The correct option is Endocrine glands must be close to the target cells on which they exert effects.
What are endocrine glands?
Endocrine glands are also known as the ductless glands because of the fact that their secretions are released directly into the blood, not to any tubes or ducts. The endocrine system is a messenger system comprising feedback loops of the hormones released by internal glands of an organism directly into the circulatory system, regulating distant target organs. In vertebrates, the hypothalamus is the neural control center for all endocrine systems. Local chemical messengers, not generally considered part of the endocrine system, include autocrines, which act on the cells that secrete them, and paracrines, which act on a different cell type nearby. The endocrine glands belong to the body's control system. The hormones which they produce help to regulate the functions of cells and tissues throughout the body.
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What are 3 things that a substitution mutation causes?.
Substitution mutations can be beneficial, detrimental, or ineffective. They are responsible for three types of point mutations: silent, missense, and nonsense mutations.
In genomics, substitution is a type of mutation in which one nucleotide is replaced by a different nucleotide. The term can also refer to the substitution of one amino acid for another in a protein.
Substitution mutations occur when a single nucleotide is substituted with a different nucleotide. Examples of (base-pair) substitutions include substituting a purine for a different purine (A → G) or a pyrimidine for a different pyrimidine (C → T).
Substitution mutations occur when one base pair is replaced by a different base pair. Substitution, deletion, insertion, and translocation are all examples of mutations. Base substitutions are the most basic type of gene-level mutation, involving the substitution of one nucleotide for another during DNA replication. For example, during replication, a thymine nucleotide could be substituted for a guanine nucleotide.
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natural selection, a process that increases adaptive traits through time, has three conditions or principles. one is variation, another is differential reproductive success, and the third is:
If you want to protect the plants from insect damage, should you encouraged birds to forage on the plants, or put netting over the plants to keep birds out? explain your reasoning.
The insect converts about ten percent of the plant's energy into biomass.Only 10% of the insect's energy is subsequently converted by the bird into biomass. As you move up the food chain, this persists.
This explains why an ecosystem's energy model has a pyramidal structure. The biomass decreases as you move up the food chain.This is because energy is transferred very inefficiently across tropic levels, with 90% of the energy being wasted to the environment as heat energy.In the scientific discipline of biotechnology, organisms’ genetic makeup is altered. This raises the standard of living.Inserting a gene that causes plants to release compounds that fight insects into them is the best choice among the possibilities presented. This is due to the fact that it entails altering the genome of the plant organism in order to provide it resistance to insect invasion.
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one duplicated chromosome has two sister chromatids. in prophase of mitosis you see 18 duplicated chromosomes in a cell. this cell type has n of
In the prophase of mitosis if 18 duplicated chromosomes are in a cell then the number of chromosomes in interphase is 9.
A cell's growth and division are accompanied by a sequence of processes known as a cell cycle. A cell spends the majority of its time in what is known as interphase, where it develops, duplicates its chromosomes, and gets ready to divide. The cell then exits interphase, goes through mitosis, and finishes dividing.
A sister chromatid is one that has two identical copies of a chromosome that are connected by a common centromere during chromosome DNA replication. In other words, a sister chromatid can also be thought of as "one-half" of a chromosome that has been duplicated. A dyad is a pair of sister chromatids.
Sister chromatids, which are firmly connected at the centromere region of each chromosome, are created as a result of DNA replication during the S phase (synthesis phase). Each chromosome is a duplicate at this point and is made up of two sister chromatids.
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In the somatic cell of a mammalian female, one of the two x chromosomes is randomly inactivated and condensed, resulting in the formation of a.
In the somatic cell of a mammalian female, one of the two x chromosomes is randomly inactivated and condensed, resulting in the formation of Barr body
What is Barr body ?Mammals that reproduce sexually are heterogamous (XY), whereas male mammals are homogamous (XY) (XX). Inferring that females have a "double dose" of X chromosome gene products would be logical. By inactivating one of the two X chromosomes at random in females, dosage compensation is achieved. The heterochromatized X chromosome, which is the body with a dark stain attached to the nuclear membrane, is absent in females and males.
