive index = 632.8/476.2 = 1.329

To know more about refraction index refer ;

https://brainly.com/question/23750645

#SPJ4

Answer:

The acceleration of the luggage is:

a = (33.3 N - 12.3 N) / 50.0 kg = 0.466 m/s²

Explanation:

pls make this a brainly!

When something bounces off a wall or other object, reflection happens. Following the rule of reflection, waves are reflected off of straight boundaries.

Reflection

When light reflects off of something, it does so. The light will reflect at the same angle it struck the surface if the surface is smooth and shining, such as glass, water, or polished metal.

Echoes. A sound that is repeated as a result of sound waves being reflected back is known as an echo. The way a rubber ball bounces off the ground is the same way that sound waves can bounce off smooth, hard things.

To know more about bouncing back of a light ray visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/20499580

#SPJ4

The velocity of the cart (with cannon) after the ball is fired is u₂ = Mv - mVb / ( M - m(ball) ).

option A is the correct answer.

The law of conservation of linear momentum states that the sum of the initial momentum is equal to sum of the final momentum, provided that the system is Isolated.

Mathematically, the law of conservation of linear momentum is given as;

Pi = Pf

where;

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = v ( m₁ + m₂ )

where;

Mass of the cannon ball  +  cart = M

mass of the cart only, m₂ = M - m(ball)

The final velocity of the cart  is calculated as follows;

mVb + m₂u₂ =  Mv

m₂u₂ = Mv - mVb

u₂ = Mv - mVb / m₂

u₂ =  ( Mv - mVb ) / ( M - m(ball) )

Learn more about linear momentum here: brainly.com/question/7538238

#SPJ1

An express magnitude is a positive number and angle between. ±180∘.  v1 = ∠ ∘ V.

Nodal stress analysis complements the previous mesh analysis in that it is equally powerful and based on the same concepts as matrix analysis. As the name suggests, node voltage analysis uses Kirchhoff's first law node equation to find the voltage potential around a circuit.

When we use the term node voltage, we are referring to the potential difference between two nodes in a circuit. Select one of the nodes in your circuit as the reference node. All other node voltages are measured with respect to this one reference node.

Learn more about nodal voltages here:-https://brainly.com/question/25664639

#SPJ4

(a) Refer to part (a)

(b) Refer to part (b)

(c) [tex]nr^{n-1}\bold{\hat{r}}[/tex]

To answer the questions, I will show the derivations of each part by applying vector calculus methods such as the gradient operator, denoted by '▽', to the given quantities. I will use the definition of the gradient operator in Cartesian coordinates to solve each part.

Given:

[tex]\bold{r} = (x-x')\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')\hat{k}; \ r=\sqrt{ (x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2}[/tex]

Show that:

(a) [tex]\nabla (r^2)=2 \bold{r}[/tex]

(b)[tex]\nabla (1/r)=- \bold{\hat{r}}/r^2[/tex]

(c) What is the general formula for [tex]\nabla (r^n)[/tex]?

[tex]\hrulefill[/tex]

The gradient operator in Cartesian coordinates is:

[tex]\nabla = \hat{\imath}\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}+ \hat{k}\dfrac{\partial}{\partial y}+ \hat{\jmath}\dfrac{\partial}{\partial z}[/tex]

The square of the vector length is given by:

[tex]\Longrightarrow r^2 = [(x-x')\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')\hat{k}]^2\\\\\\\\\Longrightarrow r^2 = (x-x')^2\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')^2\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')^2\hat{k}[/tex]

Now, applying the gradient operator to 'r²':

[tex]\Longrightarrow \nabla r^2 = \\\\\bullet \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}[(x-x')^2\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')^2\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')^2\hat{k}]=2(x-x')\\\\\bullet \dfrac{\partial}{\partial y}[(x-x')^2\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')^2\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')^2\hat{k}] = 2(y-y')\\\\\bullet\dfrac{\partial}{\partial z}[(x-x')^2\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')^2\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')^2\hat{k}] =2(z-z')\\\\\\\\\therefore \nabla r^2=2(x-x')\hat{\imath}+ 2(y-y')\hat{\jmath} + 2(z-z')\hat{k}\\\\\\\\[/tex]

Factoring out a 2:

[tex]\Longrightarrow \nabla r^2=2[(x-x')\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')\hat{k}]\\\\\\\\\therefore \boxed{\nabla r^2=2 \bold{r}}[/tex]

