Motor neurons are activated by an increases in the number if active motor units, which causes a rise in the force of the contraction.
What is neuron and its function?The basic building blocks of the nervous system and brain are neurons (also known as neurones or nerve cells). Neurons are the cells that receive sensory information from the outside world, give control signals to our muscles, and transform and relay electrical signals at each stage along the way.
Why are neurons important?Information is transported all through the human body by neurons. They assist in coordinating all of the vital operations of life by using chemical and electrical signals. In the this article, we define neurons and describe how they function.
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which descibes the motion of the plates
Answer: The heat from radioactive processes within the planet's interior causes the plates to move, sometimes toward and sometimes away from each other. This movement is called plate motion, or tectonic shift.
Answer:
a rotation about a virtual axis that passes through the center of the sphere (Euler's theorem)
Explanation:
with as much detail as possible give another example of an analogy for describing the difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells a good analogy
Prokaryotic cells are those that lack a nucleus, and eukaryotic cells are those that have a nucleus.
What is an example that illustrates how prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ from one another?The following is an illustration of how prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ from one another: If a prokaryotic cell is a flip phone with only texting capabilities and no app download or online access, an eukaryotic cell would be an iPhone with a variety of apps and the ability to access the internet.Nearly all eukaryotic cells have mitochondria; prokaryotic cells do not. Organelles in eukaryotic cells all have plasma membranes around them, including the nucleus, while they lack this feature in prokaryotic cells.Eukaryotic cells are like a house, but prokaryotic cells are like a studio apartment. In a smaller area, everything is conveniently near at hand, however in a larger area, better organization is required to locate items quickly.Cells without a nucleus are known as prokaryotic cells. Cells with a nucleus are referred to be eukaryotic cells. In addition to the nucleus, eukaryotic cells contain other organelles. Ribosomes are the only organelles found in prokaryotic cells.To learn more about prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells refer to:
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Which of the following is an example of phenotype?A. 25% b. Blue c. 1:2:1 D. Bb
blue phenotype, Bb genotype. SS. Bb. SS ff. YY = Identify each genotype's PHENOTYPE.
What five phenotypes are instances of?Examples of phenotypes in humans include height, blood type, eye color, freckles, and hair color. Phenotypes also include characteristics other than those of the physical body.
Does BB represent a phenotype?Phenotype. The term "phenotype" refers to the genotype's outward characteristics. Children who have the genotypes "BB" and "Bb," for instance, have brown eyes, whereas a child who has two copies of the blue-eye allele and the genotype "bb" has blue eyes and a blue-eye phenotype.
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for an individual cell to become a malignant line of cells, it must avoid (growth control mechanisms) for healthy cells. True/False
For an individual cell to become a malignant line of cells, it must avoid for healthy cells. True.
A healthful cell membrane is soft and permeable and permits for nicely-functioning nutrient absorption and metabolic waste removal. An bad or a broken cell membrane is characterized with the aid of being difficult and inflexible and are not capable of absorb nutrients in an efficient manner nor capable of cast off metabolic waste.
Cellular fitness is frequently decided by assessing the proportion of useless cells using membrane integrity assays. those include PI and trypan blue exclusion assays and offer a strong measure of percentage viability. but, a greater reliable approach is to evaluate the health of the residing cells.
Healthful cells observe an average cycle: They develop, divide and die. most cancers cells, however, don't comply with this cycle. instead of dying, they multiply and retain to breed different abnormal cells. those cells can invade body components, including the breast, liver, lungs and pancreas.
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Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells? Select one: a. 4 b. 64 c. 16 d. 8 e. 32
A sperm cell joins an egg cell to create a zygote during fertilization in multicellular creatures. After then, the zygote starts to split. One cell first divides into two, followed by two, four, eight, and so forth, until a big ball of identical cells is formed.
The single-celled zygote that gives rise to the blastula, the first stage of the genesis of multicellular animals, experiences fast cell division. Cléavage is the name for the quick, repeated cycles of cell division.
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TRUE/FALSE. a minute particle consisting of rna and associated proteins found in large numbers in the cytoplasm of living cells. they bind messenger rna and transfer rna to synthesize polypeptides and proteins.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
this is the description of a ribosome.
Hope it helps!
Which of these tests is typically performed only as needed on high-risk patients?a. pulmonary function testb. urinalysisc. digital rectal examd. sigmoidoscopy
Only high-risk individuals who truly require it will typically have a pulmonary function test.
