Which of the following abnormalities would not be observed in a patient who has Addison's disease?
-elevated plasma potassium level
-hypertension
-hyponatremia
-decreased plasma chloride level

Answers

Answer 1

Hypertension would not be observed in a patient who has Addison's disease. Addison's disease is characterized by a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone hormones, which can lead to decreased blood pressure and hypotension. However, elevated plasma potassium levels, hyponatremia, and decreased plasma chloride levels are common in patients with Addison's disease due to the lack of aldosterone's effects on sodium and potassium regulation in the body.

The abnormality that would not be observed in a patient with Addison's disease is hypertension.

Addison's disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is characterized by the inadequate production of hormones by the adrenal glands. The primary hormone deficiency in Addison's disease is cortisol, and often aldosterone production is also affected. As a result, several electrolyte imbalances can occur.

Common abnormalities observed in Addison's disease include:

1. Elevated plasma potassium level: Due to the insufficient levels of aldosterone, which is responsible for promoting potassium excretion by the kidneys, patients with Addison's disease often exhibit elevated plasma potassium levels.

2. Hyponatremia: The decreased production of aldosterone leads to reduced sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, resulting in lower plasma sodium levels.

3. Decreased plasma chloride level: The inadequate aldosterone production can also contribute to a decrease in chloride levels in the plasma.

However, hypertension is not typically associated with Addison's disease. In fact, low blood pressure (hypotension) is a more common finding in patients with adrenal insufficiency.

It's important to note that individual cases may vary, and some patients with Addison's disease may exhibit different symptoms or abnormalities. Consulting a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and personalized medical advice is recommended.

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Related Questions

for a client with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal?

Answers

Chest percussion over the area affected by pleural effusion may reveal dullness or a flat sound instead of the normal resonant sound.

This is because the fluid buildup in the pleural space can hinder the normal vibration of the underlying lung tissue, leading to a decreased resonance on percussion. Chest percussion can be a useful diagnostic tool in assessing the extent and severity of pleural effusion, and can also be used as a therapeutic intervention to help drain the fluid from the affected area.

Chest percussion is a medical technique used to assess the health of the lungs and the presence of any abnormalities such as pleural effusion. Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and the chest cavity, leading to compression of the lung tissue and breathing difficulties. When chest percussion is performed over an area affected by pleural effusion, it can reveal dullness or a flat sound instead of the normal resonant sound.

During chest percussion, the healthcare provider uses their hands to tap on different areas of the chest while the patient is in a sitting or standing position. The provider listens for the sound produced by the tapping, which should be a clear and resonant sound in healthy lungs. If there is an area affected by pleural effusion, the sound produced by the tapping will be different due to the presence of fluid in the lungs.

When fluid accumulates in the pleural space, it causes the lung tissue to compress and move away from the chest wall. This reduces the amount of air in the lungs and alters the sound produced by chest percussion. The sound produced by tapping on an area affected by pleural effusion is usually dull or flat instead of the normal resonant sound.

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Which of the following statements does not describe the role of minerals in the body?
a. They help maintain water balance.
b. They make possible the transfer of nerve impulses.
c. They are constituents of important body compounds.
d. They provide 4 kcalories per gram.

Answers

The statement that does not describe the role of minerals in the body is:

**d. They provide 4 kcalories per gram.**

Minerals do not provide calories or energy to the body. Unlike macronutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, minerals do not contribute to caloric intake. Instead, minerals play crucial roles in various physiological processes and are essential for overall health and well-being.

The other statements are accurate descriptions of the roles of minerals in the body:

a. **They help maintain water balance.**

Minerals such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are involved in maintaining proper fluid balance and electrolyte concentrations within cells and body fluids.

b. **They make possible the transfer of nerve impulses.**

Minerals such as calcium, magnesium, and sodium are involved in the transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contractions. They play a vital role in the functioning of the nervous system.

c. **They are constituents of important body compounds.**

Minerals are essential components of various body compounds, including bones (calcium, phosphorus), hemoglobin (iron), enzymes (zinc, copper), and many others.

Understanding the role of minerals in the body helps emphasize their importance in maintaining overall health and highlights the need for a balanced diet that includes adequate mineral intake.

