. which of the following does not occur? radially symmetrical diploblast diploblastic eucoelomate protostomic coelomate bilaterally symmetrical deuterostome

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Answer 1

The one that does not occur is diploblastic eucoelomate. So the correct option is B. diploblastic eucoelomate.

What is diploblastic eucoelomate?

Eucoelomate diploblastic beings are those whose blastula will have two embryonic leaves, that is, they will have only one interconnected cavity within their body that will be connected by a mouth and an anus. This central cavity will be called a coelom.

That cavity will be covered by a layer called peritoneum that will cover the entire cavity. These organisms will not have a head or a central nervous system.

Within these beings we will find coelenteros and sponges.

Therefore, we can confirm that the one that does not occur is diploblastic eucoelomate. So the correct option is B. diploblastic eucoelomate.

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Related Questions

Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene’s function would cause a person to?.

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A higher chance of developing cancer at some point in their lives.

Which mutant type is most likely to be lethal?

Be aware that any chromosome mutation that causes a sizable loss of genetic material (Deletion) is almost certainly fatal. Despite the fact that many chromosome mutations do not cause the loss of genetic material, the location of a gene on a chromosome can have an impact on how it is expressed.

How do mutations impact genetic diversity in a population?

Random DNA mutations and the introduction of new alleles into the population as a result of intermarriage between members of various populations are two ways to promote genetic diversity. indicates a higher prevalence of hereditary illness. When members of an original population start a new population, it happens.

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Which component of a homeostatic system perceives changes in some parameter of the environment?.

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ANSWER: Sensor. A sensor perceives changes in some parameter of the environment.
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after the treatment of proteins described in the lab manual, all proteins used in this lab should carry an overall charge.

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After the treatment of proteins described in the lab manual, all proteins used in this lab should carry an overall charge Negative .

Proteins, are not negatively charged  in lab when protein is separated  using gel electrophoresis, they must first mix the proteins with a detergent called sodium dodecyl sulfate. Net charge of a protein decreases linearly with molecular weight, with small proteins being mostly positively charged and large proteins negatively charged.

Proteins can be positively charged or negatively charged based on pH conditions. When positive and negative charges on the protein are equal, the net charge is zero.

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Can you explain why int he end the burning paper lifted off?

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Answer:

Combustion.

Explanation:

For example, when paper is burned oxygen from the air combines with carbon and hydrogen in the paper turning some of it into carbon dioxide and water vapor, which waft away with carbon particulates in the smoke.

What causes low enzyme activity?.

Answers

Answer:

sub-optimal conditions

Explanation:

Enzyme activity can be affected by a variety of factors, such as temperature, pH, and concentration. Enzymes work best within specific temperature and pH ranges, and sub-optimal conditions can cause an enzyme to lose its ability to bind to a substrate.

From what you learned in the diffusion handbook, what is causing the patient's low arterial oxygen?.

Answers

Low oxygen tension inside the arterial blood (PaO2) is because of the incapacity of the lungs to properly oxygenate the blood. causes consist of hypoventilation, impaired alveolar diffusion, and pulmonary shunting. it's miles because of pump failure (coronary heart is unable to pump sufficient blood, and arterial oxygen shipping is impaired).

Hypoxemia is a beneath-ordinary degree of oxygen on your blood, in particular inside the arteries. Hypoxemia is a sign of a problem related to respiratory or circulate, and can result in various signs, inclusive of shortness of breath.

The current devices use two wavelengths and degree the absorption within the pulsatile detail of the blood glide, for that reason producing a degree of the oxygen saturation of arterial blood cut loose the non-pulsatile venous blood.

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Which two properties of glucokinase explain why it is an ideal glucose sensor capable of stimulating insulin release from the pancreas?.

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Two properties of glucokinase are its functions as the beta cell's glucose sensor by controlling the rate of glucose entry into the glycolytic pathway and subsequent metabolism.

It is well capable of insulin stimulation release from the pancreas. Particularly in the postprandial phase, glucose kinase is crucial for the liver's ability to store glucose as glycogen.  High glucokinase activity is essential for postprandial glucose phosphorylation, metabolic signal synthesis in glucose-induced insulin secretion in beta cells, and the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver.