A pulmonary function test determines how healthy or unhealthy your lungs are. It assesses both the health of the lungs and how well they take in oxygen by measuring how the lungs distribute oxygen throughout the entire body.
There are two conditions that affect how air enters and leaves the lungs:
Obstructive: This occurs when the airflow from the lungs is impeded by airway resistance.
Restrictive: This occurs when the chest muscles and/or lung tissue are unable to expand sufficiently.
PFT is possible using two techniques. Depending on the details your healthcare provider needs, these 2 techniques may be combined and used to conduct various tests:
Spirometry:- A mouthpiece-equipped tool called a spirometer is connected to a tiny electrical gadget.
Plethysmography: The tests are performed while seated or standing within an airtight box resembling a brief, square telephone booth.
The right response is, therefore, option A.
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Is to photosynthesis as is to cellular respiration?; How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related in oxygen?; In which process cellular respiration or photosynthesis is oxygen a reactant?; What is oxygen to photosynthesis?
Cellular respiration is the process by which glucose is broken down into simpler compounds in order to release the stored energy.
The final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration is oxygen. Photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen, which are required in cellular respiration.
Photosynthesis is the process by which carbon dioxide and water are converted into oxygen and glucose. The plant consumes glucose as food and produces oxygen as a byproduct.
Cellular respiration is the process through which oxygen and glucose are converted into water and carbon dioxide. Water and carbon dioxide are byproducts of the process, while ATP is the energy that is produced.
During photosynthetic electron transport, oxygen (O2) is produced when water is divided by the oxygen-evolving complex to deliver protons and electrons to the chloroplastic electron chain, resulting in the production of ATP and NADPH—the energy source and electron transporter.
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Compression of lumbar spinal nerves could significantly affect gait. Which of the following muscles would NOT be affected during this occurrence? rectus femoris iliacus vastus lateralis piriformis
In a human, the T12, L1, L2, L3, and L4 spinal nerves give rise to the lumbar plexus. The femoral nerve, obturator nerve, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerve are the three primary nerves that the plexus forms.
A lumbar spinal cord injury may result in paraplegia with functional independence, partial or complete loss of sensation below the injury site, and the requirement for a manual wheelchair, among other things. The lumbosacral trunk, which connects the sacral plexus with a portion of the L4 root and L5 root, is created.
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Automated tools help you collect and report evidence, but you're responsible for doing which of the following? A) Explaining your formatting choices B) Explaining the significance of the evidence C) Explaining in detail how the software works
D) All of the above
Automated tools assist you in gathering and reporting information, but it is your duty to explain the relevance of the findings. The right response in this case is option B.
The ability to include the log files and reports that automated forensics systems produce in your written reports is a significant benefit.
Equipment used in forensic laboratories can range from standard laboratory tools like microscopes, chromatographs, fume hoods, and spectrometers to tools used for particular forensic analyses like fuming chambers for cyanoacrylate to lift latent fingerprints.
Working with numerous forensic copies of the evidence is a good idea because digital forensics can take a long time. This way you can use different tools simultaneously in an effort to speed up the investigation. In order to expedite the inquiry, you might employ many instruments in this manner.
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a motor end plate is defined as one motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers that it innervates (controls).
A motor unit is the aggregate of a single motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
Motor End Plate:-
Motor endplates (MEPs) are significant anatomical and functional junctions between skeletal muscle fibers and motor neurons. Motor neurons send electrical impulses to MEPs, which then produce endplate potentials and cause muscle contractions.
End of Motor Neuron:-
The motor end plate is a specific area of the muscle fiber sarcolemma located across the synaptic cleft from the synaptic end bulb (postsynaptic membrane). Each muscle fiber has one neuromuscular junction, which is normally found close to the middle of the fiber.
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Your immune system has identified some body cells infected with an influenza (flu) virus. Whichof the following will the immune system use to destroy these infected cells?A) AntigensB) Cytotoxic T cellsC) B cellsD) AntibodiesE) Phagocytes
Option b is correct i.e. Cytotoxic T cells of immune system kills some body cells infected with an influenza (flu) virus.