[tex]\hrulefill[/tex]

The length 'r' is given by:

[tex]r=\sqrt{ (x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2}[/tex]

Now applying the gradient operator to 1/r:

[tex]\dfrac{1}{r}=((x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2)^{-1/2}[/tex]

[tex]\nabla \dfrac{1}{r} =\\\\\bullet \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}[((x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2)^{-1/2}]=-(x-x')[(x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2]^{-3/2}\\\\\bullet\dfrac{\partial}{\partial y}[((x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2)^{-1/2}]=-(y-y')[(x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2]^{-3/2} \\\\\bullet\dfrac{\partial}{\partial z}[((x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2)^{-1/2}]=-(z-z')[(x-x')^2+(y-y')^2+(z-z')^2]^{-3/2}[/tex]

[tex]\Longrightarrow \nabla \dfrac{1}{r} = - \dfrac{(x-x')\hat{\imath}+ (y-y')\hat{\jmath} + (z-z')\hat{k}}{[(x-x')^2+ (y-y')^2 + (z-z')^2]^{3/2}}[/tex]

[tex]\Longrightarrow \nabla \dfrac{1}{r} = -\dfrac{\bold{r}}{r^3}; \ \text{Where:} \ \bold{\hat{r}} =\dfrac{\bold{r}}{r} \rightarrow \bold{r}=\bold{\hat{r}}\cdot r \\\\\\\\\Longrightarrow \nabla \dfrac{1}{r} = -\dfrac{ \bold{\hat{r}} \cdot r}{r^3}\\\\\\\\\therefore \boxed{\nabla \dfrac{1}{r} = \dfrac{\bold{-\hat{r}}}{r^2}}[/tex]

[tex]\hrulefill[/tex]

The general formula is as follows:

[tex]\Longrightarrow \nabla(r^n)=\dfrac{\partial}{\partial r}[r^n] \bold{\hat{r}} \\\\\\\\\therefore \boxed{\nabla(r^n)=nr^{n-1}\bold{\hat{r}}}[/tex]

Answer:

B: 2 kg.

Explanation:

To find the mass of an object given its momentum and velocity, you can use the following formula:

mass = momentum / velocity

In this case, the momentum of the ball is 18 kg*m/s and its velocity is 9 1 m/s, so the mass of the ball is:

mass = 18 kg*m/s / 9 1 m/s

= 2 kg

Therefore, the correct answer is B: 2 kg.

The Mountain range will have a mountain deep that extends deep into the mantle.

A mantle is a layered interior of a planetary frame bounded underneath through a core and above by using a crust. Mantles are made of rock or ice and are commonly the largest and most massive layer of the planetary body.

It's far more frequently solid rock, but less viscous at tectonic plate obstacles and mantle plumes. Mantle rocks there are smooth and able to pass plastically at great depth and stress. The transfer of heat and material in the mantle helps decide the panorama of Earth.

The basic styles of mantle substances consist of stone, vintage, timber, and forged stone.

Learn more about Mantle here:https://brainly.com/question/13857096

$SPJ4

The metal rod's moment of inertia, Ml²/12, has a midway that is equal to 3k/M.

A line that cuts through the intersection of two adjacent line segments at a right angle is known as a perpendicular bisector. In other words, a perpendicular bisector always splits a line segment through its middle. The word "bisect" itself refers to an even or uniform division.

A line that is perpendicular to a triangle's side and travels through the middle of that side is said to be the perpendicular bisector of that side. The circumcenter of a triangle is where the triangle's three perpendicular bisectors meet (the center of the circle through the three vertices). A line segment is a perpendicular bisector when it encounters another line segment at a straight angle and divides it into two equal halves at its halfway.

When the rod is twisted at an angle, the spring is squeezed by a tiny distance.

springs, which add force

= k x

torque moment about an axis

= k x l /2

= k θ( l /2 )² ( x / .5 l = θ )

Angular acceleration times the rod's moment of inertia equals the moment of torque.

M l2 / 12 d2 / dt2 = k (l /2)2

d²θ/dt² = 3 k/M θ

acceleration equals two.

ω² = 3 k/M

ω = √ 3 k / M

To learn more about midpoint and perpendicular refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/15601321

#SPJ1

The magnitude and direction of its momentum are 23259.5 kg*m/s. and eastward direction respectively.