After Canadian cytogeneticist Dr. Murray L. Barr originally saw and described the phenomenon in cats, the heterochromatin X chromosomes are commonly referred to as Barr Bodies.One of the two X chromosomes is randomly and irreversibly inactivated in cells other than egg cells very early in female embryonic development. This process is known as lyonization or X-inactivation.Learn more about Barr body here:
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A gene called p53 code for a protein which ultimately hut off cell diviion if damaged DNA i detected. Which would be the mot likely outcome of cell diviion if the p53 gene mutate and no longer function?
Anwer option with 5 option
A. Cell diviion would be hut down completely. B. Cell diviion would reult in more cell with damaged DNA. C. Cell diviion would reult in fewer cell with damaged DNA. D. Cell diviion would reult in maller cell. E. Cell diviion would reult in cell identical to the normal cell
The likely effect of mutated p53 on cell division will be (B) Cell division would result in more cell with damaged DNA.
p53 is a gene also known by the name cellular tumor antigen p53. The gene encodes for a protein that is crucial for cancer prevention in humans. It regulates the cell division and growth of defective cells by either halting the division or causing cell death of the defective cell.
Cell division is the process of forming daughter cells from a cell by distributing its cytoplasm and nucleus into two parts. The daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell. Cell division can be of two types: Mitosis and Meiosis.
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When a person eats a pieces of chicken, which is filled with protein, it is digested by the body into small nutrients. These small nutrients are then absorbed by cells. The nutrients that came from this piece of meat could be put back together into what kinds of compounds? (has to be at least 2)
Food proteins are digested by enzymatic action. Amino acids are released from these proteins and carried to the consumer's cells where they are used to build new proteins. The nutrients that came from this piece of meat could be put back together into new proteins.
What are proteins and amino acids?
Proteins are polymers with a tridimensional structure needed to accomplish the molecules' functions. These functions depend on the protein, the cell requirements, and the organism that produces them.
Proteins are composed of several amino acids together. These amino acids are monomers.
During protein synthesis, tRNA selects the correct amino acids to build the new protein according to the genetic information provided by mRNA. By working together, mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA arrange amino acids and produce a new protein that will accomplish certain functions.
Some of the amino acids used to build the proteins can not be produced by the organism, so they need to be ingested. These amino acids are introduced to the cell when food is digested and nutrients are absorbed.
The organism breaks down proteins from food into different amino acids that are transported into the cells where they are used.
In the exposed example,
1) the person eats the chicken,
2) the chicken's proteins are digested by enzymatic action,
3) During the chicken's protein digestion, amino acids are released
4) These free amino acids are taken to the person's cells' interior
5) Inside the person's cells, these amino acids are available to be used again by the person's cell.
6) During protein synthesis, tRNA selects the correct amino acids to grow the new polypeptide.
The nutrients that came from this piece of meat could be put back together into new proteins synthesized by the person's cells.
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White dwarf supernovae are good standard candles for distance measurements because?.
Due of their brightness, they may be used to calculate the separations between galaxies that are billions of light-years apart.
What qualifies a type La supernova as a reliable standard candle and a helpful tool for measuring distances?The visual magnitude of a type supernova, as witnessed from Earth, reveals its distance from Earth. Because of their constant peak luminosity, these explosions can be used as reference points to determine the distance to their host galaxies.
Why are supernovae useful as distance markers?Supernovae as distance indicators: positive and negative qualities. Very luminous, so it can be seen from a very long way away. With the most distant event occurring at z=3.9, astronomers have discovered supernovae much beyond z=1! Supernovae can therefore travel MUCH further into space than any other type of object.
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brca1 and brca2 genes have been linked to a series of cancers. the gene product of brca1 and brca2 is involved in which of the following? choose one: a. base excision repair b. double-strand dna break repair c. nucleotide excision repair d. mismatch repair e. single-strand dna break repair
The gene product of brca1 and brca2 is involved in double-strand DNA break repair
What are BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes?
The breast cancer 1 (BRCA1) and breast cancer 2 (BRCA2) genes are the ones that are most frequently impacted in hereditary breast and ovarian cancer. Inherited mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes account for roughly 3% of breast cancers (7,500 women annually) and 10% of ovarian cancers (2,000 women annually).
