Which energy yield is likely to have come from a fission or fusion reaction?
A) 1.4×1011 kJ/mol
B) 1.0×102 kJ/mol
C) 1.2×103 kJ/mol
D) 2.5×102 kJ/mol

Answers

Answer 1

Energy yield refers to the amount of energy produced or obtained from a specific process or source. The energy yield of 1.4 × 11¹¹ kJ/mol is likely to have come from a fission or fusion reaction.

The energy yields mentioned in the options are quite high, indicating the likelihood of them being associated with nuclear reactions such as fission or fusion. However, to determine which one is more likely to come from a fission or fusion reaction, we need to consider the typical energy ranges associated with these processes.

Fission reactions typically release energy in the range of millions to billions of electron volts (MeV to GeV), which corresponds to a few hundred kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol) to millions of kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol). Fusion reactions, on the other hand, release energy in the range of millions to billions of kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol) or even higher.

Among the given options, option A) 1.4 × 11¹¹ kJ/mol has the lowest energy yield. This value is relatively low compared to the typical energy releases from fission or fusion reactions. While it is not possible to conclusively determine the specific reaction based on energy yield alone, option D) is less likely to be associated with a fission or fusion reaction due to its relatively low energy yield.

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Related Questions

An electron moves along the trajectory from i to f as shown. Does the electric potential energy increase, decrease or stay the same? Explain. Is the electron's speed at f greater than, less than or equal to its speed at i? Explain.

Answers

The electric potential energy decreases and the electron's speed at f is greater than its speed at i.

The electric potential energy of a charged particle is given by the equation U = qV, where U is the potential energy, q is the charge of the particle, and V is the electric potential. In this case, as the electron moves along the trajectory from i to f, the electric potential decreases. This means that the electric potential energy of the electron decreases as well.

To further explain, electric potential is a measure of the electric potential energy per unit charge at a given point in space. When the electric potential decreases, it means that the amount of electric potential energy per unit charge is decreasing. As a result, the electric potential energy of the electron decreases as it moves along the trajectory.

Regarding the speed of the electron, we can apply the conservation of mechanical energy. As the electric potential energy decreases, the total mechanical energy of the electron remains constant. The total mechanical energy is the sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy. Since the potential energy decreases, the kinetic energy must increase to maintain the constant total mechanical energy.

This increase in kinetic energy corresponds to an increase in the electron's speed at f compared to its speed at i. Therefore, the electron's speed at f is greater than its speed at i.

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Two ropes have equal length and are stretched the same way. The speed of a pulse on rope 1 is 1.4 times the speed on rope 2. Determine the ratio of the masses of the two ropes

Answers

The tension in the rope and the linear mass density of the rope influence the speed of a pulse on the rope. The mass per unit length of the rope is known as the linear mass density.

Let's assume that ropes 1 and 2 have linear mass densities of 1 and 2, respectively. Both ropes have the same amount of tension. The equation: gives the speed of a pulse on a rope. v = √(T/μ),

where is the linear mass density and T is the tension. This equation allows us to express the pulse rate on ropes 1 and 2 as: v1 = √(T/μ1), v2 = √(T/μ2).

Thus, The tension in the rope and the linear mass density of the rope influence the speed of a pulse on the rope. The mass per unit length of the rope is known as the linear mass density.

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a cannonball is launched horizontally from a tower. if the cannonball has a velocity of 60 m/s on leaving the barrel, where will the cannonball be 1 second later? (no air resistance)

Answers

The equation used to find the position of a projectile at any time during its flight is x = V0xt.

This equation will help us find the location of the cannonball one second after it is fired.

Here, we need to find the horizontal distance the cannonball has traveled after one second. Let's put the values of the velocity (V0) and time (t) in the equation of x = V0xt.

Hence, x = 60 x 1. Thus, the cannonball will have traveled 60 meters horizontally after one second of being fired from the cannon tower.

Therefore, we can conclude that the cannonball will land 60 meters away from the cannon tower after one second of being fired if there is no air resistance.

When a cannonball is fired horizontally from a tower, the horizontal distance the cannonball will travel before landing can be calculated using the following equation:

x = V0xt, where x is the horizontal distance the cannonball will travel, V0 is the velocity of the cannonball, and t is the time it will take for the cannonball to reach its landing point.In the given problem, we need to find the location of the cannonball one second after it is fired.

The problem states that the velocity of the cannonball when it leaves the barrel is 60 m/s, and air resistance is not present. Let's put the values of the velocity (V0) and time (t) in the equation of x = V0xt.

Hence, x = 60 x 1. Thus, the cannonball will have traveled 60 meters horizontally after one second of being fired from the cannon tower.

Therefore, we can conclude that the cannonball will land 60 meters away from the cannon tower after one second of being fired if there is no air resistance.

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hadleyhanna702

18 hours ago

Physics

High School

answered

Finally: Create your own problem, show your math work solving for it, and compare Force acting upon a

mass(kg) given two different speeds(time in seconds) in which a collision takes place:

Pick a mass in

kilograms

Pick a Velocity in

meters per second to

decelerate from

Calculate initial

momentum of the

object

Pick a fast

deceleration

Pick a slower

deceleration

What Force acts on

the mass in the faster

deceleration? (Show

your work and include

correct final units)

What Force acts on

the mass in the slower

daralaration? (Show

E.g. I have a mass of about 82.0kg, a

new popular cell phone has a mass of

0.204kg.