Glucokinase is referred to as the "glucose sensor of the beta-cell" due to its strict control over the release of insulin. As a result, early in the disease, hyperinsulinemia may be brought on by excessive glycolysis, which can be reduced to restore the normal stimulus-secretion coupling.

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Which organelle is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into useable energy.

Answers

Answer:

Mitochondria

Explanation:

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system which takes in nutrients, breaks them down, and creates energy rich molecules for the cell.

Choose the combination of factors that creates snow. Record the description of the factors in the Student Guide. Relative Humidity low Air Temperature' cold Air Pressure low​

Answers

Warm temperatures, high pressure, and high humidity. Reason: I hope this was helpful!

Is 80% humidity too high?

The recommended indoor humidity range, according to experts, for comfort and avoiding negative health impacts is between 35 or 60 percent. It's more likely that you'll develop certain health problems if you spend time in a house or workplace where the humidity is more than 60%.

What humidity level is uncomfortable?

Dry and pleasant conditions are less than and equal to 55. getting "sticky" with humid evenings between the ages of 55 and 65. higher than that or equivalent to 65: The air is humid and starting to feel oppressive.

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the age of viability is the time when the fetus: group of answer choices might survive outside the uterus has developed all of its major organs begins to move will be born without defects

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Age of viability refers to the age between 22 and 26 weeks at which a fetus can survive in the event of a premature birth.

What is age of viability?

Fetal viability is the ability of a human fetus to survive outside uterus

Medical viability is considered to be between 23 and 24 weeks gestational ageViability depends upon factors such as birth weight, gestational age, and availability of advanced medical care.Gestational age is major determining factor in whether a baby will be viable, since the longer a fetus spends in the womb, more fully developed it is when it enters the world.

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In one paragraph, explain why caucasians are more lactose persistent (tolerant) than the rest of the group of people in the world.

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Answer:

Caucasians are more lactose persistent because they come from a long line of people who have been able to adapt to the lactose in milk. They have a mutation in their DNA that allows them to break down the lactose into glucose and galactose, which are then used for energy by the body.

Caucasians are more lactose persistent because they come from a long line of people who have been able to adapt to the lactose in milk. They have a mutation in their DNA that allows them to break down the lactose into glucose and galactose, which are then used for energy by the body.

the mammary glands secrete milk in response to circulating oxytocin. a suckling baby feeding on this milk stimulates additional oxytocin release. these related events are an example of .

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More suckling produces increased prolactin, which leads to more lactation. This is a positive feedback system as the product (milk) produces more suckling and hormone.

What is the feedback mechanism?

A physiological control system in a living organism that works to return the body to its normal internal condition, also known as homeostasis, is called a feedback mechanism. In the natural world, feedback mechanisms can be discovered in a wide range of ecosystems and different kinds of animals.

A positive feedback mechanism is responsible for controlling the production and secretion of oxytocin. In this mechanism, the release of the hormone induces an action that stimulates more of the hormone's own release. Oxytocin is released, for instance, when the contractions of the uterus begin during labor and delivery of a baby.

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Which variable should be changed in an experiment to test the best conditions for bacteria to grow? the type of bacteria used the length of time that the bacteria are left alone the size of the original colony of bacteria the material that the bacteria feed upon

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An experiment to test the best conditions for bacteria to grow is the material that the bacteria feed upon. Option D.

Antibacterial hand soap with different concentrations. Dependent variable bacterial growth as measured by the diameter of the zone of inhibition. Exposing Petri dishes to different temperatures can skew the level of bacterial growth they inhabit. Plant height is the dependent variable that responds to changes in the independent variable.

Sunlight is the controlling variable because each plant is exposed to the same amount of sunlight. It is the dependent variable because it measures the amount of plant growth. The dependent variable depends on the independent variable. How much plants grow depends on how much sun they receive. A continuous increase in temperature from a minimum value increases the rate of bacterial growth because the rate of metabolic reactions increases with increasing temperature.