Although BRCA1 and BRCA2 are unrelated proteins, they are both routinely expressed in the cells of the breast and other tissues, where they aid in the repair of DNA damage or, if this is not possible, the destruction of cells. They play a crucial part in the error-free repair of DNA double strand breaks in addition to being engaged in the repair of chromosomal damage.
Breast cancer risk is increased if BRCA1 or BRCA2 is harmed by a BRCA mutation because defective DNA repair is prevented. The terms "breast cancer susceptibility genes" and "breast cancer susceptibility proteins" have been used to refer to BRCA1 and BRCA2. The dominant allele in these genes functions normally and tumor suppressively, but high penetrance mutations in these genes result in a loss of tumor suppressive activity that is associated with an elevated risk of breast cancer.
The BRCA1-associated genome surveillance complex is a sizable multi-subunit protein complex made up of BRCA1, additional tumour suppressors, DNA damage sensors, and signal transducers (BASC). The BRCA1 protein interacts with histone deacetylase complexes via the C-terminal domain and RNA polymerase II through its association with the latter. As a result, this protein functions in transcription as well as DNA repair for double-strand DNA breaks, ubiquitination, and transcriptional control.
Each individual possesses two copies of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, with one copy coming from the mother and the other from the father. A person still has the normal copy of the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene from the other parent even if they inherit a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation from one parent. Cancer develops when a second mutation, affecting the healthy copy of the gene, prevents a person from having functional BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Contrary to the hereditary BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, the second mutation would only be found in the cancer tissue and not elsewhere in the person's body.
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In a certain species of rabbits, black coat color is dominant over brown coat color. What is the probability of producing a rabbit with brown coat color from two rabbits that are both heterozygous with black coat color?.
If the 2 variations are one of a kind, you've got a heterozygous genotype for that gene. for example, being heterozygous for hair shade could suggest you have one allele for crimson hair and one allele for brown hair. the connection among the 2 alleles impacts which developments are expressed.
Homozygous and heterozygous are phrases which can be used to describe allele pairs. individuals sporting identical alleles (RR or rr) are called homozygous. even as individual organisms bearing one of a kind alleles (Rr) are called heterozygous.
Heterozygous is a time period used in genetics to explain when two versions of a gene, referred to as alleles, are paired on the equal vicinity (locus) on a chromosome. by using comparison, homozygous is while there are two copies of the equal allele on the identical locus.
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which phrase most accurately describes how the terms cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity differ?
Cell-mediated immunity is brought about by T cells; humoral immunity is brought about by B cells and antibodies is the most accurate phrase describing cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity.
The presence of antibodies to a disease in a person's system confers immunity against that sickness. Proteins called antibodies are made by the body to combat or eliminate poisons or pathogens. Diseases are specialized by antibodies.
The main driving force behind humoral immunity, which generates antigen-specific antibodies, is B cells. On the other hand, cell-mediated immunity is predominantly fueled by mature T cells, macrophages, and the production of cytokines in response to an antigen and does not rely on antibodies for its adaptive immunological functions.
The primary distinction between humoral and cell-mediated immunity is the production of antigen-specific antibodies by humoral immunity as opposed to cell-mediated immunity. T lymphocytes, on the other hand, cause apoptosis in infected cells to cause their death.
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The complete question is :
Which phrase most accurately describes how the terms innate immunity and adaptive immunity differ?
A. Innate immunity recognizes and binds individual, unique antigens, whereas adaptive immunity does not recognize antigens and so responds the same to any cellular injury
B. Innate immunity is faster than adaptive immunity.
C. Adaptive immunity recognizes and binds individual, unique antigens, whereas innate immunity does not recognize antigens and so responds the same to any cellular injury.
D. Innate immunity is more accurate than adaptive immunity.
This type of muscle contractions are responsible for the constant length of body's postural muscles, such as the muscles of the back.
Isomeric muscle contractions are responsible for the constant length of body's postural muscles.
Isometric contractions are contractions that is responsible for no change in the length of the muscle. No motion in joint or in limbs occurs. Isometric exercises are generally related to tightening (contractions) of a specific muscle or many muscles associated with each other of muscles.