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What advice should you give Zahra? Check all that apply.

Isaac should be cleared by a doctor before he and Zahra engage in further sexual contact.
Zahra should get tested because she may also be infected.
Zahra does not need to get tested since she and Isaac have not actually had sex yet.
Zahra and Isaac should use a condom to prevent STI transmission even if they are only having oral sex.
Zahra does not need to see a doctor because she does not have any symptoms of an STI.

Answers

Zahra should be advised to get tested for STIs, use condoms during sexual activities, and encourage Isaac to see a doctor before engaging in any further sexual activities.

A) Isaac should be cleared by a doctor before he and Zahra engage in further sexual contact to ensure that he is free from any sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Even though they have not had sex, they have engaged in sexual activities, and STIs can be transmitted through oral sex.

B) Zahra should get tested because she may also be infected. It is essential for Zahra to get tested to know if she has contracted any STIs during their sexual activities.

D) Zahra and Isaac should use a condom to prevent STI transmission even if they are only having oral sex. Condoms are an effective barrier method that can reduce the risk of STI transmission during sexual activities. Zahra should also be aware that condoms may not provide complete protection against all types of STIs.

E) Zahra does not need to see a doctor because she does not have any symptoms of an STI. It is important to note that some STIs may not cause any symptoms, and therefore, it is recommended that individuals who engage in sexual activities get tested regularly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not.

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persons with asymptomatic infections may be (contaminants/reservoirs/zoonoses) of disease.

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Persons with asymptomatic infections may act as reservoirs of disease. Asymptomatic individuals are those who have been infected with a pathogen but do not show any symptoms of the disease.

This means that they can unknowingly spread the disease to others who may develop severe symptoms. Asymptomatic individuals are particularly concerning in the case of highly contagious diseases. They can spread the disease easily, often before they even realize that they are infected. This is why it is crucial to identify and isolate individuals who have been exposed to the disease, even if they are asymptomatic. Failure to do so could result in an outbreak that is difficult to control.

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what should you do with your goals on a frequent basis throughout your lifetime?

Answers

It is important to review and evaluate your goals on a frequent basis throughout your lifetime. This allows you to track your progress and make necessary adjustments.

Regularly reflecting on your goals can also help you identify any changes in priorities or circumstances that may require a shift in focus. It is important to set realistic and attainable goals that align with your values and vision for your life. As you achieve your goals, celebrate your accomplishments and use them as motivation to continue striving towards your aspirations. Remember, goals are not set in stone and can evolve over time, so it is important to remain flexible and adaptable.


Throughout your lifetime, it's essential to regularly review and update your goals. Consistently evaluate your progress, adjusting your strategies and actions as needed. This process ensures that your objectives remain relevant, attainable, and aligned with your values. Regularly reflecting on your goals helps to maintain motivation, adapt to changes, and overcome obstacles. Prioritize self-improvement and seek out new learning opportunities to achieve personal and professional growth. By frequently revisiting your goals and adjusting your path as necessary, you will be better equipped to achieve success and fulfillment in your lifetime.

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What is jaundice in etiology?

Answers

Jaundice is a condition that is caused by an underlying etiology, or disease process, that results in an accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced during the breakdown of red blood cells and normally processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. However, if the liver is unable to process the bilirubin properly, it can build up in the bloodstream and cause yellowing of the skin and eyes, which is known as jaundice. Some common etiologies of jaundice include liver disease, hemolytic anemia, and blockage of the bile ducts.

Jaundice is not an etiology itself but a symptom or manifestation of an underlying condition or disease. It is characterized by the yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes due to the buildup of bilirubin in the body.

The etiology, or underlying cause, of jaundice can vary and may include:

1. Liver diseases: Conditions such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, or liver cancer can disrupt the normal functioning of the liver and lead to jaundice.

2. Hemolytic disorders: Increased breakdown of red blood cells can result in an excess production of bilirubin, overwhelming the liver's capacity to process it. Conditions like hemolytic anemia or certain inherited blood disorders can cause jaundice.