Your child's immune system defends their body from external threats. These include pathogens, bacteria in various forms, viruses, fungus, and toxins (chemicals made by microbes). A collection of organs, cells, and proteins that cooperate to form the immune system. This is how your youngster responds quickly. If an intruder is discovered, it is the first to react. This structure is made up of the mucous membrane that covers the respiratory, genitourinary, and digestive systems, the cornea of the eye, and the skin. All of them build physical barriers to shield your child's body from harm. They defend themselves against dangerous cells, parasites (such as worms), and microorganisms. One inherits the innate immune system. It begins to function the moment your child is born. When an incursion is found, this system reacts quickly. The immune system's cells encircle and cover the invader. Within immune system cells, the invader is destroyed (called phagocytes).
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A cross is made between a red flowering and a white flowering plant. The F1 is a uniform pink, but in the F2, ¹/16 of the plants have white flowers, ¹/16 have red, and the rest have varying shades of pink to red. How many genes are estimated to be affecting the trait?
3 genes are estimated to be affecting the trait. Another important tool created by Gregor Mendel is the test cross. A test cross is a genetic experiment that involves crossing a homozygous recessive organism having a dominant phenotype with an unidentified genotype (and phenotype).
The genotype of an organism is the particular arrangement of alleles for a particular gene. As an example, the genotypes for the flower-color gene in the pea plants above were red-red, red-white, and white-white. The physical representation of an organism's allelic combination is called a phenotype.
[tex]\frac{1}{64}[/tex] is one of the extreme phenotypes, [tex]\frac{1}{4^{n} }[/tex]=[tex]\frac{1}{64}[/tex]= [tex]\frac{1}{4^{3} }[/tex]
Thus by the law of exponents: n=3
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Write down two ways in which the tadpoles depend on the water plants for survival
Answer: Tadpoles depend on water plants for oxygen. Water plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis and release it into the water, providing a crucial source of oxygen for the tadpoles to breathe.
Tadpoles also depend on water plants for food. Many species of tadpoles are herbivorous, meaning they feed on plant matter such as algae and aquatic plants. Water plants provide a source of nutrition for the tadpoles to sustain themselves and grow into adult frogs.
Explanation:
Temperature and precipitation are the most important elements in describing a climate because a. they are the major indicators of what is happening in the atmosphere b they are the elements that have the greatest impact on the hydrosphere
c. they are the elements that have the greatest impact on humans d. they are what controls our climate
Because they have the biggest effects on people, temperature and precipitation are the most crucial factors in describing a climate.
Why are precipitation and temperature significant in a climate?The quantity of water available for drinking, agriculture, and industry can be impacted by rainfall, snowfall, and the timing of snowmelt. The kinds of animals and plants (including crops) that can thrive in specific places are also influenced by annual and seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation.
Why is precipitation a crucial climate factor?Precipitation, a component of the weather, impacts whether or not outdoor activities are appropriate and whether or not creek and river levels will rise. Precipitation is a consistent, long-term aspect of a region's climate that is predictable.
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click and drag each word or phrase into the appropriate category to which it pertains. liver gallbladder
Although the liver has several functions, processing the nutrients ingested through the small intestine is its main responsibility in the digestive system. The liver releases bile into the small intestine, which is necessary for the breakdown of fat.
The human body's digestive system is made up of the gastrointestinal tract and other digestive organs (the tongue, salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder). Food must be broken down during digestion into progressively smaller pieces before it can be absorbed and assimilated into the body. The digestive process is divided into three phases: cephalic, stomach, and intestinal. Beginning with the gastric phase, the second stage of digestion begins. Incorporating the track.
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the worm and roller steering components are basically the same found in the recirculating ball/ parallelogram system. True/False
The worm and roller steering components are basically the same found in the recirculating ball/ parallelogram system. This statement is true.
Many vehicles and SUVs currently feature recirculating-ball steering. Compared to a rack-and-pinion system, the linkage that rotates the wheels is slightly different.
A worm gear is part of the recirculating-ball steering system. The gear can be visualized in two sections. A block of metal with a threaded hole makes up the first component. The outside of this block has gear teeth carved into it that engage a gear to move the pitman arm (see diagram above). A threaded rod that fits into the hole in the block and looks like a bolt is how the steering wheel is attached to it. The bolt is turned when the steering wheel does. This bolt is retained fixed so that it won't twist into the block any further, unlike a typical bolt, which would.