During Isometric exercises, the muscle doesn't relatively changes their length. Also the affected joint also doesn't move. Isometric exercises help to maintain strength.
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Explain how two samples can produce identical dna fingerprints. Be sure to include the use of restriction enzymes and how they relate to dna nucleotide sequences in your explanation.
Two samples can produce identical dna fingerprints by cutting DNA samples by the same restriction enzymes and analyzing the resulting DNA fragments by DNA fingerprinting indicates which DNA samples have similar restriction sequences.
The restrict sequences alongside the DNA are inherited, thus, folks that are associated have comparable restrict sequences alongside their DNA. Cutting DNA samples via way of means of the equal restrict enzymes and studying the ensuing DNA fragments via way of means of DNA fingerprinting suggests which DNA samples have comparable restrict sequences.
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Which component of eukaryotic cells is critical for the correct sorting and transport of proteins?.
In eukaryotic cells, the endomembrane system is a collection of organelles and membranes that collaborate to transport, package, and alter lipids and proteins.
Protein classification is carried out by what organelle?Proteins from the ER are further processed and sorted in the Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, where they are then transported to their final locations—lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion—for use in other processes.
Which cell is in charge of sorting the items that will be transported?Flattened sacs are layered one on top of the other to form the Golgi body. Its purpose is to process secretory and synthetic products coming from the ER before delivering the final goods into various cell regions or secreting them outside the cell.
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The small intestine is adapted for exchanging materials because it has a large surface area, a thin membrane, and an efficient __________ supply. What word completes the sentence?.
The small intestine is adapted for exchanging materials because it has a large surface area, a thin membrane, and an efficient blood supply.
Small intestine of the essential part of digestive system where the maximum digestion as well as absorption of the digested food takes place. The length of small intestine can be about 22 feet but due to its highly compact and folded structure, it occupies very less space.
Blood is the fluid that mediates the transport of various substances in the whole body. The digested food is also transported to different organs through blood in the form of small globules or vesicles. Hence the intestine should be enriched in blood supply to mediate efficient transport.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. according to the opponent process theory of color if ___ cells are stimulated ___ cells will become inhibited. according to the opponent process theory of color if ___ cells are stimulated cells will become inhibited. yellow; blue yellow; green blue; green red; green red; blue
The opposing process hypothesis of color states that when Blue cells are blocked, Yellow cells will get stimulated.
In which cells does the opposing process theory originate?The trichromatic theory explains the ability of the three types of cones to differentiate between different light wavelengths. Different light wavelengths stimulate or inhibit opposing cells, according to the opponent process theory, which also explains how the cones connect to the ganglion cells.
What does the opponent process theory explain?According to the opposing process hypothesis, humans' perception of color is determined by three competing processes. Blue, yellow, red, and green are the four unique colours that we require to describe how people see color. According to this theory, our vision is split into three opposing channels.
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describe how the surface area-to-volume ratio should be in order for cells to optimize the exchange of material through the plasma membrane.
The efficiency of material exchange through the plasma membrane increases with surface area to volume ratio.
Why is it called plasma membrane?Protoplasm, often known as plasm, is a tractor trailer living substance found inside every cell. The plasma membrane, a biological membrane, protects this living substance, also known as plasmic. In the ER, proteins that create membranes are put together. Lipid synthesis enzymes are present in this sensory organ, and as lipids are produced within the Era, they are incorporated into the organelle's inner membranes.
Where can you find plasma membrane?The term "cell" or "plasma membrane" refers to the outside layer that protects the cytoplasm and nucleus of live cells. The barrier has different permeability states. Cell walls are found on the outside of plant and bacterial cells. On the cell walls of animal cells, there is a cell membrane.
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If a cell's actual size is 0.01 mm but it
has an image size of 0.5 mm, what is
the magnification of the microscope?
Answer:
Their magnification factors vary between 5X and 30X with the most commonly used eyepieces having a value of 10X-15X. Total visual magnification of the microscope is derived by multiplying the magnification values of the objective and the eyepiece.
Explanation:
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Certain prokaryotes, such as e. Coli , can alter its own metabolic activity. What allows it to do so?.
Certain prokaryotes, such as e. Coli can alter their own metabolic activity. Bacteria allow doing so because of the operon system.