3. Bile duct obstruction: Obstruction of the bile ducts, which carry bile from the liver to the intestines, can prevent the normal flow of bilirubin and result in jaundice. Causes of obstruction may include gallstones, tumors, or strictures in the bile ducts.

4. Infections: Certain infections, such as viral hepatitis (hepatitis A, B, C, etc.), can affect liver function and lead to jaundice.

5. Medications and toxins: Some medications, toxins, or chemical exposures can cause liver damage or dysfunction, leading to jaundice as a result.

It is essential to identify the specific etiology of jaundice through medical evaluation and diagnostic tests to determine the appropriate treatment and management for the underlying condition causing the symptom.

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Richard plays video games for many hours each day. Richard can expect to have lower _____.
A) levels of aggression
B) grades at school
C) blood pressure
D) stress levels

Answers

Richard plays video games for many hours each day. Richard can expect to have lower D) stress levels because it is a form of relaxation.

Playing video games for many hours each day does not necessarily indicate a direct impact on grades, blood pressure, or aggression levels. However, it can have an effect on stress levels. Engaging in video games can provide a form of relaxation and escapism for individuals, helping to reduce stress and provide a temporary diversion from daily worries.

While excessive gaming or gaming addiction can have negative consequences on various aspects of life, including academic performance and overall well-being, the statement in question specifically focuses on the immediate expectation of lower outcomes.

Considering that video games can provide an enjoyable and immersive experience, it is more likely that Richard would experience a temporary decrease in stress levels during gameplay rather than an increase.

It's important, however, to maintain a healthy balance between gaming and other activities to ensure overall well-being and success in various areas of life.

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an acronym for the standard first-aid treatment for fitness-related injuries is

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The acronym for the standard first-aid treatment for fitness-related injuries is RICE. RICE stands for Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation. Rest means avoiding any activities that may worsen the injury.

Ice refers to applying ice packs to the affected area for 15 to 20 minutes every hour to reduce swelling and pain. Compression involves wrapping the injured area with a compression bandage to reduce swelling and support the injury. Elevation means keeping the affected area elevated above the heart level to reduce swelling and promote blood flow. RICE is an effective first-aid treatment for injuries like sprains, strains, and bruises that are common in fitness activities.

It helps to reduce inflammation, swelling, and pain, which can facilitate faster recovery. However, it is important to seek medical attention if the injury is severe or if there is no improvement in symptoms after a few days of RICE treatment.
 

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the problem with the over-the-counter appetite suppressant phenylpropanolamine (ppa) is

Answers

The problem with the over-the-counter appetite suppressant phenylpropanolamine (PPA) is **its potential association with an increased risk of stroke**.

PPA was commonly used as an ingredient in weight loss and cold medications. However, it was later found to be linked to an elevated risk of hemorrhagic stroke, particularly in women. This discovery led to regulatory actions and the removal of PPA from many products.

Studies have suggested that PPA can constrict blood vessels, potentially leading to increased blood pressure and a higher likelihood of stroke occurrence. Due to these safety concerns, the use of PPA in medications has been largely discontinued.

It is important to note that this information is based on the knowledge up to my September 2021 knowledge cutoff, and it is always advisable to consult current medical guidelines and consult with healthcare professionals for the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding medications and their potential risks.

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what information is needed in order to accurately code hypertension retinopathy in icd-10-cm?

Answers

In order to accurately code hypertension retinopathy in ICD-10-CM, the following information is needed:

1. The presence of hypertension - this should be documented as a diagnosis code (I10, I11, I12, or I13).

2. The type of hypertension retinopathy (e.g. hypertensive retinopathy with macular edema, hypertensive retinopathy without macular edema).

3. The severity of the condition (e.g. mild, moderate, severe).

4. Laterality (if applicable) - the affected eye(s) should be documented.

Documentation of the above information will ensure accurate coding of hypertension retinopathy using ICD-10-CM.

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approximately how much has the average life expectancy in the united states increased since 1900

Answers

The average life expectancy in the United States has increased by approximately 30 years since 1900.

In 1900, the average life expectancy in the U.S. was around 47 years. As of 2021, the average life expectancy is approximately 77 years.

This increase can be attributed to advances in medical science, improvements in public health, and better living conditions.