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in oxidative phosphorylation, atp production is coupled to the events in the electron-transport chain. what is accomplished in the final electron transfer event in the electron-transport chain?

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In oxidative phosphorylation, atp production is coupled to the events in the electron-transport chain chemiosmotic coupling.

Oxidative phosphorylation is the system by using which ATP synthesis is coupled to the movement of electrons thru the mitochondrial electron transport chain and the related consumption of oxygen.

Inside the mitochondrion, what the proton gradient does is facilitate the production of ATP from ADP and Pi. This technique is known as oxidative phosphorylation, because the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP is dependent on the oxidative reactions going on inside the mitochondria.

Oxidative phosphorylation is the terminal oxidation of cardio respiratory. it's miles the method in which ATP is fashioned with the help of electron transferred from the electron transport chain. F1 particle is the web site of oxidative phosphorylation. It includes ATP synthase enzyme.

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acute tubular necrosis (atn) is the most common cause of intrinsic renal failure. what are the most common causes of ischemic atn? select all that apply.

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ATN is frequently caused by a lack of oxygen and blood to the renal tissues. It might also occur if a harmful substance destroys the renal cells.

What sets the kidney apart from the renal?

While renal is an adjective, kidney is a noun. The two terms don't form a tautology. The word renal has a Latin root (ren). The words meaning kidneys in Spanish, Italian, & French are extremely similar to the English "renal" (rein).

What are renal problems?

Rarely do kidneys lose their capacity to filter and clean blood. This could lead to the buildup of hazardous waste levels. This is renal failure (or kidney failure). If untreated, this may be fatal.

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Mendelian inheritance does not apply to the inheritance of alleles that result in incomplete dominance and codominance. Explain why this is so.

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Mendelian inheritance does not apply to the inheritance of alleles that result in incomplete dominance and codominance because the phenotypic ratio in mendelian inheritance corresponds to cases of complete dominance.

What is the genetic phenomenon of complete dominance?

The genetic phenomenon of complete dominance makes reference to the process in which only one allele or gene variant is expressed in some loci for heterozygous individuals, thereby masking the expression of another allele called the recessive allele.

Mendel described the phenomenon of complete dominance in pea plants because they produce a proportion of 3:1 ratio in a hybrid cross for a single locus.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the genetic phenomenon of complete dominance is described by Mendel in his experiments, while other genetic phenomena of allelic interaction such as in the case of incomplete dominance or codominance were not investigated by him.

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How have freshwater and saltwater fish adapted to deal with osmosis in their respective environments? (site 1).

Answers

Answer:Water for Replacement

Explanation:

Salt water fish are perfectly adapted to their salty environment and need osmosis to live. The replacement fluid taken on to replace the lost water is desalinated by a process known as diffusion. Diffusion allows fish to live in a state of constant osmosis.

why would a farmer plow this type of plant roots back into the soil and what would be the benefit of turning over the soil and leaving the old plant roots?

Answers

The benefit of turning over the soil would be that the nitrogen content of the soil would increase.

Roots may draw atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into nitrates, which plants can use. The amount of nitrogen in the soil would rise if these roots were ploughed into the ground. The airflow can be improved by loosening the soil. The plant may be held securely by the roots since they can grow deeper into the earth. Plowing improves the soil's ability to retain water. In addition to uprooting weeds from the field, ploughing promotes the development of beneficial microbes.

Also, in the absence of plowing, the roots can start to decay. Numerous essential soil animals and microorganisms will also perish.

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What type of mutation has occurred in the following example?
A.) deletion mutation
B.) germ-cell mutation
C.) insertion mutation

Use the screenshot to answer this question. Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C?

Answers

The type of mutation that has occurred in the example is insertion mutation. So the correct option is C.

What is a insertion mutation?

This type of mutation is one that will involve the addition of nucleotides in a segment of DNA, they can be either one or a complete part of a chromosome. In the image it can be seen that there is an insertion of "A" in the mutated sequence, which gives us an indication that the mutation that was generated is the insertion one.