What are prokaryotes?Prokaryotic cells are the most primordial type of cells; they are found solely in unicellular organisms and do not divide. These cells lack real cell organelles and a nucleus; instead, DNA is present in coil form in the cytoplasm. They have ribosomes, and the organisms are bacteria with prokaryotic cells.
An operon is a functional unit of DNA that contains a group of genes controlled by the same promoter. In addition to regulatory genes, the lac operon in E. coli contains three structural genes.
Therefore, certain prokaryotes, such as E. Coli, have the ability to change their metabolic activity. Because of the operon system, bacteria allow this.
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In selecting recombinant bacteria, cells are chosen that are resistant to a specific antibiotic. How are the bacteria made resistant?.
Bacteria are made resistant by encoding the antibiotic resistance gene on the donor insert. On this basis, they are pre-selected for the experiment.
What is recombination in bacteria?
In recombination, genetic material is transferred from one bacterial cell to another.
Recombination in bacteria is of three types:
Transformation: foreign DNA is taken up by the bacterial cell from the environment. The free DNA being transferred from the donor, the surroundings which are extracellular, results in assimilation and an expression of the acquired characteristics in the recipient bacteria. This is known as bacterial transformation.
Transduction: when DNA is moved from one bacterial cell to another by a virus or bacteriophages.
Conjugation: DNA is transferred between two bacterial cells via a tube. Conjugation is the exchange of genetic material between two cells who are in contact with each other.
Therefore, Bacteria are made resistant by encoding the antibiotic resistance gene on the donor insert.
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Depressants _____________ the functioning of the central nervous system. Some examples of these drugs include alcohol, __________, and ____________.
Depressants reduce the functioning of the central nervous system. Some examples of these drugs include alcohol, barbiturates and benzodiazepines.
Depressants lessen excitement and arousal. The messages between the brain and body are slowed down as a result of their impact on the central nervous system.
They may impair one's ability to focus, coordinate, and quickly react to unanticipated events. They can make someone feel less restrained and more relaxed in tiny dosages.
Larger doses can result in drowsiness, nausea, unconsciousness, and even death.
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how could you adjust the radius of the efferent arteriole to compensate for the effect of reduced blood pressure on the gfr
Lower blood pressure would be made up for by either expanding the afferent radius or contracting the efferent radius.
The best way to offset the impact of low blood pressure on the glomerular filtration rate is by afferent arteriole dilatation. The glomerular filtration rate and blood pressure can both be maintained at normal levels thanks to this change. The opposite happens when the afferent arteriole's diameter is reduced. Reduced resistance results in an increase in efferent arteriolar diameter, which lowers the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure and lowers GFR. The opposite happens when the efferent arteriole's diameter is reduced. Afferent arteriole constriction has two effects: it lowers pressure downstream from the constriction, which lowers the GFR; and it raises vascular resistance, which decreases renal blood flow (RBF).
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which of the following is classified as a macrocytic-normochromic anemia? a. iron deficiency b. pernicious c. hemolytic d. sideroblastic
Iron deficiency is classified as a macrocytic-normochromic anemia.
Macrocytic Normochromic anemia is a form of anemia, right?The blood disease known as macrocytic anemia is brought on when your bone marrow makes too many big red blood cells. These abnormal blood cells lack the nutrition necessary for red blood cells to function correctly. Despite not being a deadly disease, macrocytic anemia can have serious health effects if left untreated.
How do you define normocytic macrocytic anemia?A normal MCV range of 80 to 100 fL is indicative of normocytic anemia, which is anemia with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Hemolytic and non-hemolytic subtypes of this anemia are distinguishable. Normocytic hemolytic can happen intravenously or extravascularly and have a variety of causes.
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gel electrophoresis is a laboratory technique designed to separate molecules such as dna, rna, or proteins based upon what property?
Gel electrophoresis is a scientific procedure used to separate molecules like DNA, RNA, or proteins according to their size and charge.
What is gel electrophoresis, and how is it used in laboratories?By separating DNA, RNA, or protein molecules according to their size and electrical charge, electrophoresis is a laboratory method. The molecules are moved through a gel or other matrix by an electric current.