Summary: Since 1900, the average life expectancy in the United States has increased by about 30 years due to various factors, such as advancements in medicine and public health.

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what risk does a health system bear when it agrees to a bundled payment for hip replacement?

Answers

When a health system agrees to a bundled payment for hip replacement, it assumes the risk of financial losses if the cost of care exceeds the agreed-upon bundled payment amount.

If the actual costs of care exceed the bundled payment amount, the health system may experience financial losses. This can occur if there are unexpected complications or if the patient requires additional services beyond what was initially anticipated. On the other hand, if the costs of care are lower than the bundled payment, the health system can potentially achieve cost savings. To mitigate the financial risk associated with bundled payments, health systems need to carefully manage the costs and quality of care throughout the episode. This may involve implementing strategies to improve efficiency, coordinating care across different providers, and closely monitoring outcomes and costs.

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Which of the following statements reflects the understanding of the nature vs. nurture debate? A. While nurture is responsible for some traits, like a. intelligence and athletic ability, nature is responsible for emotional traits. B. Nature and nurture are each responsible for about the b. same number of personality traits. C. Our natural and genetic c. traits are the only things that make us who we are. D. Every human being is a d. product of biology, society, and personal experiences.

Answers

The correct answer is option D.

The statement that reflects the understanding of the nature vs. nurture debate is every human being is a product of biology, society, and personal experiences.

This statement acknowledges that both nature (biology) and nurture (society and personal experiences) play a role in shaping who we are as individuals. It recognizes the complex interplay between genetic factors and environmental factors in determining human characteristics and behavior.

The other statements in the question either assign all responsibility to either nature or nurture or make overly simplistic claims about the influence of genetics or environment on human traits.


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what is the shape of the uterus of a patient who is 24 weeks pregnant?

Answers

The uterus is pear shaped

Which of the following arterial sites is generally used for measuring the pulse during exercise? ** A. Carotid B. Femoral C. Aortic D. Splenic.

Answers

A. Carotid. The carotid artery is generally used for measuring the pulse during exercise. This artery is located in the neck and is easily accessible for measuring the pulse.

The carotid artery is a large artery that carries oxygenated blood to the brain.

During exercise, the heart rate increases, and measuring the pulse is important to monitor the intensity of exercise and ensure safety.

The carotid artery is a reliable site for measuring the pulse and is commonly used by healthcare professionals and athletes.



Summary: The carotid artery is generally used for measuring the pulse during exercise because it is easily accessible and reliable.

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rogers recommended in his person-centered therapy that one of the goals of therapy was to

Answers

In his person-centered therapy, Rogers recommended that one of the goals of therapy was to foster a supportive and non-judgmental therapeutic environment that would allow clients to explore their emotions, thoughts, and experiences without fear of criticism or rejection.

Additionally, Rogers believed that therapy should aim to promote self-awareness and personal growth by helping clients develop a more positive and accepting attitude toward themselves and their experiences. Ultimately, the goal of person-centered therapy is to empower clients to become more fully functioning individuals who are able to live more satisfying and fulfilling lives.


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A primary purpose of a cool-down is to return blood from the muscles worked back toward the heart. True or False

Answers

The statement A primary purpose of a cool-down is to return blood from the muscles worked back toward the heart is false because the primary purpose of a cool-down is not specifically to return blood from the muscles worked back toward the heart.

A cool-down, which involves gradually decreasing exercise intensity and incorporating stretching or light aerobic activity, serves several purposes. While it does help in the transition from exercise to a resting state, it primarily aims to promote recovery and reduce post-exercise muscle soreness.

During intense exercise, blood vessels in the working muscles dilate to increase blood flow. The cool-down period allows these blood vessels to gradually constrict, preventing blood pooling in the muscles and facilitating the return of blood to the heart.

However, the main mechanism responsible for returning blood to the heart is the contraction of skeletal muscles, particularly in the legs, which act as pumps to propel blood back to the heart.

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what distinguishes alcohol dependence from alcohol abuse quizlet

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Alcohol dependence and alcohol abuse are two distinct but related concepts that involve problematic alcohol use. The key factor that distinguishes alcohol dependence from alcohol abuse is the presence of physical dependence and withdrawal symptoms in alcohol dependence.