E.g. I'm going 55m/h which equals 24.6

m/s

P=mv

P=82kg x 24.6 m/s

P=2020 kg*m/s

E.g. I'm NOT wearing my seatbelt and I

crash into a wall coming to 0 m/s in just

0.20 seconds

E.g. I am wearing my seatbelt and my

velocity changes over 0.91 seconds.

Fet=P-Pâ/t

F=(0 kg*m/s-2020 kg*m/s)/0.2s

F=-2020 kg*m/s +0.20s

Force =-10,000 Newtons (or

kg*m/s)

Fret=Pr-Pâ/t

F=(0 kg*m/s-2020 kg*m/s)/0.91s

C-30306/001

Answers

The force acting upon a mass in a collision depends on the mass, velocity, and deceleration involved.

What is the force acting on the mass in the faster deceleration?

To calculate the force acting on the mass, we need to use the equation F = (P - P₀) / t, where F is the force, P is the initial momentum, P₀ is the final momentum, and t is the time taken for the deceleration.

Let's assume the mass of the object is 10 kg. We'll pick a velocity of 20 m/s to decelerate from.

Calculate initial momentum:

P = m * v

P = 10 kg * 20 m/s

P = 200 kg·m/s

Pick a fast deceleration:

Let's assume the object comes to rest in 2 seconds.

Calculate the force:

F = (P - P₀) / t

F = (200 kg·m/s - 0 kg·m/s) / 2 s

F = 100 kg·m/s²

F = 100 N

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In figure take into account the speed of the tank and show that the speed of fluid leaving the opening a the bottom is

v 1 = 2gh/(1−A 12 /A 22 )

​where h= y2 −y1 and A1 and A 2 are the areas of the opening and the top surfaces respectively. Assume A 1 <

Answers

The speed of the fluid leaving the opening at the bottom of the tank can be determined using the formula v1 = 2gh/(1 - A12/A22), where h = y2 - y1 and A1 and A2 are the areas of the opening and the top surfaces respectively.

The given formula for the speed of the fluid leaving the opening at the bottom of the tank is derived from the principles of fluid mechanics. Let's break down the equation and understand its components.

The term "2gh" represents the gravitational potential energy converted to kinetic energy. Here, "g" is the acceleration due to gravity, and "h" is the vertical distance between the two points of interest, namely y2 and y1.

The denominator term "1 - A12/A22" involves the ratios of the areas of the opening and the top surfaces of the tank. The ratio A12/A22 represents the fractional area of the opening compared to the top surface area. By subtracting this fraction from 1, we account for the decrease in speed caused by the reduced flow area.

In simpler terms, when the opening area is smaller (A1 < A2), the fluid leaving the tank will experience an increase in speed due to the narrowing of the flow path. Conversely, if the opening area is larger, the speed will decrease.

The formula provides a quantitative relationship between the vertical distance, the areas involved, and the resulting speed of the fluid exiting the tank through the opening at the bottom.

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Which of the following factors does NOT influence wind speed and direction? a. Friction b. Pressure gradient c. Coriolis effect d. High to low pressure difference e. Radiation QUESTION 4 According to the book, how do pressure gradients usually develop? a. Differences in outgoing longwave radiation b. Winds blowing waves across the ocean c. Unequal heating of the atmosphere d. Winds blowing sand across the landscape e. Seismic waves produced by earthquakes QUESTION 5 Which of the following best describes how a sea breeze works? a. Wind blows from sea to land because warm land has low pressure and cooler sea has higher pressure b. Wind blows from land to sea because wind blows down from higher elevation c. Wind blows parallel to the coastline because of the Coriolis effect d. Wind blows from land to the sea because it is darker e. Wind blows from sea to land because there is more flat distance over which wind can blow in the ocean QUESTION 6 Based on the Coriolis effect, how are winds changed from flow driven by the pressure gradient in the northern hemisphere? a. Winds bend to the right b. Winds speed up c. Winds bend to the left d. Winds bend upward e. Winds slow down QUESTION 7 In which direction does the frictional force work? a. in the same direction as the pressure gradient, causing it to speed up b.to the left of the pressure gradient c. opposite the pressure gradient, slowing it down d.to the right of the pressure gradient e. opposite the motion of the wind, slowing it down

Answers

The factor that does NOT influence wind speed and direction is radiation. Hence, the correct option is (e). The factor that does NOT influence wind speed and direction is radiation.

The other four factors that influence wind speed and direction are friction, pressure gradient, Coriolis effect, and high-to-low pressure difference.

Pressure gradients usually develop due to unequal heating of the atmosphere. Hence, the correct option is (c). Pressure gradients usually develop due to unequal heating of the atmosphere.

Pressure gradients occur due to differences in air temperature, which cause pressure differences. Areas with warmer air will have lower pressure while those with cooler air will have higher pressure.