Its velocity is 10.66 m/s

To find the magnitude and direction of the momentum of the compact car, we can use the formula for momentum, which is defined as the product of an object's mass and velocity:

momentum = mass * velocity

In this case, the mass of the compact car is 725 kg and its velocity is 115 km/h. Converting the velocity to meters per second (m/s) by dividing by 3.6 gives us a velocity of 31.94 m/s.

Plugging these values into the formula above gives us a momentum of 23259.5 kg*m/s.

The direction of the momentum is the same as the direction of the velocity, which in this case is toward the east. Therefore, we can represent the momentum of the compact car as an arrow pointing eastward.

To find the velocity of the second car, we can use the formula for momentum and solve for velocity:

velocity = momentum / mass

In this case, the mass of the second car is 2175 kg and its momentum is the same as that of the compact car, which we calculated to be 23259.5 kg*m/s. Plugging these values into the formula above gives us a velocity of 10.66 m/s.

Note that the velocity of the second car is much lower than that of the compact car, despite having the same momentum. This is because the second car has a much larger mass, so it takes a larger force to change its momentum by a given amount.

Therefore, the correct answer is as given above

learn more about momentum: https://brainly.com/question/402617

#SPJ1

The physical quantity that does the slope of the v2/2 v/s h graph represent is the slope-g. The slope is representing the change in v over the change in time.

By definition, that is the acceleration. Also extra than only a gimmick, it is geometry's manner of displaying us how variables now no longer most effective relate to 1 another, however how they are able to constitute the fee of alteration among the variables.

The slope of the displacement time graph offers us the bodily amount called pace. The slope of a pace graph represents an object's acceleration. As a result, the cost of the slope at a given time represents the object's acceleration at that time. The fee of changing of an object's pace with admire to time is described as acceleration.

Learn more about velocity-time graph here https://brainly.com/question/24191409

#SPJ

Answer: When the light hits the water, it causes the light to slow down, and when it does this, the light changes directions.

Explanation:

The value of F CA = 4500 NC. The fundamental difference between compression and tension is that compression represents forces meant to shorten a body, whereas tension describes forces designed to prolong a body.

A rope bridge may support both the load it carries and itself by using tension forces that pull and stretch material in opposing directions. A rock arch bridge carries a load by pressing its rocks against one another due to compression forces that squeeze and push material inward.

One that pulls materials apart is a tension force. When material is compressed, it gets squeezed together. Some materials are more resilient to compression, some to tension, and some are suitable for usage when both compression and tension are present.

Efforts to distort an object are called tension and compression forces. The basic distinction between tension and compression is that tension describes forces intended to lengthen a body, whereas compression describes forces intended to shorten the body.

Support Reactions: Entire truss:

[tex]+\Sigma F_x=0: \quad B_x=0 \\[/tex]

[tex]+{ }_{+} \Sigma M_C=0: \quad-B_y(400 \mathrm{~mm})-(1200 \mathrm{~N})(500 \mathrm{~mm})=0 \\[/tex]

[tex]B_y=-1500 \mathrm{~N} \quad \mathbf{B}_y=1500 \mathrm{~N} \\[/tex]

[tex]+\left\lceil\Sigma F_y=0: \quad-1500 \mathrm{~N}-1200 \mathrm{~N}+C=0\right. \\[/tex]

C = 2700 N

Free body: Joint B:

[tex]$\frac{F_{B A}}{13}=\frac{F_{B C}}{12}=\frac{1500 \mathrm{~N}}{5} .[/tex]

[tex]$\begin{array}{r}F_{B A}=3900 \mathrm{~N} \\ \\ F_{B C}=3600 \mathrm{~N} C\end{array}$[/tex]

simplifying the above equation, we get

[tex]$\frac{F_{C A}}{5}=\frac{2700 \mathrm{~N}}{3}$[/tex]

Therefore, the value of [tex]$F_{C A}=4500 \mathrm{~N} C$[/tex]

The complete question is:

Using the method of joints, determine the force in each member of the truss shown. State whether each member is in tension or compression.

To learn more about tension and compression refer to;

https://brainly.com/question/7036550

#SPJ4

The angle between the two vectors is 59 degrees.

The angle between the two vectors is calculated by applying the following equation as shown below.

Mathematically, the formula for angle between two vectors is given as;

tan θ = Vy / Vx

where;

The resultant vertical vector is calculated as follows;

∑ Vy = ( 1 + 4 ) = 5 y

The resultant horizontal vector is calculated as follows;

∑ Vx = ( -4 + 1 ) = -3x

The angle between the two vectors is calculated as follows;

tan θ = Vy / Vx

tan θ = 5 / 3

tan θ = 1.667

θ = arc tan ( 1.667 )

θ = 59 degrees

Thus, the angle between the two vectors is a function of the resultant vertical and horizontal vector.