This mutation can be dangerous since it can change the encoding of some type of amino acid, thus affecting the formation of a certain protein, which can make it abnormal or useless for its purpose. And if we are lucky, the mutation will not occur in an exon, which will not alter the coding of amino acids.

Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is C. insertion mutation.

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earths population continues to grow daily. which of the following statements best illustrates a possible consequence of such rapid growth?

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The statement that describes that Earth's population is growing daily and it's possible consequence is that people will begin using fossil fuels less.

Population is outlined as all nationals gift in, or quickly absent from a rustic, and aliens for good settled in a very country. This indicator shows the quantity of individuals that sometimes sleep in a region. Growth rates are the annual changes in population ensuing from births, deaths and internet migration throughout the year.

Fossil fuels are made up of moldering plants and animals. These fuels are found within the Earth's crust and contain carbon and chemical element, which might be burned for energy. Coal, oil, and fossil fuel are samples of fossil fuels.

The question is incomplete, find the complete question here

Earths population continues to grow daily. which of the following statements best illustrates a possible consequence of such rapid growth?

More oxygen will be available in the atmosphere.

Competition for natural resources will increase.

More land will be available for human habitation.

People will begin using fossil fuels less.

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a specific type of point mutation called a(n) mutation is a base substitution that changes a single amino acid in a polypeptide sequence.

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Missense mutation is specific type of point mutation called a(n) mutation is a base substitution that changes a single amino acid in a polypeptide sequence.

A missense mutation is a DNA change that end up at different amino acids being encoded at a particular position in the resulting protein.

When a genetic alteration occurs in single base pair  it substitute and  alters the genetic code in a way that produces an amino acid that is different from the usual amino acid at that position. This alteration in mutation is termed as missense mutation .

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A gene is the basic unit of heredity. What is the function of genes?
Genes code for specific traits.
Genes determine the DNA sequence.
Genes create chromosomes.
Genes help with replication.

Answers

The correct function of genes is it creates chromosomes. Chromosomes are structures within cells that contains hundreds to thousands of genes.

What is a gene? What are the function of genes?

A gene is the basic physical and fundamental unit of heredity which contains instructions to produce molecules called proteins.

Functions of genes:

Genes control the functions of DNA and RNAGenes control the protein synthesis which is responsible for all activities carried on by the body.Genes control the proper folding, transportation, activity and eventual destruction of proteins.

Let us discuss the other options:

DNA codes for specific traits by first translating or copying into a molecule of messenger RNA.DNA sequencing is the technique in determining the exact sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.DNA helps in replication by which a double stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecules.

Hence Genes are the structures that are present within the chromosomes which contain proteins that help DNA exist in the proper form. Genes are the bulding blocks of life and contain information for making specific molecules and proteins.

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(7.2) why does the rate of evolution appear rapid when studied in the short term but agonizingly slow when studied in the fossil record?

Answers

Evolution only happens gradually and slowly. Evolution is a slow process, thus humans cannot change it. Only in tiny populations do mutations wander.

How does the fossil record show that there has been evolution?

The earliest rocks contain the fossils of the simplest species, whereas the most recent rocks include the fossils of more complex organisms. This is consistent with Darwin's theory of evolution, according to which more complex life forms gradually developed from simpler ones. Fossils provide proof of early life forms.

What kind of fossil evidence is there supporting evolution?

Using recovered fossils, paleontologists have recreated instances of significant evolutionary changes in form and function. For instance, reptiles have several lower jaw bones, whereas mammals only have one. The reptile's jaw's additional teeth were plainly seen.

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he division of a bacterial cell occurs as the: multiple choice chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell. cell wall develops cracks around the equator of the cell. actin and microtubules constrict the cytoplasm. new membrane and cell wall materials begin to grow and form a septum.

Answers

The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell (option A).

What is cell division?

Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two cells. All living organisms are capable of undergoing cell division.

Bacteria grow and reproduce by the process of binary fission. A bacterial cell begins to divide when the number of its cellular components reaches a critical mass.

The DNA must first be replicated and then allocated into the daughter cells. The cytoplasmic contents must also be divided to give both new cells the machinery to sustain life.