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pyruvate dehydrogenase catalyzes the phosphorylation of a specific ser reisude on the e1 subunit of the enzyme, rendering it inactivate. pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphtase pdh phosphatase) reverses the inhibition by catalyzing the removal of this phosphate group. the pdh kinase is highly regulated and its activity
Active PDK are acetyl CoA, NADH and inhibit PDK are NAD+, coenzymeA, ADP. These same PDK is enabled and inhibit through all the key enzyme. Through assessment of Acetyl coA and NADP. In PDC, the methylation of its Ser residues, which have been catalyzed by PDK, inhibits the pyruvate dehydrogenase.
What is Pyruvate dehydrogenase?The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex converts a molecule called pyruvate, which is formed from the breakdown of carbohydrates, into another molecule called acetyl-CoA.
What is phosphorylation?A biochemical process that involves the addition of phosphate to an organic compound. In biological systems, this reaction is vital for the cellular storage and transfer of free energy using energy carrier molecules.
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The activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated by NADH and acetyl-CoA: and inhibited by NAD+ and ADP.
What is phosphorylation?
A phosphate group is attached to a molecule or an ion during phosphorylation. Common in biology, this activity and its opposite, dephosphorylation, may be influenced by natural selection. Activation or inactivation of several enzymes by protein phosphorylation is common. Often, the first step in the breakdown of carbohydrates is phosphorylation.
All of the major enzymes enable and inhibit PDK. by evaluating Acetyl coA and NADP. The methylation of the Ser residues in PDC, which has been mediated by PDK, prevents the pyruvate dehydrogenase from working.
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in urban planning, __is the designation of specific areas for different categories of land use.
In urban planning, zoning is the designation of specific areas for different categories of land use.
A community's patterns can be observed from a distance and are influenced by the flora and animals in the area. These patterns are referred to as "zoning." The primary species that live in each zone serve as an identification marker, however the zones are typically not neatly divided by a straight line. Instead, some species overlap occurs, especially where the zones converge. When one species completely outcompetes the others owing to predation or competition for resources, zonation is easy to see. The overlapping can occasionally disappear or drastically decrease. Numerous biotic factors, such as predation and competition for food and space, as well as abiotic ones, such height, temperature, and salinity, have an impact on a species' survival or abundance in a certain location. Since each species is specialized to surviving particular climatic conditions that do not exist elsewhere, this leads to zonation. For instance, as we climb a mountain and its height changes, we see different plants and animals since some species can only exist at a certain altitude.
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if a method with the same signature is declared in both the base and derived classes, which keyword is used in the derived classes to properly hide the method in the base class question 2 options:
Classes in the Java programming language can derive from other classes, inheriting their fields and methods in the process.
When a method in a subclass of a class has the same name and type signature as a method in its superclass, the subclass method is said to override the superclass method in a class hierarchy. Method overriding happens when a subclass(derived class) offers a specific implementation of a method declared by one of its parent classes. If a static method defined by a subclass has the same signature as a static method defined by a superclass, then the method in the subclass hides the one in the superclass. One method used by Java to create Run Time Polymorphism is method overriding.
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from the list below, identify the type(s) of sensory information transmitted along the spinocerebellar pathway.
The spinocerebellar pathway, Leg position, body movements, and proprioceptive sense. Sensory pathways known as ascending tracts start in the spinal cord and extend all the way to the cerebral cortex.
Where in the spinal column does sensory information cross?On the same side of the body as the stimulation, sensory information enters the spinal cord. Transcending tracts go from the body's midline to the thalamus's opposite side. For conscious perception, the thalamus sends the signal to the cerebral cortex. There are hardly any involved neurons in the direct pathway.
Which sense axis has its genesis in the inferior trunk and lower limbs?Decide what kind(s) of sensory data travel along the spinocerebellar route. The vermal and paravermal areas of the cerebellum are where axons synapse.
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What are some coping skills to manage the psychological impact of HIV?; When does the treatment of HIV typically begin?; What to do if you believe you were exposed to HIV?; What are 5 ways HIV can be prevented?
Talk about feelings with your providers, friends, family members, or other supportive people.
Try to find activities that relieve stress, such as exercise or hobbies.
Try to get enough sleep each night to help you feel rested. Learn relaxation methods like the meditation, yoga, or deep breathing
People with HIV should start taking HIV medicines as soon as possible after HIV diagnosis.