Alcohol abuse refers to a pattern of excessive drinking that leads to negative consequences in various areas of a person's life, such as health, relationships, work, and legal issues. It is characterized by continued alcohol use despite these negative consequences. On the other hand, alcohol dependence, also known as alcoholism or alcohol use disorder, involves both psychological and physical dependence on alcohol. In addition to the negative consequences associated with alcohol abuse, individuals with alcohol dependence experience tolerance (needing more alcohol to achieve the same effects) and withdrawal symptoms when they stop or reduce their alcohol consumption. Withdrawal symptoms can include tremors, sweating, anxiety, insomnia, and in severe cases, seizures or delirium tremens.

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sugarbeet and sugarcane are the two major sources of sugar consumed today. which came first T/F

Answers

Sugarcane came first as a major source of sugar consumption.

Sugarcane was first cultivated in South Asia and has been used for sugar production for thousands of years. Sugarbeet, on the other hand, was not used for sugar production until the 18th century.
In explanation, while both sugarbeet and sugarcane are now major sources of sugar consumption, sugarcane has a longer history of use for this purpose.



In summary, the answer to your question is "False", as sugarcane came first as a major source of sugar consumption.

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having a vocabulary of 5 to 50 words would place a child at which age level?

Answers

Answer: 24 months

Explanation:

To increase the weight on the machine after becoming stronger is employing the principle of:
a. advancement theory
b. incremental resistance
c. progressive overload
d. specific outcomes
e. systematic training

Answers

c. Progressive overload is the principle employed to increase the weight on the machine after becoming stronger.

Progressive overload is a fundamental principle in strength training that involves gradually increasing the demands placed on the body in order to continually stimulate muscle growth and strength gains. When an individual becomes stronger, it is necessary to challenge the muscles further by increasing the resistance or weight lifted. This process of progressively increasing the load ensures that the muscles are consistently adapting and becoming stronger over time. By gradually increasing the weight on the machine, individuals can continue to make progress and avoid plateauing in their strength development.

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Which of the following is an example of a problem-focused coping strategy?
a. Look for the silver lining
b. Try to look on the bright side
c. Stand your ground and fight for what you want
d. Try to forget the whole thing
e. Accept sympathy from someone
Explain.

Answers

A problem-focused coping strategy aims to address the issue causing stress directly, and in this case, option (c) represents that approach by standing one's ground and fighting for what they want.

Problem-focused coping strategies involve actively addressing and finding solutions to the issues causing stress.

Option (c) is the only choice that involves directly confronting the problem and working to resolve it.

The other options are more focused on emotional coping or avoidance.



Summary: A problem-focused coping strategy aims to address the issue causing stress directly, and in this case, option (c) represents that approach by standing one's ground and fighting for what they want.

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hypoglycemia in a mature infant is defined as a blood glucose level below which amount?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Very often, hypoglycemia symptoms occur when blood glucose levels fall below 70 mg/dL. As unpleasant as they may be, the symptoms of low blood glucose are useful. These symptoms tell you that you your blood glucose is low and you need to take action to bring it back into a safe range.

T/F: the system of cancer stages is used to document survival rates for various forms of cancer.

Answers

The given statement, "The system of cancer stages is used to document survival rates for various forms of cancer" is true because cancer stages indicate the extent of cancer growth and spread within the body. Staging helps healthcare professionals determine the appropriate treatment and predict the prognosis of a patient.



There are typically four stages of cancer, ranging from Stage 0 (non-invasive or in situ) to Stage IV (advanced cancer with distant metastasis). The higher the stage, the more aggressive the cancer and the more challenging it is to treat.

Survival rates are statistics that estimate the percentage of people who will survive a specific type and stage of cancer for a certain period (e.g., five years) after diagnosis. These rates help in understanding the overall outlook for a patient and assist in making informed decisions about treatment options.

In general, the earlier the stage of cancer at diagnosis, the higher the survival rate. However, it is important to note that individual outcomes can vary greatly, and survival rates do not guarantee the outcome for a specific patient.

In conclusion, cancer staging plays a crucial role in documenting survival rates, assisting healthcare professionals in determining the best course of action, and providing patients with valuable information about their prognosis.