Learn more about angle between vectors here: https://brainly.com/question/25661248

#SPJ1

The velocity with which the jumper leaves the floor is 5.1 m/s.

The initial velocity of the jumper or the velocity with which the jumper leaves the floor is calculated by applying the principle of conservation of energy as shown below.

Kinetic energy of the jumper at the floor = Potential energy of the jumper at the maximum height

¹/₂mv² = mgh

v² = 2gh

v = √2gh

where;

v = √(2 x 9.8 x 1.3)

v = 5.1 m/s

Learn more about initial velocity here: https://brainly.com/question/19365526
#SPJ1

Speed of the spacecraft right before the collision:[tex]\sqrt{} \frac{2G.Me}{Re}[/tex] .

Assumption: the earth is exactly spherical with a uniform density.

This question could be solved using the conservation of energy.

The mechanical energy of this spacecraft is the sum of:

the kinetic energy of this spacecraft, and

the (gravitational) potential energy of this spacecraft.

[tex]GPE=\frac{G.Me.M}{R}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{} \frac{2KE}{M}[/tex]=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{2G.Me}{Re} }[/tex]

To learn more about spacecraft refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/19633923

#SPJ1

.

The graph that best represents the relationship between the gravitational potential energy of a freely falling object and the object's height above the ground is the last graph.

What is Gravitational potential energy ?

Gravitational potential energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position. The formula is expressed as:

E = mgh

m is the mass of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height of the object

Note that the formula shows that the gravitational potential energy is directly proportional to the height of the object

This direct proportionality shows that the required graph will have a positive slope.

This shows that the graph that best represents the relationship between the gravitational potential energy of a freely falling object and the object's height above the ground is the last graph.

To learn more about acceleration due to gravity visit:https://brainly.com/question/13860566

#SPJ4

The Gravitational potential energy depends on mass , acceleration and path and potential also as G=V/m.

a).  As you can imagine, gravitational energy is the energy associated with gravity. This is the potential energy stored due to an object being in a higher position compared to a lower position. (e.g. far from the ground or close to the ground).

Gravitational energy is the energy associated with gravity.

b). Systems can increase their gravitational energy as their mass moves away from the center of the Earth and away from other bodies (such as the sun, planets, and stars) large enough to generate a large amount of gravity. there is.

Potential energy can be defined as the amount of work expended to lift an object from the ground to its current height. In another sense, this is the amount of work the body does before returning to ground level (the position of maximum stability) when translated from its current level. Therefore, potential energy can be related to work.

c). A negative sign indicates that gravity is doing positive work as the mass approaches. A negative potential indicates a bonding state. That is, when mass is placed under its influence, it becomes trapped in its potential, and if something can provide the energy to escape the clutches of gravity, it must not escape.

To study more on Gravitational potential energy -

https://brainly.com/question/15978356

#SPJ4

a)  The acceleration of the proton is  6.4×10¹⁰  m/s².

b)  Time taken is 1.875×10⁻⁵ second .

c)  It moved in this time is 11.25 meter.

d)  its kinetic energy is  1.15×10⁻¹⁵ Joule.

The force per unit charge exerted on a positive test charge that is at rest at a given position is the force per unit charge that is used to define the electric field analytically.

uniform electric field: E = 640 N/C.

its speed is: v= 1.20 x 10⁶ m/s

a)  the acceleration of the proton = qE/m

= (1.6×10⁻¹⁹×641)/(1.6×10⁻²⁷) m/s²

= 6.4×10¹⁰  m/s²

b) Time taken = (1.20 x 10⁶ / 6.4×10¹⁰)second = 1.875×10⁻⁵ second .

c)   it moved in this time = ( 1.20 x 10⁶×1.875×10⁻⁵ )/2 meter = 11.25 meter.

d)  its kinetic energy = mv²/2 =  (1.6×10⁻²⁷)(1.20 x 10⁶)²/2 joule = 1.15×10⁻¹⁵ Joule.

Learn more about electric fields here:

https://brainly.com/question/8971780

#SPJ1

The wave is traveling in the negative x direction.The wave speed is 12.0m/s.The frequency is 5HzThe wavelength is 2.4m.The displacement is 0.029m.