In bacterial cells specifically, the genome consists of a single, circular DNA chromosome; therefore, the process of cell division is simplified. The circular double-stranded DNA molecule makes up the bacterial chromosome, which then segregates into the opposite sides of the cell.

Therefore, it can be said that the pulling of chromosomes towards the end of the cell begins the process of cell division in bacteria.

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Explain what happens to the cell cycle if both alleles of the gene encoding p53 are mutated.

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The tumour suppressor gene p53 serves as a crucial cell cycle regulator. It is a recessive gene. If only one p53 allele is altered, the p53 gene will continue to operate and, if there are sufficient gene changes in the cell, apoptosis (programmed cell death) will occur.

Even with large mutations, cancer will develop if two p53 alleles are mutated because the cell will not get the signal to apoptose.The result is apoptosis, in which the cell kills itself. Multicellular organisms can undergo the programmed cell death process known as apoptosis. It is a tightly managed and regulated process that benefits an organism at different stages of its life cycle.An essential regulator of apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is the protein p53. To ensure that every cell in our body has healthy DNA, p53 aids in the death of damaged or cells with damaged DNA.Because p53 is a strong regulator of the cell cycle, p53 mutations lead to the development of cancer.By activating p21, which in turn inhibits G1 cyclin CDK and prevents the cell from entering the S phase or synthesis phase, p53 kills the injured cells.

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Which situation best illustrates the role of businesses in the circular flow of goods?.

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The situation which best illustrates the role of businesses in the circular flow of goods is by a company designs a new line of laptops.

What is company?

A group of people can come together to legally form a corporation to do business and run a commercial or industrial venture. Depending on its jurisdiction's corporate legislation, a corporation may be set up in a variety of ways for tax and financial liability reasons.

Therefore, The situation which best illustrates the role of businesses in the circular flow of goods is by a company designs a new line of laptops.

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each sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of rna that codifies one amino acid is called ... group of answer choices anticodon units codon base

Answers

Sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of RNA that codifies one amino acid is called codon .

Bases in mRNA are grouped into sets of three called codons. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal in the process of protein synthesis.

The three letter nature of codons means that the four nucleotides found in mRNA A, U, G, and C  that can produce a total of 64 different combinations. These codons will match complementary to an anticodon which will have an amino acid attached.

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Order the entence from top to bottom to how how onar can be ued to locate object underwater

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Sonar can be used to locate objects underwater. These are the correct order of the sequences of how the sonar works:

The sonar system sends bursts of U/S waves that travel through water.When sound waves strike an object on the ocean floor, the waves reflect backward.The sonar device detects the reflected waves.The farther the wave travels, the longer it takes to return to the system.A computer will measure the time it takes for the sound to go out and return, then multiply by the speed of sound in water and is divided by 2.

What is a sonar system?

Sonar, which stands for sonic navigation and ranging, is a technique to measure and locate underwater objects using sound propagation. It has been used for commercial fishing to submarine and mine detection.

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which option is a light wavelength that chlorophyll does not absorb?(1 point) responses violet violet yellow yellow red red green green

Answers

The wavelengths of green and yellow are not absorbed by chlorophyll.

Where does chlorophyll absorb the least light?

Chlorophyll a and b pigment absorption spectra in the visible light spectrum, as measured in a solvent. Almost no green light is absorbed by any type. The most powerful light-absorbers for chlorophyll A are violet and orange. Mostly blue and yellow light is absorbed by chlorophyll b.

Which wavelength does chlorophyll absorb best?

All photosynthetic organisms include chlorophyll a, which absorbs both red and blue light with wavelengths of 662 nm and 430 nm, respectively. It reflects green light, giving the plants it is found in a green appearance. Chlorophyll an is found in plants in greater abundance than other pigments.

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Why are the cells in your skin different from the cells in your heart?.

Answers

These cells are different because they use the same set of genes differently. So even though each of our cells has the same 20,000 or so genes, each cell can select which ones it wants to “turn on” and which ones it wants to keep “turned off”

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