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Discuss why it is important to limit
intake of trans-fatty acids and
saturated fats.

Answers

Answer:

may increase the risk of heart disease.

Explanation:

Like saturated fats, trans fats may increase the risk of heart disease. Food companies have lowered the amount of artificial trans fats they add to foods. But there may still be some artificial trans fats in packaged foods like snacks, desserts, frozen pizzas, margarine, and more.

What is the term for the change that takes place in response to a stressor?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Adaptation
C) Positive movement
D) Negative movement

Answers

The term for the change that takes place in response to a stressor is called "adaptation."

Adaptation is a biological process where an organism adjusts to new or changing environmental conditions, allowing it to maintain its functionality and survive. In some cases, such as negative movement (which typically refers to undesirable or harmful changes), the adaptation may involve a shift in behavior, physiology, or structure to cope with the stressor.

This process allows organisms to better manage the stressor and potentially avoid its detrimental effects. Overall, adaptation is an essential component of an organism's ability to survive and thrive in changing environments.

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When the spleen enlarges, the nurse would not be surprised to percuss dullness over the stomach.
a) True
b) False

Answers

False. When the spleen enlarges, the nurse would not be surprised to percuss dullness over the stomach.

When the spleen enlarges, it typically extends towards the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, pushing the stomach upward and to the left. As a result, percussing over the stomach would not produce dullness. Instead, dullness may be heard over the left upper quadrant where the enlarged spleen is located. This is due to the displacement of the stomach by the enlarged spleen, causing it to be positioned higher in the abdomen. During percussion, dullness is typically associated with solid or fluid-filled organs, while a resonant or tympanic sound is associated with air-filled structures. In the case of an enlarged spleen, the displaced stomach may still be resonant or tympanic upon percussion, as it is primarily filled with air. It is important for the nurse to be familiar with the expected percussion findings in cases of spleen enlargement to accurately assess and monitor the condition of the patient.

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when it comes to alcohol, men are advised to consume no more than ______ drink(s) per day.

Answers

When it comes to alcohol, men are advised to drink no more than 2 drinks per day. This is because excessive consumption can lead to severe diseases or health problems.

Consumption of too much alcohol can lead to several health problems. To avoid any health issues consumption of alcohol must be limited. According to the dietary guidelines of the NIAAA, adult men should not consume more than 4 drinks a day or more than 14 drinks in a week. The daily drinking limit for women is set to be not more than 3 drinks in a day and not more than 7 drinks in a week.

Drinking too much alcohol can cause diseases like stroke, high blood pressure, digestive problems, cancers of the liver, mouth, throat, colon, etc. So excessive consumption is not good for health.

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What does the B in the acronym BACK stand for?


backward motion


back straight


bend forward


body posture

Answers

The B in the acronym BACK stands for D. body posture.

What is the BACK acronym ?

The BACK acronym serves as a useful tool to remind individuals of the importance of maintaining proper posture, with each letter representing an essential aspect of good positioning.

To begin, B refers to body posture which involves achieving optimal alignment throughout the body.

Next, A recommends keeping one's arms naturally at their sides without any excess tension or strain placed on them.

C reminds individuals to keep their chin parallel to the ground in order to maintain a level head position and reduce undue stress on the neck muscles.

Finally, K suggests keeping knees slightly bent instead of locking them into place, guarding against any potential discomfort or damage.

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B stands for body posture. The last option.

How many repetitions of a stretch are needed in each session to improve flexibility over time?
Choose matching definition
10 to 12
5 to 7
2 to 4
8 to 10

Answers

According to the American College of Sports Medicine, a stretch should be held for 15-30 seconds and repeated 2-4 times in each session to improve flexibility over time.  The answer is C: "2 to 4".

This is because holding a stretch for at least 15 seconds is necessary to lengthen the muscle fibers and improve flexibility, and repeating the stretch 2-4 times helps to further increase the range of motion. Option B (5 to 12) and Option D (4 to 10) are too high in terms of repetitions, and Option A (10 to 12) is too high in terms of both repetitions and duration, which could increase the risk of injury.