The general wave equation is given by;

y(x, t) = y cos (2(x/λ) - 2ft)    --------------------------------(i)

y(x, t) is the displacement of the wave at position x and a given time t

y(x, t) = (3.0 cm) × cos[2π(x/(2.4 m) + t/(0.20 s))]   ------------------(ii)

Which can be re-written as;

y(x, t) = (3.0 cm) × cos[2π(x/(2.4 m)) + 2π(t/(0.20 s))]  -------------(iii)

Comparing equations (i) and (iii) we have that;

=> 2π(x/(2.4 m) = 2π(x/λ)

=> λ = 2.4m

Therefore the wavelength of the wave is 2.4m

Also, still comparing the two equations;

=> 2π(t/(0.20 s) = 2πft

=> f = 1 / 0.20

=> f = 5Hz

Therefore the frequency of the wave is 5Hz

To get the wave speed (v), it is given by;

v = f x λ

Where f = 5Hz and λ = 2.4m

=> v = 5 x 2.4

=> v = 12.0m/s

Therefore, the speed of the wave is 12.0m/s

At t = 0.50s and x = 0.20m;

The displacement, y(x,t) of the string wave is given by

y(x, t) = (3.0 cm) × cos[2π(x/(2.4 m) + t/(0.20 s))]

Convert the amplitude of 3.0cm to m

=> 3.0cm = 0.03m

Carefully solve the equation

=> y(x, t) = (0.03m) × cos[2π((0.20)/(2.4 m)) + 2π(0.50/(0.20 s))]

=> y(x, t) = (0.03m) × -0.9684

=> y(x, t) = 0.029m

Therefore the displacement at those points is -0.029m

Also, the sign of the displacement shows that the direction of the wave is in the negative x direction.

To learn more about displacement refer

https://brainly.com/question/14696962

#SPJ1

The wave bounces off an item when there is a reflection kind of wave interaction.

When waves strike a surface and rebound, reflection occurs. When a wave encounters a surface, it might reflect in all directions. For instance, visible light bounces off the surfaces it encounters. Your eyes receive the reflected light, which makes it possible for you to see the objects.

When two or more waves collide, interaction occurs. Wave interference is the term used to describe how waves interact with one another. Wave interference may occur when two waves that are traveling in opposite directions meet. The two waves pass through each other, and this affects their amplitude.

To know more about wave  visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/3639648

#SPJ4

Momentum of any system is constant in all over elastic collisions, but momentum for the system doesn't lost during inelastic collisions. so it's False.

An elastic collision is a collision wherein there's no internet loss in kinetic power withinside the gadget because of the collision. Both momentum and kinetic power are conserved portions in elastic collisions. Suppose comparable trolleys are journeying closer to every different with identical speed. They collide, bouncing off every different without a loss in speed. This collision is flawlessly elastic due to the fact no power has been misplaced.

In reality, examples of flawlessly elastic collisions aren't a part of our ordinary experience. Some collisions among atoms in gases are examples of flawlessly elastic collisions. However, there are a few examples of collisions in mechanics wherein the power misplaced may be negligible. These collisions may be considered elastic, despite the fact that they may be now no longer flawlessly elastic. Collisions of inflexible billiard balls or the balls in a Newton's cradle are such examples.

To learn more about momentum, refer: brainly.com/question/786328

#SPJ4

The metals on the basis of the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is Cesium > potasium > Beryllium = aluminum = Megnesium = Platinum.

From Einstein photo electic effect equation

E = 3.1 eV

E = Wo+ Kmax

Kmax = E - Wo

For Be:  E< Wo, Kmax =  0

There is no emission of photo electron

For K : Kmax = 3.1 -2.3 = 0.8 eV

For Al : E< Wo, Kmax =  0

There is no emission of photo electron

For  Mg: E< Wo, Kmax =  0

There is no emission of photo electron

For Cs: Kmax = 3.1 -2.1 = 1.0 eV

For Pt : E< Wo, Kmax =  0

There is no emission of photo electron

Cesium > potasium > Beryllium = aluminum = Megnesium = Platinum

Einstein photo electic effect:

Einstein said that energy is a beam of particles related to frequency according to Planck's formula. When this beam is directed at a metal, photons collide with atoms. If the photon frequency is high enough to knock off an electron, the collision will produce the photoelectric effect.

Learn more about Einstein photo electic effect here:

https://brainly.com/question/2028272

#SPJ4