The wind blows from the sea to land because warm land has low pressure and cooler sea has higher pressure is the best description of how a sea breeze works. Hence, the correct option is (a).

A sea breeze is a type of local wind that blows from the sea towards the land. This occurs because during the day, the land heats up faster than the sea, causing the air above it to rise.

This creates a low-pressure area above the land. At the same time, the sea remains cooler, and the air above it is denser, creating a high-pressure area. The air flows from the high-pressure area (the sea) to the low-pressure area (the land), creating a sea breeze.

This breeze usually occurs in the afternoon when the temperature difference between the land and sea is greatest. It helps to cool down the land and bring moisture from the sea to the land.

The sea breeze is a result of differences in air temperature and pressure between the land and sea, with the wind flowing from high to low pressure, bringing moisture to the land and cooling it down.

Winds are bent to the right from the flow driven by the pressure gradient in the northern hemisphere, based on the Coriolis effect. Hence, the correct option is .

Based on the Coriolis effect, winds are bent to the right from the flow driven by the pressure gradient in the northern hemisphere. The Coriolis effect occurs due to the Earth's rotation, causing moving objects such as wind to deflect to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

The frictional force works opposite the motion of the wind, slowing it down. Hence, the correct option is (e). The frictional force works opposite the motion of the wind, slowing it down.

Friction occurs when the wind blows over the surface of the Earth, causing drag and slowing down the wind. The frictional force works opposite to the direction of the wind, with the greatest friction near the surface and decreases with height.

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An object placed 50cm away from an emerging lens of focal length 15cm produce a focus image on a screen calculate the distance between the object and screen ​

Answers

Answer:

Certainly! Using the lens formula:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

where f is the focal length of the lens, v is the distance between the lens and the image, and u is the distance between the lens and the object.

We can rearrange the formula to solve for v:

1/v = 1/f + 1/u

Substituting the values given, we get:

1/15 = 1/v - 1/50

Solving for v, we get:

v = 30cm

Therefore, the distance between the object and the screen is:

u + v = 50cm + 30cm = 80cm

Explanation:

The distance between the object and screen can be calculated using the lens formula, which states that:

1/f = 1/u + 1/v

where f is the focal length of the lens, u is the object distance, and v is the image distance.

In this case, the object is placed 50 cm away from the lens, and the focal length of the lens is 15 cm. Let's assume that the image is formed at a distance of v cm from the lens.

Substituting the given values into the lens formula, we get:

1/15 = 1/50 + 1/v

Simplifying this equation, we get:

1/v = 1/15 - 1/50
1/v = (10 - 3) / 150
1/v = 7 / 150

Multiplying both sides by 150, we get:

v = 150 / 7

Therefore, the image is formed at a distance of approximately 21.43 cm from the lens.

The distance between the object and screen is simply the sum of the object distance and image distance:

d = u + v
d = 50 + 21.43
d = 71.43 cm

Therefore, the distance between the object and screen is approximately 71.43 cm.

To set up a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not, try to get evidence E such that:
Select one:
a.
The value of P(E | H) is higher than the value of P(E | ~H)
b.
The value of P(H) is higher than the value of P(~H)
c.
There is as big a difference between P(H) and P(E | H) as possible.
d.
There is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible

Answers

To set up a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not, try to get evidence E such that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible. This means the correct option is d.

For a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not, it is necessary to gather the right evidence. This evidence should be such that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible.

P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) are the conditional probabilities of evidence E given hypothesis H and evidence E given not-H respectively. The difference between these two probabilities measures how well evidence E supports hypothesis H versus not H.

For example, suppose we want to test the hypothesis H: All dogs bark. To get evidence that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible, we can test this hypothesis by taking two groups of dogs. One group is the dogs that bark (group A) and the other group is the dogs that don't bark (group B).

Then, we can get evidence E, which is the number of dogs in group A that bark and the number of dogs in group B that bark. Using this evidence, we can calculate the conditional probabilities of evidence E given hypothesis H (P(E | H)) and evidence E given not-H (P(E | ~H)).

Finally, we can calculate the difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H). If this difference is large, then the evidence supports hypothesis H more than not H.

To set up a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not, it is necessary to gather the right evidence. This evidence should be such that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible.

For example, suppose we want to test the hypothesis H: All dogs bark. To get evidence that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible, we can test this hypothesis by taking two groups of dogs. One group is the dogs that bark (group A) and the other group is the dogs that don't bark (group B).

Then, we can get evidence E, which is the number of dogs in group A that bark and the number of dogs in group B that bark. Using this evidence, we can calculate the conditional probabilities of evidence E given hypothesis H (P(E | H)) and evidence E given not-H (P(E | ~H)).

Finally, we can calculate the difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H). If this difference is large, then the evidence supports hypothesis H more than not H.

Hence, it is important to get evidence that has a significant difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) to set up a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not.

It is necessary to gather the right evidence to set up a good experiment to test whether hypothesis H is true or not.

Evidence E should be such that there is as big a difference between P(E | H) and P(E | ~H) as possible. The difference between these two probabilities measures how well evidence E supports hypothesis H versus not H. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

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