The answer is C: "2 to 4".

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In a population the homozygous dominant individual make up 70% of the population while heterozygous ones made up 21% and recessive made up 9%. What are the frequencies of the A and a alleles? . which characteristic is not true of all minerals? a. form predictable crystal patterns b. contain at least two elements c. have a definite chemical composition How many grams of sodium sulfide are needed to react completely with 0.12 g aluminum fluoride?(Answer must include correct units and sigfigs - Always write the numerical value followed by 1 space followed by the unit)Also: if the answer is less than 1, write a zero followed by the decimal pointNo = 23; 5 = 32; Al = 13; F = 19 Evaluate the step function for f(1.4). 16. If gas is taken from a state of pressure 3 atm, volume of 3 L and a temperature of 200C to a state of volume 5L and a temperature of 500C. What is the pressure? after 1534, anabaptists were greatly feared by secular authorities in europe because they: Part 1Suppose a new coal-burning power plant is planned in your community.Under the Clean Air Act, how can the public participate in decisions concerning emissions regulations placed on the plant?What could you do if the plant is placed in your community and later leads to pollution beyond the amounts allowed by the EPA?Part 2What are the six criteria pollutants monitored under the 1990 Clean Air Act?What part of the government oversees monitoring them in the environment, and what happens if a business or organization emits them at above allowable levels?Part 3Explain how the emissions trading program works and identify one major advantage and one major disadvantage.Explain how the program must work in order to be successful. according to dr. douglas bunnell, what is the most dangerous eating disorder? alfa bought a brand new box of sugar he wants to transfer it to a new container will there be any sugar left over after filling the new container explain show work These macromolecules differ from each other by the number and sequence of amino acids they contain In the southern slave society, white women on plantations were seen as weak and helpless. True or False? ndsay RockOwning a pet is a greatsponsibility. Cats and dogs needwe and attention, medical care,sod, water, and much more. Dogsquire walks several times a day.amsters and gerbils need foodand water, fresh bedding for theirges, and toys to gnaw on. Manyople decide to purchase turtlespets. They mistakenly believe that caring for turtles is easier than caring forther pets. Toss them into a tank with some water and food and you're done,ht? Wrong. Properly caring for turtles takes a lot of time and a lot of carufulcention.ne of the easiest turtles to find in pet stores is the red-eared slider. Thesetles live in the wild in most areas of the United States, especially in theutheast. They are freshwater turtles that fancy ponds, marshes, and otherww-moving bodies of water. They are excellent swimmers, but you can oftenthem lounging in the sun on rocks and logs. This lounge time is known asasking."ed-eared sliders are easy to recognize. Like all turtles, they have shells. Thepart of a turtle's shell is the carapace. The bottom part is the plastron. Thealls of red-eared sliders are greenish brown in color. Sliders' skin is greenhave bue red4x Wash and cleanse mean the same thing. These words areABCDhomophones.analogies.antonyms.synonyms. Research the relationship between computer science and information communication technology If there are still other vehicles in the intersection when your redlight turns green, you should:Move ahead only if you can go around the other vehicles safelyEnter the intersection and wait for traffic to clearWait until the vehicles clear the intersection before entering you have identified a relatively impure fraction that you believe contains a previously unidentified transcriptional activator protein. based on our discussions in lecture, which of the following techniques is likely to be the most useful as an assay used in the further purification of your protein? how did the spread of public schools in the 1820s and 1830s change teaching? ASAPWhich of the following was a reason the Gupta economy thrived? Individual cities had no power and or elected governments. The government banned outside trade to keep wealth in the empire. Farmers' crops and workers' goods that were sold locally. Merchants and artisans paid high taxes to the local leaders. What browser policy prevents cross domain request when using XHR? Choose the statement that correctly pairs the type of cartilaginous joint with its example.A. The joint between the bodies of two vertebrae is an example of a symphysis joint.B. An example of a symphysis joint is one between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone in a child, formed by the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate.C. An example of a synchondrosis joint is the attachment of the clavicle to the sternum.D. An example of a gomphosis joint is the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).E. Since the menisci are fibrocartilage discs, the knee is an example of a symphysis joint. Could someone help me solve this