It is especially important for people with the AIDS-defining conditions or early HIV infection to start HIV medicines right away. (Early HIV infection is period up to 6 months after infection with HIV)
If you are concerned that you have been exposed to HIV, immediately contact local accident and emergency (A&E) department, GUM (genitourinary medicine) or sexual health clinic.
The doctor or nurse there will ask several questions to try to find out whether you could benefit from treatment.
5 ways to prevent HIV
Get tested for HIVUse condoms every time you have sexLimit your number of sexual partnersGet tested and treated for STDs.learn more about HIV at
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Some coping skills to manage the psychological impact of HIV are as simple as talking to people,exercising,going for walks,picking up a hobby,meditating etc.
When does the treatment of HIV typically begin?
The disease's progression determines how to proceed with treatment. When the CD4+ cell count is between 350 and 500, according to current US standards, HIV treatment should start. Opportunistic diseases will also start to be treated as soon as they manifest.
Talking to a doctor right away and getting medical help is the best way to deal if exposed to hiv
Some ways to avoid HIV are
Using protection while having sex such as condoms
maintaining an HIV-positive viral load below detection.
Avoid breastfeeding
Having limited number of sexual partenrs
Not injecting needles
Therefore those are some facts about HIV
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what are the chances of two individuals having a child with tay-sachs if both individuals are not of ashkenazi or french-canadian descent? enter your answer using scientific notation. for the multiplication symbol, use an asterisk (*).
The chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if both individuals are not of Ashkenazi or french-Canadian descent are 2.77 * 10⁻⁶.
A rare genetic condition that can be passed from parent to child is Tay-Sachs disease. The absence of an enzyme that aids in the breakdown of fatty substances is the cause. Gangliosides are fatty substances that have an impact on nerve cell function and accumulate toxic levels in the brain and spinal cord.
if both individuals are from the general population, then the probability of the child being affected will be,
= 1/4 * 1/300 * 1/300
= 1/360000
= 2.77 * 10⁻⁶
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(complete question)
In the general population, 1 in 300 individuals is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, while 1 in 30 individuals of Ashkenazi Jew descent are carriers. Tay-Sachs also affects 1 in 30 individuals with French-Canadian ancestry, although two completely unique mutations are responsible for the Ashkenazi and French-Canadian mutations. What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if both individuals are not of Ashkenazi or French-Canadian descent? Enter your answer using scientific notation. For the multiplication symbol, use an asterisk ).
Explain the three ways in which natural selection operates on different traits in nature
Natural selection affects various features in nature in three ways: stabilizing, directing, and disrupting.
Which 3 elements lead to natural selection?Three tenets underlie natural selection: most traits are inherited (heritance), there are more births than there are places for them to go (competition), and those that possess more desirable traits will endure and procreate in greater numbers (variation).
Choose three answers for "What are the three types of natural selection?"Three different kinds of natural selection exist: directional selection, stabilizing selection, and disruptive selection. Additionally, they represent adaptive evolution. The process by which evolution rewards organisms that are more adapted to their environments is known as natural selection.
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Using the pictures below answer these questions:
1) What can you say about its evolutionary relationship? In other words what type of creature is it? Be as detailed as possible and classify it to as low a level as possible. How can you tell? What physical features give you an evidence of the species. Remember the comparative osteology slides, they will help.
2) What about the teeth? What type of functional dentition does the species have? What else can it tell you about the species?
3) Do you believe this is an adult or child?
4) Pretend you found two of these species, however one was much larger than the other. How would you explain this?
5) By looking at the post cranial bones (those other than the skull and mandible) what can you determine about the locomotion of the species?
It should come as no surprise that biologists also divide species into many categories by assessing how similar and distinct things appear to be. The underlying premise is that biological relationships are closer when there is a higher degree of physical similarity.
believe this is an adult .The vertebral column, ribs, and sternebrae, which are "on" the midline, and appendicular components, which include the forelimbs, hindlimbs, pectoral and pelvic girdles, which are "off" the midline, make up the postcranial skeleton, which is comprised of all the bones and cartilages caudal to the head skeleton.The environment is in a whirlwind with all living things. The organism develops a certain kind of biological relationships with respect to resources; some organisms compete with one another while others depend on one another for survival. These traits are broken down into four categories: parasitism, commensalism, predation, and mutualism. Both organisms profit from a symbiotic relationship.