Which gel types are used to separate DNA, RNA, and proteins?Agarose and polyacrylamide gels are the two forms of gel that are most frequently employed. Different sizes and types of analytes work well with each type of gel.
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If the frequency of pku, an autosomal recessive disease, is 1% in males, what is the frequency of females with pku?.
If the frequency of PKU, an autosomal recessive disease, is 1% in males, then the frequency of females with PKU is expected to be equal (1%) in females since an autosomal recessive disease affects an autosomal (non-sexual) chromosome.
What is an autosomal recessive disease?An autosomal recessive disease is any genetic condition associated with the transmission of gene variants or alleles present on autosomal chromosomes, which are non-sexual chromosomes inherited in equal proportion in both sexes (i.e, in females and males).
The proportion of autosomal recessive diseases is expected to be roughly equal both in females and males due to these chromosomes are present in the same proportion for both.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that autosomal recessive diseases are conditions inherited by the transmission of defective alleles present in the autosomal chromosomes, which are non-sexual chromosomes that are inherited in equal proportion regardless of the sex (i.e. both in females and males).
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Coactivation is a phenomenon in which contraction of an agonist muscle leads to _______ in the antagonist muscle.
Using the theories of muscles, we got that Coactivation is a phenomenon in which contraction of an agonist muscle leads to provide joint stability in the antagonist muscle.
Muscle coactivation occurs when the agonist and the antagonist muscles (or synergist muscles) surrounding the joint contract simultaneously to provide joint stability. It is also known as the muscle contraction, since two muscle groups are contracting at same time.
The phenomenon of the agonist-antagonist muscle coactivation is discussed with respect to its consequences for the movement mechanics (such as the increasing joint apparent stiffness, facilitating faster movements, and effects on the action stability), implication for movement optimization, and involvement of the different neurophysiological structures.
Hence, Coactivation is a phenomenon in which contraction of an agonist muscle leads to provide joint stability in the antagonist muscle.
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What do carbohydrates not contain? *
O Hydrogen
O Carbon
O Water
O Oxygen
Answer:
Water
Explanation:
Carbohydrates are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and have a general formula that approximates CH2O. They are polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or form polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones when hydrolyzed. Carbohydrates occur as monosaccharides, disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides
when the lac repressor is removed from the operator, what would you expect to occur? group of answer choices rna polymerase can bind and express lac genes all of these are correct the bacteria will be able to utilize lactose for metabolism the lac operon will be turned on to express lac genes
All are the correct statements about lac operon:
RNA polymerase can bind and express lac genes.the bacteria will be able to utilize lactose for metabolism.the lac operon will be turned on to express lac genes.Lac operon is a cluster of genes that work together to regulate one single promoter in the bacteria for the metabolism of glucose. There are three gene involved in the process. These are: gene z, gene y and gene a.
RNA polymerase is the enzyme that functions to synthesize the RNA transcript from the DNA strand. This process occurs in three steps: initiation, elongation and termination.
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Which region of the neural tube does not subdivide during the formation of the five secondary vesicles?.
The region of the neural tube that does not subdivide during the formation of the five secondary vesicles is the central nervous system. The central nervous system includes the brain and the spinal cord.
The brain is divided into the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. The spinal cord is located in the spinal column.The region of the neural tube that does not subdivide during the formation of the five secondary vesicles is the central region. This region remains unaltered during the process of secondary vesicle formation and serves as the central core of the neural tube. The central region is important for the structural integrity of the neural tube and for the maintenance of the central nervous system (CNS).
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The phenotypic ratio of the f2 generation of the dihybrid cross in mendel’s experiment with pea plant was?.
His dihybrid cross yielded nine plants from F2 offspring with a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
How frequently do pea plants produce F2?Mendel repeatedly noticed a 3:1 phenotype ratio in the F2 generation, which is the offspring of monohybrid crosses, between plants with the dominant and recessive phenotypes.
About 25% of the pea plants' F2 generations, what did Mendel discover?Mendel's initial research with pea plants is shown in this diagram. All of the flowers in the F1 generation, which was produced by the cross-pollination of two parent (P) plants, were purple. Self-pollinated F1 plants produced the F2 generation, which had 25% white and 75% purple flowers.
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