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This horse is a color breed in contrast to most other breeds which are defined by their genetic ancestry. They have a darker background color with random patches of white. Horse may have one of four recognized conformation types: hunter, pleasure, stock, or saddle. The breed association allows registration of miniatures and horses derived from other breed crosses.
Pinto
In contrast to most other breeds, the pinto horse is classified according to its color rather than its genetic heritage. The Pinto is considered a legitimate breed in America.
Pintos have a black base hue with sporadic white spots on top of it. Any breed or particular conformation may exhibit the Pinto colour. The Pinto Horse Association of America, on the other hand, does not accept horses of Appaloosa, Draft, or mule ancestry or traits. Since its colouring offered a natural concealment, the Pinto has historically been thought of as a horse that American Indians preferred as a war horse in the American west.
Since the Pinto is bred for colour, its conformation is not constant. The term "Piebald" is frequently used to describe horses when the deeper hue is black. The horse is referred to as Skewbald when the darker hue is any color other than black. Thoroughbred to miniature breeds are among the possible origins of pintos.
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threshold characteristics
characteristics that are either present or absent (2 phenotypes) (Ex: disease/pregnant)
you either have the trait or you don't
This is a type of quantitative trait bc they are determined by multiple genes and environmental factors (ex: heart disease)
Quantitative genetic features known as threshold traits have a phenotypic level nonlinearity. There are two phenotypically unique morphs that define these features, and it is considered that the liability, an underlying trait that is continually distributed, is what determines these traits genetically.
What in genetics is a threshold?quantitative traits based on an assumed continuous distribution of the elements that contribute to the trait but discretely manifested in a small number of phenotypes (often two) (underlying liability).
Do threshold qualities have complexity?The environment and numerous genes both seem to have an impact on threshold features, which are all or none.
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muscle contraction occurs when..... group of answer choices motor neurons are unable to release neurotransmitter muscle fibers get longer muscle fibers get shorter bones are thin and porous
Shorter muscular fibres result in muscle contraction. Actin and myosin filaments move past one another instead of changing length when muscles contract in this procedure. The muscle fibre appears shorter and fatter as a result of this process.
The signal, an impulse known as an action potential, is carried by a particular type of nerve cell known as a motor neuron. The neuromuscular junction is the point where the motor neuron joins the muscle cell. The cells that make up skeletal muscle tissue are known as muscular fibres. The motor neuron releases a chemical message at the neuromuscular junction in response to a signal from the nervous system. Acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors outside of muscle fibres, carries the chemical signal. Consequently, a chemical process begins inside the muscle.
Thus, we can state that muscle contraction is caused by shorter muscular fibres.
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When the term biceps triceps or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name what does it tell you?; When the term biceps forms part of the muscle's name what does it tell you about the muscle?; How the triceps and biceps get their names?; What are biceps triceps and quadriceps?
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
Your elbow joint's flexor is the biceps, and its extensor is the triceps. The quadriceps and hamstrings, which are used to bend and straighten the knee, as well as the pectorals and trapezius, which are used to move the arms and shoulders forward and backward, are other muscles that collaborate. In daily activities, not all muscles are used equally. For instance, because we lift against gravity, we engage our biceps more than our triceps.
Hence, hand of person consist of multiple muscle.
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Recommended total daily carbohydrate intake for a person who engages in one hour per day of moderate-intensity endurance training is:
a. 1 to 4 g carbohydrate per kg body weight per day.
b. 5 to 7 g carbohydrate per kg body weight per day.
c. 7 to 10 g carbohydrate per kg body weight per day.
d. 10 to 12 g carbohydrate per kg body weight per day.
e. 12 to 15 g carbohydrate per kg body weight per day.
For a person who performs one hour per day of moderate-intensity endurance training, the recommended daily total carbohydrate intake ranges from 1 to 4 g per kg of body weight.
Your body uses carbohydrates as its primary energy source, particularly when you exercise. The Institute of Medicine advises individuals to consume at least 130 grams of carbohydrates daily, despite the fact that many low-carb diets range from 50 to 150 grams per day. You'll probably require more carbohydrates if you exercise.
Your unique carbohydrate requirements are determined by your calorie intake because the Institute of Medicine recommends getting 45 to 65 percent of your calories from carbohydrates. According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, men and women should consume between 2,000 and 3,000 calories daily to maintain a healthy weight. Your specific calorie requirements depend on your age and amount of activity; younger persons need more calories to maintain their weight than those over 50.
Option A is the proper response, so.
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